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Q:
The overall purpose of the countercurrent exchange system is to __________.
A. supply salt and urea to the renal medulla
B. supply nutrients and oxygen to the renal cortex
C. supply nutrients and oxygen to the renal medulla
D. remove metabolic wastes from the renal cortex
E. remove metabolic wastes from the renal medulla
Q:
Which of the following induces renin secretion, constricts afferent arterioles, and reduces GFR and urine volume?
A. Aldosterone
B. Antidiuretic hormone
C. Parathyroid hormone
D. Norepinephrine
E. Angiotensin II
Q:
Normal urine from a healthy person should not contain __________.
A. creatinine
B. urobilin
C. glucose
D. ammonia
E. magnesium
Q:
The pigment responsible for the color of urine is called __________.
A. monochrome
B. urochrome
C. cyanochrome
D. multichrome
E. pyuria
Q:
To meet the definition of polyuria, the minimum daily output of urine is __________.
A. 0.5 L
B. 1.0 L
C. 1.5 L
D. 2.0 L
E. 3.0 L
Q:
Prior to chemical tests for glycosuria, clinicians checked for sweetness of the urine as a sign of __________.
A. diabetes insipidus
B. acute glomerulonephritis
C. diabetes mellitus
D. renal calculus
E. pyelitis
Q:
Loop diuretics reduce body water content by acting on the __________.
A. feedback loop between the kidney and posterior pituitary gland
B. countercurrent multiplier system
C. countercurrent exchanger system
D. aquaporins of the collecting duct
E. thirst mechanism and water intake
Q:
Aldosterone acts on the __________.
A. proximal convoluted tubule
B. medullary portion of the collecting duct
C. descending limb of the nephron loop
D. distal convoluted tubule
E. glomerulus
Q:
In the thick segment of the ascending limb of the nephron loop, K+ reenters the cell from the interstitial fluid via the _________. K+ is then secreted into the tubular fluid.
A. Na+-K+ pump
B. countercurrent multiplier
C. countercurrent exchange
D. vasa recta
E. juxtaglomerular apparatus
Q:
Which of the following is not a method by which atrial natriuretic peptide reduces blood volume and pressure?
A. Increasing glomerular filtration rate
B. Inhibiting renin and aldosterone secretion
C. Inhibiting the action of ADH on the kidney
D. Inhibiting NaCl reabsorption by the collecting duct
E. Preventing sodium loss in the urine
Q:
Hypocalcemia stimulates __________.
A. a decrease in aldosterone production
B. secretion of parathyroid hormone
C. secretion of renin
D. an increase in blood urea nitrogen
E. vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles
Q:
In the nephron, the fluid that immediately precedes urine is known as __________.
A. plasma
B. glomerular filtrate
C. tubular fluid
D. renal filtrate
E. medullary filtrate
Q:
Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by the __________.
A. renal corpuscle
B. proximal convoluted tubule
C. distal convoluted tubule
D. glomerular capillaries
E. collecting duct
Q:
In a healthy kidney, very little __________ is filtered by the glomerulus.
A. amino acids
B. electrolytes
C. glucose
D. vitamins
E. protein
Q:
Which of the following would reduce the glomerular filtration rate?
A. Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole
B. A drop in oncotic pressure
C. Vasodilation of the afferent arteriole
D. Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole
E. An increase in osmotic pressure in the glomerular capsule
Q:
The mechanism of stabilizing the GFR based on the tendency of smooth muscle to contract when stretched is known as __________.
A. renal autoregulation
B. the myogenic mechanism
C. tubuloglomerular feedback
D. sympathetic control
E. the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism
Q:
In response to a drop in overall blood pressure, __________ stimulates constriction of the glomerular inlet and even greater constriction of the outlet.
A. azotemia
B. sodium chloride
C. parathyroid hormone
D. aldosterone
E. angiotensin II
Q:
Assuming all other values are normal, calculate the net filtration pressure in a patient with a drop in capsular hydrostatic pressure to 8 mmHg.
A. 10 mm Hg out
B. 20 mm Hg out
C. 30 mm Hg out
D. 40 mm Hg out
E. 50 mm Hg out
Q:
Renin hydrolyzes angiotensinogen, which is released from the _________, to form angiotensin I.
A. lungs
B. kidneys
C. liver
D. heart
E. spleen
Q:
Because of the great deal of active transport that occurs here, the __________ of one's nephrons collectively account for about 6% of one's daily resting ATP and caloric consumption.
A. proximal convoluted tubules
B. distal convoluted tubules
C. loops of Henle
D. collecting ducts
E. glomeruli
Q:
Which of the following is not reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule?
A. Potassium
B. Sodium chloride
C. Hydrogen ions
D. Urea
E. Water
Q:
Total saturation of protein transporters for a given solute in the renal tubules would result in __________.
A. reabsorption of all the solute
B. a renal clearance of zero
C. a net filtration pressure of 1.0
D. appearance of that solute in the urine
E. absence of that solute from the urine
Q:
Which of the following is a direct result of antidiuretic hormone?
A. Decreased urine volume
B. Decreased urine molarity
C. Increased urine volume
D. Increased urine salinity
E. Increased urine acidity
Q:
Blood plasma is filtered in the __________.
A. renal tubule
B. renal corpuscle
C. renal capsule
D. renal column
E. renal calyx
Q:
Which of the following form the inner layer of the glomerular capsule and wrap around the capillaries of the glomerulus?
A. Macula densa cells
B. Mesangial cells
C. Nephrocytes
D. Podocytes
E. Monocytes
Q:
Which of the following is not composed of cuboidal epithelium?
A. The thin segment of the nephron loop
B. The thick segment of the nephron loop
C. The collecting duct
D. The proximal convoluted tubule
E. The distal convoluted tubule
Q:
Which of the following are primarily responsible for maintaining the salinity gradient of the renal medulla?
A. Cortical nephrons
B. Juxtamedullary nephrons
C. Collecting ducts
D. Proximal convoluted tubules
E. Distal convoluted tubules
Q:
The __________ is not an organ of the urinary system.
A. urethra
B. liver
C. ureter
D. urinary bladder
E. kidney
Q:
Which of the following is not true about the anatomy of the urinary system?
A. The kidneys are retroperitoneal.
B. The ureters connect the kidneys to the urinary bladder.
C. The urethra of males is longer than the urethra of females.
D. The kidneys are at equal heights within the pelvic cavity.
E. The right kidney is located more inferiorly than the left kidney.
Q:
The medial concavity of the kidney is called the __________, which admits the renal nerves, blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and ureter.
A. medulla
B. corpuscle
C. cortex
D. hilum
E. capsule
Q:
A patient enters a hospital after a motorcycle accident. He complains of mid-back pain. X-rays reveal both rib and pelvic fractures. His emergency room examination includes urinalysis. Which of the following findings from the urinalysis would most likely suggest trauma to the kidneys from the accident, but not to the urinary bladder?
A. Pyuria
B. Hematuria
C. Albuminuria
D. Uremia
E. Phenylketonuria
Q:
The __________ innervation of the kidneys reduces urine production, while the function of its __________ innervation is unknown.
A. sympathetic; parasympathetic
B. parasympathetic; sympathetic
C. central; peripheral
D. peripheral; central
E. enteric; somatic
Q:
The innermost connective tissue layer protecting the kidney and assisting in staving off infection is known as the __________.
A. perirenal fat capsule
B. renal fascia
C. hilum
D. fibrous capsule
E. renal medulla
Q:
A single lobe of a kidney is comprised of __________.
A. two calyces and a renal pelvis
B. one pyramid and the overlying cortex
C. one major calyx and all of its minor calyces
D. a renal medulla and two renal columns
E. one collecting duct and all nephrons that drain into it
Q:
A renal pyramid voids urine into the __________.
A. minor calyx
B. major calyx
C. renal medulla
D. renal papilla
E. ureter
Q:
Which of the following correctly traces blood flow from the renal artery into the renal cortex?
A. Arcuate a. interlobar a. afferent arteriole interlobular a.
B. Interlobar a. interlobular a. segmental a. arcuate a.
C. Segmental a. interlobar a. arcuate a. interlobular a.
D. Afferent arteriole interlobular a. arcuate a. interlobar a.
E. Segmental a. arcuate a. interlobar a. interlobular a.
Q:
The transition from an afferent arteriole to an efferent arteriole occurs in the __________.
A. glomerulus
B. medulla
C. cortical radiate veins
D. peritubular capillaries
E. vasa recta
Q:
The average person has approximately __________ nephrons per kidney.
A. 1.2 million
B. 2.4 million
C. 3.6 million
D. 4.8 million
E. 5.6 million
Q:
Which of the following correctly traces blood flow from the renal cortex to the renal vein?
A. Interlobular v. interlobar v. segmental v. renal v.
B. Arcuate v. interlobar v. segmental v. renal v.
C. Interlobar v. interlobular v. arcuate v. renal v.
D. Segmental v. arcuate v. interlobar v. renal v.
E. Interlobular v. arcuate v. interlobar v. renal v.
Q:
Which of the following is not a function of the kidneys?
A. They regulate osmolarity of the body fluids.
B. They fight osteoporosis by synthesizing vitamin D.
C. They help control blood pressure.
D. They release waste into the bloodstream.
E. They indirectly increase oxyhemoglobin.
Q:
Normally, the systemic arterial blood has a Po2 of ___________ mm Hg, a Pco2 of ___________ mm Hg, and a pH of ___________.
A. 40; 95; 7.4
B. 95; 40; 7.4
C. 7.4; 40; 95
D. 95; 7.4; 40
E. 40; 7.4; 95
Q:
Which of the following enzymes in an RBC breaks H2CO3 down to water and carbon dioxide?
A. Hemoglobinase
B. Carboxyhemoglobinase
C. Carbonic anhydrase
D. Bisphosphoglycerase
E. Carbaminoreductase
Q:
In one passage through a bed of systemic blood capillaries, the blood gives up about what percentage of its oxygen?
A. 5% to 10%
B. 10% to 15%
C. 20% to 25%
D. 30% to 40%
E. 70% to 85%
Q:
Which of the following is the term for a deficiency of oxygen or the inability to utilize oxygen in a tissue?
A. Apoxia
B. Hypoxia
C. Anoxia
D. Cyanosis
E. Eupnea
Q:
Congestive heart failure results in which of the following?
A. Hypoxemic hypoxia
B. Ischemic hypoxia
C. Anemic hypoxia
D. Histotoxic hypoxia
E. Idiopathic hypoxia
Q:
Which of the following is a lung disease marked by a reduced number of cilia, reduced motility of the remaining cilia, goblet cell hypertrophy and hypersecretion, and thick sputum?
A. Asthma
B. Oat-cell carcinoma
C. Atelectasis
D. Chronic bronchitis
E. Emphysema
Q:
Which of the following would lead to anemic hypoxia?
A. Sickle-cell disease
B. Emphysema
C. Squamous-cell carcinoma
D. Asthma
E. Atelectasis
Q:
Which of the following is a lung disease marked by abnormally few but large alveoli?
A. Cor pulmonale
B. Pulmonary hemosiderosis
C. Emphysema
D. Atelectasis
E. Collapsed lung
Q:
In which condition are the lungs infected with Mycobacterium and produce fibrous nodules around the bacteria, leading to progressive pulmonary fibrosis?
A. Pneumonia
B. Dyspnea
C. Pneumothorax
D. Tuberculosis
E. Rhinitis
Q:
In life threatening starvation, the kidneys synthesize glucose by __________.
A. secreting erythropoietin
B. secreting renin
C. deaminating amino acids
D. contributing to calcium homeostasis
E. producing uric acid
Q:
A byproduct of protein catabolism, __________ constitutes approximately one-half of all nitrogenous waste.
A. urea
B. creatinine
C. uric acid
D. azotemia
E. ammonia
Q:
Which organ system does not excrete waste?
A. The urinary system
B. The cardiovascular system
C. The integumentary system
D. The digestive system
E. The respiratory system
Q:
Which of the following has no effect on oxyhemoglobin dissociation?
A. Epinephrine
B. Fever
C. Thyroid hormone
D. Low pH
E. Erythrocyte count
Q:
In the air we breathe, which gas is found in the highest concentration?
A. Oxygen
B. Water vapor
C. Nitrogen
D. Carbon dioxide
E. Hydrogen
Q:
The heart indents into the __________ of the left lung.
A. oblique fissure
B. hilum
C. apex
D. cardiac impression
E. base
Q:
Each hemoglobin molecule can transport up to __________ oxygen molecules.
A. 6
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q:
The respiratory system contains a total of five __________.
A. segmental bronchi
B. choanae
C. laryngeal cartilages
D. lobes
E. tracheal cartilages
Q:
Crude sounds are formed into intelligible speech by all of the following except the _________.
A. pharynx
B. epiglottis
C. oral cavity
D. tongue
E. lips
Q:
Which of the following cartilages is largest?
A. Corniculate cartilage
B. Epiglottic cartilage
C. Thyroid cartilage
D. Cricoid cartilage
E. Arytenoid cartilage
Q:
Which law states that the total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of its individual gases?
A. Boyle's
B. Valsalva's
C. Dalton's
D. Charles's
E. Henry's
Q:
In a healthy person, which of the following will have the greatest influence on resistance to pulmonary airflow?
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. Respiratory rate
C. Bronchiole diameter
D. Quantity of surfactant
E. Contraction of the diaphragm
Q:
The amount of air in excess of tidal volume that can be inhaled with maximum effort is the __________.
A. vital capacity
B. inspiratory reserve volume
C. expiratory reserve volume
D. residual volume
E. inspiratory capacity
Q:
How is the vital capacity calculated?
A. Inspiratory reserve volume + expiratory volume
B. Inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume
C. Expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume
D. Expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
E. Respiratory volume + tidal volume
Q:
Deep, rapid breathing often seen in terminal diabetes mellitus is known as what?
A. Tachypnea
B. Dyspnea
C. Orthopnea
D. Hyperpnea
E. Kussmaul respiration
Q:
Carbon dioxide is transported by all the following means except _________.
A. carbaminohemoglobin
B. carbonic acid
C. carbonate
D. bicarbonate ions
E. dissolved gas
Q:
Tom is in respiratory arrest due to an electrical shock. Why does a good samaritan have up to 4 or 5 minutes to begin CPR and save Tom's life?
A. There is reserve oxygen in Tom's lungs.
B. There is a venous reserve of oxygen in Tom's blood.
C. The ambient Po2 can support life that long.
D. The Haldane effect lasts up to 5 minutes.
E. Tom's hypoxic drive will keep him alive for up to 5 minutes.
Q:
During exercise, which of the following directly increases respiratory rate?
A. Increased H+ level in the blood
B. The Bohr effect
C. Reduced blood pH
D. Reduced oxyhemoglobin
E. Anticipation of the needs of exercising muscle
Q:
Which of the following would slow down gas exchange between the blood and alveolar air?
A. An increase in membrane thickness
B. An increase in alveolar surface area
C. An increase in respiratory rate
D. A decrease in membrane thickness
E. A decrease in nitrogen solubility
Q:
The addition of CO2 to the blood generates __________ ions in the RBCs, which in turn stimulates RBCs to unload more oxygen.
A. sodium
B. potassium
C. nitrogen
D. hydrogen
E. chloride
Q:
What is the basic distinction between an alveolar duct and an alveolar atrium?
A. Their shape
B. Their size
C. Their function
D. Their epithelial type
E. The presence or absence of cilia
Q:
Which bronchus is about 5cm long and slightly narrower and more horizontal than the one on the opposite side?
A. Left segmental bronchus
B. Right segmental bronchus
C. Right lobar bronchus
D. Left main bronchus
E. Right main bronchus
Q:
Conditions around metabolically active tissues do what to the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?
A. Shift it right
B. Shift it left
C. Decrease the slope
D. Increase the slope
Q:
Hypocapnia will lead to which of the following conditions?
A. Hypoventilation due to acidosis
B. Hypoventilation due to alkalosis
C. Hyperventilation due to acidosis
D. Hyperventilation due to alkalosis
Q:
What is the least common but most dangerous form of lung cancer?
A. Mesothelioma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Small-cell carcinoma
Q:
Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?
A. Control of pH
B. Promotes the flow of lymph and venous blood
C. Helps regulate blood pressure
D. Assists in the synthesis of vasodilators
E. Aids in defecation
Q:
The upper respiratory tract extends from the nose through the _________.
A. trachea
B. pharynx
C. larynx
D. alveoli
E. lungs
Q:
The nose is divided into right and left halves called the __________.
A. nasal cavities
B. nasal fossae
C. nasal septa
D. nasal vestibules
E. nasal apertures
Q:
Which two ligaments extend from the thyroid cartilage to the arytenoid cartilages?
A. Vestibular and vocal
B. Laryngeal and corniculate
C. Corniculate and cricoid
D. Cricoid and arytenoid
E. Thyrohyoid and cricoids
Q:
What are the most numerous cells in the lungs?
A. Mucosal cells
B. Type I alveolar cells
C. Type II alveolar cells
D. Dust cells
E. Vibrissal cells
Q:
Each alveolus is surrounded by a web of blood capillaries supplied by the _________.
A. aorta
B. pulmonary artery
C. pulmonary vein
D. inferior vena cava
E. superior vena cava