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Q:
The two B-shaped stone blocks in Djoser's complex were implements for his:
A) ceremonial race.
B) sacrifice of ceremonial animals.
C) wedding ceremony.
D) priests to use in locating the planet Venus.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q:
Access to the Athenian Acropolis is made through the:
A) Propylaea.
B) pronaos.
C) proactiva.
D) naos.
E) pronaos and proactiva.
Q:
The outer layer of Egyptian pyramids was typically made of:
A) basalt.
B) granite.
C) sandstone.
D) dolerite.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Q:
The pediment sculpture from the Parthenon depicts the:
A) birth of Athena.
B) victory of Athena over the Persian god Marathon.
C) contest between Athena and Poseidon.
D) contests between Athens and Sparta.
E) birth of Athena and the contest between Athena and Poseidon.
Q:
Compare and contrast the planning and construction of Stonehenge and the Newgrange passage grave in County Meath, Ireland.
Q:
In a Greek temple, the platform from which columns rise is called the:
A) metope.
B) stylobate.
C) epistodomus.
D) gable.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Q:
The ancient Egyptians saw life as a journey, somewhat like a trip down the Nile. As a metaphor for this journey, they created sequential architectural experiences. Discuss the sequences found in a pyramid complex or the Temple of Queen Hatshepsut or the Great Temple of Amun.
Q:
Compare the construction materials and methods employed at an Egyptian pyramid to those at a Mesopotamian ziggurat.
Q:
The palace at Knossos was excavated by:
A) Howard Carter.
B) Heinrich Schliemann.
C) Sir Arthur Evans.
D) Lord Elgin.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q:
Minoan columns are unusual because the shafts:
A) are only partially fluted.
B) flare from bottom to top.
C) were painted with frescoes.
D) mimic bundles of reeds.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q:
The walls at Mycenae display:
A) attached columns.
B) cyclopean masonry.
C) limestone veneer.
D) fresco paintings.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Q:
The Mycenaean megaron includes:
A) a domos.
B) a central entrance on one side.
C) a prodomos.
D) an anteroom.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q:
The Treasury of Atreus includes a beehive-shaped chamber made of:
A) trilithons.
B) corbeled stones.
C) true arches.
D) randomly coursed stones.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Q:
Columns in the plane of a wall and often between antae are called:
A) in antis columns.
B) stylobate columns.
C) peripteral columns.
D) intercolumnations.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Q:
All of the following are part of the entablature EXCEPT:
A) a cornice.
B) a frieze.
C) metopes.
D) an architrave.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q:
Peculiar to the Temple of Apollo Epicurius at Bassai are:
A) sculpted lion-capital columns in the pronaos.
B) Ionic columns projecting from the interior walls of the cella.
C) twenty-six Doric columns in the external colonnade.
D) multiple Corinthian columns in the cella.
E) fourteen freestanding Corinthian columns in the inner circular colonnade.
Q:
The White Temple of Uruk was called so because its exterior was:
A) covered with white marble.
B) dedicated to the white river god.
C) whitewashed.
D) surrounded by white sand.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Q:
Access to the ziggurat at Ur was made possible by:
A) a flight of stairs.
B) multiple ramps.
C) a single bridge.
D) an armada of boats.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Q:
Serdabs were small chambers for spirit offerings in:
A) mastabas.
B) pyramids.
C) the Sphinx.
D) Persia.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Q:
The palace at Khorsabad was organized by means of:
A) courts.
B) axes.
C) sequential gateways.
D) terraces.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q:
The designer of the first pyramid for Djoser's funerary complex was:
A) Djoser.
B) Alexander the Great.
C) Senmut.
D) Imhotep.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Q:
Ancient Egyptian architecture is characterized by the use of obelisks, which refer to:
A) unique double-headed capitals carved in the form of bulls and lions.
B) stone columns that support wooden roof beams.
C) sculpted animal motifs.
D) small terracotta cones.
E) pyramid shapes at the top of stone shafts.
Q:
The Djoser pyramid was unique in the Old Kingdom in that it was:
A) extremely steeply pitched.
B) covered with glazed brick.
C) located on an island.
D) double-sloped.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Q:
The trio of large pyramids at Giza are the work of:
A) Mentuhotep, Khufu, and Khafra.
B) Cheops, Chepren, and Hatshepsut.
C) Cheops, Chepren, and Djoser.
D) Khufu, Khafre, and Menkaure.
E) Mentuhotep, Hatshepsut, and Djoser.
Q:
The pyramid complex in Giza, Egypt, included:
A) a valley temple.
B) a causeway to the valley temple.
C) a mortuary temple.
D) a causeway to the mortuary temple.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q:
Middle Kingdom tombs at Dier-el-Bahari include that of:
A) Mentuhotep II.
B) Queen Hatshepsut.
C) Beni-Hasan.
D) King Djoser.
E) Thutmose II.
Q:
The dominant elements at Queen Hatshepsut's temple are:
A) pylon gates.
B) colonnades.
C) pyramids.
D) obelisks.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Q:
Hypostyle halls were lit by:
A) skylights.
B) colonnades.
C) courtyards.
D) clerestory windows.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q:
Which of the following is true about the funerary complex of Queen Hatshepsut?
A) The overall design was doubtless inspired by the trio of large pyramids in Giza.
B) The faades of the temple were articulated by buttressing pilasters.
C) Unique double-headed capitals carved in the form of bulls and lions were present in the temple.
D) Mud-brick walls and a post-and-lintel timber framework enclosed rectangular spaces in the complex.
E) The overall design of the complex was inspired by the neighboring temple of Mentuhotep.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of the Acropolis in Tepe Gawra, Sumer (Iraq)?
A) Its major buildings formed a B-shaped closed court.
B) The building was erected in a valley and it reflected its insignificance to the society.
C) The faades of its courts were articulated by buttressing pilasters.
D) Its walls were made of red granite and surrounded by obelisks.
E) There were massive columns and obelisks on the path leading to the building.
Q:
In the context of the architecture in ancient Egypt, monumental masonry entrance gates or ________ lined processional routes to represent the eastern mountains of Egypt through which the divine early-morning sunlight emanated.
A) pylons
B) obelisks
C) trilithons
D) colonnades
E) pilasters
Q:
The Great Temple of Amun was built by:
A) the Ptolemies.
B) the followers of Khafre.
C) captive Hebrews.
D) multiple pharaohs.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Q:
The rivers of ancient Mesopotamia were the:
A) Euphrates and Aubrey.
B) Tigris and Euphrates.
C) Tigris and Nile.
D) Aubrey and Nile.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Q:
All of the following civilizations operated in Mesopotamia EXCEPT the:
A) Sumerian civilization.
B) Achaean civilization.
C) Babylonian civilization.
D) Hittite civilization.
E) Assyrian civilization.
Q:
At Persepolis, the Persians borrowed from Egyptian artistic traditions by using:
A) an obelisk.
B) a hypostyle hall.
C) a megaron.
D) a trilithon.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Q:
The orientation of the passageway at Newgrange seems to have been based on:
A) ancient pathways.
B) the direction of sunlight on the winter solstice.
C) an understanding of true north.
D) the relationship of the site to Stonehenge.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Q:
The principal building material for Mesopotamian ziggurats was:
A) white marble.
B) sun-dried brick.
C) tamped earth.
D) sandstone.
E) granite.
Q:
A trilithon at Stonehenge consists of:
A) three coffin-sized stone slabs used as an altar.
B) a vertical sighting stone and two horizontal stones.
C) two upright stones capped by a lintel.
D) three concentric rings of ditches.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Q:
The most common Mesopotamian house type:
A) made use of a cella.
B) was built from glazed brick.
C) was based on a Persian house.
D) had a courtyard at its core.
E) made use of a cella and was built from glazed brick.
Q:
The fossa ovalis is a remnant of the __________ of the fetus.
A. ductus arteriosus
B. ductus venosus
C. umbilical artery
D. umbilical vein
E. foramen ovale
Q:
During birth, an infant is normally stimulated to breathe by __________.
A. CO2 accumulating in the baby's blood
B. an increased O2 level in the baby's new environment
C. prostaglandins
D. surfactant
E. being spanked by the doctor
Q:
Which of the following organ systems shows the greatest anatomical change in the transitional period after birth?
A. Muscular system
B. Integumentary system
C. Skeletal system
D. Circulatory system
E. Nervous system
Q:
Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) is caused by __________.
A. production of very thick respiratory mucus
B. deficiency of pulmonary surfactant
C. underdeveloped respiratory epithelium
D. pulmonary edema
E. overinflated alveoli
Q:
In fetal circulation, the __________ bypasses the liver and the __________ bypasses the lungs.
A. ligamentum venosum; ligamentum arteriosum
B. foramen ovale; ductus venosus
C. ductus arteriosus; ductus venosus
D. ductus venosus; ductus arteriosus
E. ligamentum arteriosum; foramen ovale
Q:
In fetal circulation, blood bypasses the lungs by flowing through the __________.
A. umbilical vein and umbilical arteries
B. fossa ovalis and umbilical arteries and vein
C. foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus
D. ductus venosus and ductus arteriosus
E. ligamentum venosum and ligamentum arteriosum
Q:
Which of the following major events of prenatal development happens first?
A. The eyes are fully open
B. The body is covered with lanugo
C. Bone calcification begins
D. The central nervous system begins to form
E. Meconium accumulates in the intestines
Q:
Oxygenated blood reaches the fetus through the __________.
A. umbilical vein
B. umbilical arteries
C. maternal vein
D. maternal arteries
E. placental sinus
Q:
Which of the following is not considered an embryonic membrane?
A. Yolk sac
B. Placenta
C. Allantois
D. Chorion
E. Amnion
Q:
__________ pass(es) from the maternal blood to the fetal blood. Fetal __________ pass(es) the other way.
A. Carbon dioxide and oxygen; wastes
B. Carbon dioxide; nutrients
C. Wastes; nutrients and oxygen
D. Wastes and nutrients; oxygen and carbon dioxide
E. Oxygen and nutrients; wastes
Q:
The digital rays of a fetus give rise to __________.
A. arms and legs
B. ribs and intercostal muscles
C. fingers and toes
D. extensor digitorum muscles
E. radial muscles of the iris
Q:
The first 6 weeks of postpartum life constitute the __________ period.
A. transitional
B. premature
C. neonatal
D. senescence
E. infancy
Q:
The first body cavity is called the __________.
A. coelom
B. amniotic cavity
C. yolk sac
D. somite
E. chorion
Q:
By the end of 8 weeks, the individual is considered a fetus because __________.
A. all the primary germ layers are formed
B. the amniotic cavity has formed
C. all of the organ systems are present
D. the neural tube and yolk sac have formed
E. the mesoderm has formed
Q:
The __________ completely encloses the embryo and provides it with a stable environment.
A. yolk sac
B. amnion
C. chorion
D. chorionic villus
E. allantois
Q:
The __________ encloses all the rest of the membranes and the embryo.
A. chorion
B. allantois
C. yolk sac
D. amnion
E. zona pellucida
Q:
The __________ is an embryonic membrane that serves as the origin of the first blood and germ cells.
A. yolk sac
B. allantois
C. chorion
D. amnion
E. placenta
Q:
As it implants, the conceptus is nourished by means of __________.
A. trophoblastic nutrition
B. uterine milk
C. nutrient diffusion from the endometrium
D. placenta
E. umbilical nutrition
Q:
The _________ begins to develop about 11 days after conception, and is the sole source of fetal nutrition from the end of week 12 until birth.
A. yolk sac
B. placenta
C. amnion
D. trophoblast
E. blastocyst
Q:
In the blastocyst, the trophoblast will become __________, whereas the embryoblast will become __________.
A. part of the placenta; the yolk sac
B. part of the placenta; the embryo
C. the embryo; part of the placenta
D. the embryo; the yolk sac
E. the yolk sac; the embryo
Q:
Primary germ layers are formed during __________
A. implantation
B. cleavage
C. conception
D. organogenesis
E. gastrulation
Q:
Mesenchyme gives rise to __________.
A. nervous tissue
B. muscle, bone, and blood
C. digestive organs and endocrine glands
D. reproductive and urinary systems
E. the integumentary system and exocrine glands
Q:
During implantation, the trophoblast divides into a deep layer called the _________, which is composed of individual cells.
A. chorion
B. amnion
C. syncytiotrophoblast
D. cytotrophoblast
E. embryoblast
Q:
During implantation, the trophoblast divides into a superficial layer called the __________, which is composed of a multinucleate mass of cytoplasm.
A. chorion
B. embryoblast
C. amnion
D. syncytiotrophoblast
E. cytotrophoblast
Q:
By the time the conceptus arrives in the uterus, it consists of at least __________ or more cells.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
Q:
Out of the 300 million ejaculated sperm, only about __________ reach the vicinity of the egg.
A. 20 to 30
B. 200 to 300
C. 2000 to 3000
D. 20,000 to 30,000
E. half
Q:
Prior to ejaculation, __________ in the plasma membrane of the sperm prevents premature release of __________.
A. cholesterol; acrosomal enzymes
B. protein; acrosomal enzymes
C. carbohydrates; prostaglandins
D. hyaluronic acid; prostaglandins
E. acrosin and hyaluronidase; acrosomal enzymes
Q:
Which of the following is not a derivative of ectoderm?
A. Salivary glands
B. The nervous system
C. The epidermis
D. Cutaneous glands
E. The dermis
Q:
In the fast block to polyspermy, binding of sperm opens up __________ channels, which depolarizes the egg membrane and __________.
A. Na+; prevents the entrance of any more sperm
B. Na+; prevents the entrance of more Na+
C. Na+; prevents the entrance of Ca2+
D. Ca2+; prevents the entrance of any more sperm
E. Ca2+; prevents the entrance of more Na+
Q:
Regarding fertilization, which of the following events happens first?
A. Formation of a fertilization membrane
B. The fast block to polyspermy
C. The slow block to polyspermy
D. The cortical reaction
E. The acrosomal reaction
Q:
The optimal "window of opportunity" to conceive a child is __________.
A. a few days before ovulation to less than a day after
B. less than a day before ovulation to less than a day after
C. a few days before ovulation to a few days after
D. a few days before ovulation
E. a few days after ovulation
Q:
The spheroidal stage of early prenatal development with about 16 to 64 cells is called a(n) __________.
A. zygote
B. embryo
C. blastomere
D. morula
E. blastocyst
Q:
Twins produced when a single egg is fertilized are called __________ twins. Twins produced from two eggs ovulated at the same time are called __________ twins.
A. monozygotic; identical
B. dizygotic; nonidentical
C. monozygotic; dizygotic
D. dizygotic; monozygotic
E. nonidentical; identical
Q:
Trophoblastic nutrition refers to the nutrition of the conceptus before it implants.
Q:
Neonatal immunity depends on IgG and IgA acquired through the placenta and colostrum, respectively.
Q:
To some extent, the heat loss of the neonate is compensated for by the thermal insulation provided by brown fat.
Q:
Inadequate liver function is the most common reason that premature infants suffer from multiple dysfunctions.
Q:
Teratogens usually do not cause congenital anomalies.
Q:
Senescence begins at different ages and progresses at different rates in different organ systems.
Q:
Life expectancy has steadily increased in the last century, whereas life span has not.
Q:
A person in his or her 90's can increase muscle strength by two or three times with 40 minutes of isometric exercise per week.