Humanities

Q: Which of the following is NOT an international financial institution? a. The International Monetary Fund. b. The Federal Reserve System. c. The World Bank. d. The G20.

Q: Among the indicators of economic development of a country are standard of living, life expectancy, and literacy. a. True b. False

Q: The International Monetary Fund and the World Bank often make loans to developing countries contingent on those countries eliminating subsidies for their exports. a. True b. False

Q: The terms 'offshoring' and 'outsourcing' refer to the same thing. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Q: Technological advancements are a. Benefiting all nations. b. Increasing the economic disparity between rich and poor nations. c. Leaving the economic health of nations about the same. d. Especially benefiting poor nations.

Q: According to Franz Fanon, what is the cause of poverty in many of the worlds poorest countries? a. Democracy. b. Corruption. c. Colonialism. d. Communism.

Q: Explain just war theory. Why is it considered an intermediate moral approach to war (between pacifism and realism)? In your explanation, be specific about the essential differences between just war theory and pacifism, and between just war theory and realism.

Q: Explain the realist approach to war. What are the moral justifications for realism? Why are there no deontological justifications for realism given in your text?

Q: Farm subsidies in the United States were originally intended to help farmers hurt by the Great Depression. a. True b. False

Q: One of the ways to evaluate ethically the policies of the IMF and World Bank is whether they have done more good than harm or the opposite. a. True b. False

Q: The gap between rich and poor nations has greatly narrowed over the last 3 decades. a. True b. False

Q: The terms 'respatialization' and 'deterritorialization' refer to the same thing. a. True b. False

Q: One significant difference between matters of charity and matters of justice is that the former is more flexible or optional than the latter. a. True b. False

Q: According to Peter Singer, helping people in famine stricken countries is a matter of charity not obligation or duty. a. True b. False

Q: It is clear that globalization has contributed more to stability and peace than to dissention and conflict around the world. a. True b. False

Q: What would be a nonconsequentialist justification for pacificism? a. Killing is economically costly. b. Killing leads to pain and suffering c. Killing only leads to more killing. d. Killing is wrong in and of itself. Label the items below as one of these Requirements for a Just War: Just Cause (JC), Proportionality (P), Last Resort (LR), Right Intention (RI), Discrimination (D). Also tell whether the requirement is one for going to war (Jus ad Bellum: JAB), or conduct in war (Jus in Bello: JIB).

Q: The good to be achieved by some action must not be outweighed by the costs to do so.

Q: There must be some serious or weighty reason that justifies the initial presumption against war.

Q: This requirement makes bombing of civilian populations unacceptable.

Q: We should always remember that we are aiming toward achieving peace and do nothing that will make this less difficult to achieve.

Q: We should not directly and intentionally target non-combatants, but only those who are a threat to us.

Q: What is a war crime? When answering this question, be sure to describe the three different categories of war crime established through the Nuremberg trials. Be sure to address and explain the moral theories underpinning the idea of a war crime. Finally, what would the realist approach to war say about the idea of a war crime and the justifications for that idea?

Q: What are the two principles to the jus in bello part of the just war theory? a. The principle of enlightenment and the principle of retribution. b. The principle of retaliation and the principle of compensatory justice. c. The principle of proportionality and the principle of discrimination. d. The principle of non-proliferation and the principle of non-engagement.

Q: The first Geneva Convention was formulated in 1864 to a. Establish rules for the conduct of war. b. Establish standards for the treatment of prisoners. c. Protect the sick and wounded. d. Set a basis for prosecuting war crimes.

Q: To agree that the reduction of privacy rights to gain greater security is an example of ________ reasoning. a. Utilitarian b. Kantian c. Relativism d. Natural law

Q: Which of these characteristics is not part of the United States' State Department definition of terrorism? a. Political motivation in violence perpetrated against noncombatants. b. Conflicts motivated by local grievances rather than governmental decisions. c. It can be committed by a nation state or noncombatants through excessive force. d. It is committed by subnational groups or clandestine agents, usually intended to influence an audience.

Q: The idea that killing is wrong, but my killing is OK violates which of our ethical theories? a. Relativism b. Categorical imperative c. Utilitarianism d. Egoism

Q: Most terrorists are a. Well educated and middle class. b. Poor and desperate. c. Ignorant and easily manipulated. d. Rich and bored.

Q: What does the proportionality principle require? a. It requires that, before employing biochemical weapons, we weigh the relative advantages of conventional weapons as a viable alternative. b. It requires that, before engaging in war or the use of force, we consider the likely costs and benefits of doing so, as opposed to choosing alternative courses of action (or no action). c. It requires that, before considering non-violence, we consider the likelihood of international repercussions. d. It requires that, before we call a war just we commence a values-assessment and consult political and religious leaders.

Q: Which of the following is not a rationale for pacifism? a. Nonviolent means work better than violent means. b. To kill people is wrong in itself. c. Setting an example of nonviolent resolution encourages negotiation. d. Pacifism encourages the enemy to lay down its defenses.

Q: What kind of reasoning is found in the just cause principle? a. Utilitarianism b. Natural law c. Relativism d. Categorical imperative

Q: According to the principle of discrimination, it is wrong to ever do what risks deaths of civilians in war. a. True b. False

Q: One long-standing element of both international law and just war theory is the inviolability of civilians or noncombatants. a. True b. False

Q: A value neutral definition of terrorism is the use of force to destroy property or kill people who are not directly involved in the matters being protested. a. True b. False

Q: That violence can never lead to peace is a deontological reason supporting pacifism. a. True b. False

Q: All forms of pacifism hold that violence is always wrong. a. True b. False

Q: Just War theory has an initial presumption against war that must be overcome by the fulfillment of certain requirements. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Q: According to your text, what is the most immediate goal of terrorism? a. To vent anger. b. To create push a political or religious ideology. c. To create fear. d. To assert value.

Q: War crimes are defined differently by various nations who each have their own doctrine of universal human rights. a. True b. False

Q: St. Augustine was one of the first we know of to write in support of the justification of some wars. a. True b. False

Q: One problem for achieving world peace, according to experts, is the reduction in the proliferation of weapons. a. True b. False

Q: The principle of double effect used by the principle of discrimination holds that there is a difference between directly intending some end and foreseeing that one's actions might result in that end. a. True b. False

Q: To be a pacifist is the same thing as to be a conscientious objector. a. True b. False

Q: According to the last resort requirement, we should try "everything" short of war first. a. True b. False

Q: The Human Genome Project was completed in: a. 1995. b. It is not yet finished. c. 2000. d. 2013.

Q: Stem cells are a. Monopotent. b. Pluripotent. c. Omnipotent. d. Bipotent.

Q: According to your text, of the 20,000 human genes, how many are unique to humans and not found in other animals? a. 300 b. 18,000 c. 10,000 d. 1,000

Q: The "playing God" argument against cloning a. Is religious in nature. b. Is the same as the "yuck factor" argument. c. Is built on teachings in the Christian Bible. d. Is not necessarily a religious argument. Indicate one or more answer choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.

Q: Which moral approach best represents the precautionary principle? a. Natural law ethics b. Utilitarianism c. Kant's categorical imperative d. Care ethics

Q: The idea of the "wisdom of repugnance" is a form of a. intuitionism. b. willful ignorance. c. divine command theory. d. mysticism.

Q: According to Kass, "yuck factor" arguments are grounded in a. a wisdom of repugnance. b. hyper-sensitivity. c. care ethics. d. a false naturalism.

Q: The process of activating, replacing, or changing malfunctioning genes before a baby is born would be an example of a. reproductive cloning. b. genetic enhancement. c. in vitro fertilization. d. gene therapy.

Q: Which moral approach is the "playing God" objection based upon? a. Natural law ethics b. Utilitarianism c. Kant's categorical imperative d. Care ethics

Q: Explain the relationships between ethical issues related to cloning, and ethical issues related to abortion. In your discussion, be sure to explain the difference between therapeutic cloning and reproductive cloning. Do the relevant ethical issues apply to both types of cloning?

Q: The argument that human personhood begins at conception and, therefore, human embryos should not be used for scientific research is founded in a. Categorical imperative. b. Utilitarianism. c. Natural law. d. Virtue ethics.

Q: A common ethical objection to human reproductive cloning is a. It is a production rather than a creation. b. It violates the human's rights to an open future c. All of these choices. d. It is comparable to "playing God."

Q: How has nearly all the food we eat been genetically modified in the broadest sense of the term? a. It has been cross-bred for centuries. b. It has been made drought-resistant. c. It has been made sterile. d. It has been infused with "edible vaccines."

Q: What is the difference between animal welfare concerns and animal rights concerns? (Be sure to incorporate a discussion of moral agency and moral patience into your answer.)

Q: Explain the difference between therapeutic technologies and enhancement technologies. What are some conceptual criticisms made of this distinction? What are some ways that the distinction is claimed to be ethically relevant?

Q: What is the difference between genetic screening and gene therapy? Present a consequentialist argument in favor of either genetic screening or gene therapy. Then, present a nonconsequentialist argument against either genetic screening or gene therapy.

Q: The Human Genome Project was designed to alter and perfect the human genetic code. a. True b. False

Q: Some opponents of stem cell research argue that the early undifferentiated cells of the blastocyst have the full moral status of a person, and thus cannot be used in medical research. a. True b. False

Q: One of the central issues in the debate over embryonic stem cell research is the moral status of the human blastocyst, a fertilized ball of cells that is smaller than a grain of sand. a. True b. False

Q: According to the Human Genome Project, human beings' genes are 99.9% identical, regardless of race or sex. a. True b. False

Q: The "yuck factor" argument against human cloning holds that we ought to trust our gut reactions to certain procedures as indicative of their moral nature. a. True b. False

Q: In most cases, GMOs are an example of an enhancement technology. a. True b. False

Q: Embryonic stem cells are called omnipotent, because they can develop into many different kinds of tissue. a. True b. False

Q: All successful cloning produces a genetically identical reproduction of a full animal or plant. a. True b. False

Q: In most cases, prosthetic limbs are an example of an enhancement technology. a. True b. False

Q: Mammals have never been cloned. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Q: Present arguments for "fair chase" from each of the following perspectives: consequentialism, virtue ethics, deontological ethics.

Q: Peter Singer compares "speciesism" with racism. Explain Singer's point. Using the concepts you've learned (from this and earlier chapters of your text) evaluate Singer's argument.

Q: We have duties toward animals only if they have rights. a. True b. False

Q: All vegetarians are vegans. a. True b. False

Q: A so-called "right" refers to a strong and legitimate moral claim. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Q: Sentience refers to an animal's ability to a. Reason. b. Be aware of existence. c. Suffer. d. Communicate.

Q: Arguments that animals have rights usually appeal to a. Utilitarianism. b. Categorical imperative. c. Relativism. d. Natural law.

Q: Justifications for animal experimentation typically appeal to __________ reasoning? a. Utilitarian b. Categorical imperative c. Relative d. Natural law

Q: Globally, how many animal species are considered to be endangered? a. Almost 500 b. Almost 20,000 c. Almost 5000 d. Almost 15,000

Q: Singer begins his argument by comparing animal rights to a. Human rights. b. Children's rights. c. Women's rights. d. Natural rights.

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