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Q:
Which bronchus is about 5cm long and slightly narrower and more horizontal than the one on the opposite side?
A. Left segmental bronchus
B. Right segmental bronchus
C. Right lobar bronchus
D. Left main bronchus
E. Right main bronchus
Q:
Erythrocytes do not carry out aerobic respiration; thus, they do not consume any of the oxygen they are transporting.
Q:
Hemoglobin releases the same amount of oxygen to all the tissues regardless of variations in their metabolic rate.
Q:
Output from higher brain centers can bypass both the DRG and VRG and go directly to __________, which controls the accessory muscles of respiration.
A. the diaphragm
B. spinal integration centers
C. the cerebral cortex
D. the vagus nerve
Q:
Which of the following issues output to the VRG to adjust the respiratory rhythm?
A. DRG
B. PRG
C. NRG
D. SRG
Q:
Which center bears the primary responsibility for generating the respiratory rhythm, but is influenced by several other centers?
A. PRG
B. DRG
C. VRG
D. SRG
Q:
The pH of the cerebrospinal fluid is monitored by which of these brainstem centers?
A. PRG
B. Hypothalamic osmoreceptors
C. Medullary baroreceptors
D. Central chemoreceptors
Q:
Emotional states are integrated by the __________, which generates an output that creates such respiratory variations as laughing and crying.
A. VRG
B. PRG
C. DRG
D. SRG
Q:
If one inspires through their nose, which of the following answers has the correct order of structures the air would move through?
A. Nares Vestibule Nasal Cavity Nasopharynx Oropharynx Laryngopharynx Larynx Trachea Primary Bronchus Secondary Bronchus Tertiary Bronchus Bronchiole Respiratory Bronchiole Terminal Bronchiole Alveolar Duct Alveolar Sac Alveolus
B. Nares Nasal Cavity Vestibule Nasopharynx Oropharynx Laryngopharynx Larynx Trachea Primary Bronchus Secondary Bronchus Tertiary Bronchus Bronchiole Terminal Bronchiole Respiratory Bronchiole Alveolar Duct Alveolar Sac Alveolus
C. Nares Vestibule Nasal Cavity Nasopharynx Oropharynx Laryngopharynx Larynx Trachea Bronchiole Respiratory Bronchiole Terminal Bronchiole Primary Bronchus Secondary Bronchus Tertiary Bronchus Alveolar Duct Alveolar Sac Alveolus
D. Nares Nasal Cavity Vestibule Nasopharynx Oropharynx Laryngopharynx Larynx Trachea Primary Bronchus Secondary Bronchus Tertiary Bronchus Bronchiole Respiratory Bronchiole Terminal Bronchiole Alveolar Duct Alveolar Sac Alveolus
Q:
Upon inspiration, what is the name of the air in the conducting division that is not available for gas exchange?
A. Alveolar dead space
B. Tracheal dead space
C. Anatomical dead space
D. Conducting dead space
Q:
The anatomical dead space is greatest in which of the following situations?
A. After eating a large meal
B. After swerving to narrowly avoid an accident while driving
C. After waking up from a long nap
D. After watching TV for an hour
Q:
Air consists of about 78.6% nitrogen, 20.9% oxygen, 0.04% carbon dioxide, and 0.5% water. At sea level, (760 mmHg) what is the PCO2?
A. 597 mm Hg
B. 159 mm Hg
C. 0.3 mm Hg
D. 3.7 mm Hg
Q:
Which law states that the total atmospheric pressure is a sum of the contributions of the individual gases?
A. Henry's
B. Charles's
C. Boyle's
D. Dalton's
Q:
How is alveolar air different than inspired air?
A. Alveolar air has a higher PN2 than inspired air.
B. Alveolar air has a lower PCO2 than inspired air.
C. Alveolar air has a higher PO2 than inspired air.
D. Alveolar air has a higher PH2O than inhaled air.
Q:
Metabolically active tissues have which of the following sets of conditions that shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right?
A. PO2, PCO2, temperature, BPG
B. PO2, PCO2, temperature, BPG
C. PO2, PCO2, temperature, BPG
D. PO2, PCO2, temperature, BPG
Q:
Gas transport is the process of carrying gases from the alveoli to the systemic tissues and vice versa.
Q:
According to the Bohr effect, a low level of oxyhemoglobin enables the blood to transport more CO2.
Q:
Scuba divers breathe a nitrogen-oxygen mixture rather than pure compressed oxygen in order to avoid what condition?
A. The bends
B. Oxygen toxicity
C. Rapture of the deep
D. Caisson disease
E. Hypoxemic hypoxia
Q:
Nitrogen bubbles can form in the blood and other tissues when a scuba diver ascends too rapidly, producing a syndrome called _________.
A. decompression sickness
B. hyperbaric disease
C. cerebral embolism
D. pulmonary barotrauma
E. pulmonary edema
Q:
The vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves carry afferent signals from peripheral chemoreceptors to a chemosensitive area in the ___________.
A. pontine respiratory group
B. dorsal respiratory group
C. ventral respiratory group
D. medulla oblongata
E. pons
Q:
Mucus plays an important role in cleansing inhaled air. It is produced by __________ of the respiratory tract.
A. squamous alveolar cells
B. great alveolar cells
C. the pleurae
D. ciliated cells
E. goblet cells
Q:
The blood transports more CO2 in the form of ___________ than in any other form.
A. carbaminohemoglobin
B. carboxyhemoglobin
C. bicarbonate ions
D. dissolved CO2 gas
E. bisphosphocarbonate
Q:
Among its other purposes, how is the Valsalva maneuver used?
A. To aid in defecation and urination
B. As part of the procedure for giving CPR to a person in respiratory arrest
C. To ventilate the lungs during eupnea
D. To expel more than the usual tidal volume from the lungs
E. To clear carbon monoxide from the body and replace it with oxygen
Q:
Blood banks dispose of blood that has low levels of bisphosphoglycerate. What would be the probable reason for doing so?
A. A low BPG level causes acidosis of blood.
B. Erythrocytes low in BPG do not unload CO2 very well.
C. Erythrocytes low in BPG do not unload O2 very well.
D. Erythrocytes low in BPG do not load O2 very well.
E. A decline in BPG level is accompanied by a decline in hemoglobin level.
Q:
Your breathing rate is 12 breaths/minute; your tidal volume is 500 mL; your vital capacity is 4700 mL; and your dead air space is 150 mL. Your alveolar ventilation rate is __________ mL/min.
A. 2,400
B. 3,600
C. 4,200
D. 5,600
E. 6,400
Q:
Your breathing rate is 14 breaths/minute; spirometric measurements reveal your tidal volume is 500 mL; your inspiratory reserve volume is 3000 mL; and your expiratory reserve volume is 1,200 mL. Your vital capacity is __________ mL.
A. 2,400
B. 3,000
C. 3,800
D. 4,700
E. 5,800
Q:
The maximum amount of air the lungs can contain is known as inspiratory capacity.
Q:
Respiratory arrest is an irreversible condition.
Q:
The pleurae and pleural fluid help prevent the spread of pulmonary infection to the pericardium.
Q:
Breathing is controlled solely by the medulla oblongata and pons.
Q:
The rate of oxygen diffusion is affected by the pressure gradient of carbon dioxide.
Q:
Polio can sometimes damage the brainstem respiratory centers and result in which condition?
A. A Bohr effect
B. Adult respiratory distress syndrome
C. A pneumothorax
D. Atelectasis
E. Ondine's curse
Q:
Which of these is most likely to result from contact between contaminated fingers and the nasal mucosa?
A. Apnea
B. Adult respiratory distress syndrome
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Acute rhinitis
E. Asthma
Q:
Which is the correct sequence of events in the humoral immune response?
A. Antigen recognition antigen presentation differentiation clonal selection attack
B. Antigen recognition antigen presentation clonal selection differentiation attack
C. Antigen presentation antigen recognition clonal selection differentiation attack
D. Antigen presentation antigen recognition clonal selection attack differentiation
E. Antigen recognition differentiation antigen presentation clonal selection attack
Q:
Each immunoglobulin (Ig) has __________ antigen-bonding site(s).
A. two
B. four
C. six
D. one
E. three
Q:
__________ constitutes about 80% of circulating antibodies in plasma.
A. IgD
B. IgE
C. IgA
D. IgM
E. IgG
Q:
Which class of immunoglobulin provides passive immunity to the newborn?
A. IgD
B. IgE
C. IgM
D. IgA
E. IgG
Q:
Before B cells secrete antibodies, they differentiate into _________.
A. stem cells
B. antigen-presenting cells
C. plasma cells
D. T cells
E. macrophages
Q:
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) targets mainly __________.
A. helper T cells
B. B cells
C. plasma cells
D. cytotoxic T cells
E. natural killer cells
Q:
Most common allergies are the result of __________.
A. autoimmune diseases
B. type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity
C. type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity
D. type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic) hypersensitivity
E. type I (acute) hypersensitivity
Q:
Beta cell destruction that causes type 1 diabetes mellitus is a(n) __________.
A. anaphylactic hypersensitivity
B. type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity
C. type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity
D. type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic) hypersensitivity
E. type I (acute) hypersensitivity
Q:
A person who is HIV-positive and has a helper T (TH) cell count lower than __________ has AIDS.
A. 20,000 cells/mL
B. 5,000 cells/mL
C. 1,000 cells/mL
D. 200 cells/mL
E. 50 cells/mL
Q:
Autoimmune diseases are disorders in which the immune system fails to distinguish __________ from foreign ones.
A. self-immunoglobulins
B. self-antibodies
C. self-antigens
D. self-interleukins
E. self-complement proteins
Q:
Bronchoconstriction, dyspnea, and widespread vasodilation are all characteristics of __________.
A. local anaphylaxis
B. anaphylactic shock
C. autoimmune disease
D. an HIV infection
E. AIDS
Q:
Which malignancy originates in the lamina propria of the bronchi?
A. Squamous-cell carcinoma
B. Oat-cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Pulmonary edema
E. Cor pulmonale
Q:
__________ participate in both nonspecific resistance and immune response.
A. Memory T (TM) cells
B. Regulatory T (TR) cells
C. Natural killer (NK) cells
D. Helper T (TH) cells
E. Cytotoxic T (TC) cells
Q:
Cytotoxic T (TC) cells are like natural killer (NK) cells because they both __________.
A. secrete interferons
B. secrete granzymes and perforin
C. participate in the immune response
D. participate in nonspecific resistance
E. secrete tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
Q:
Memory T cells can be up to __________ old.
A. weeks
B. days
C. decades
D. years
E. months
Q:
Which of the following is something antibodies do not do?
A. Link antigen molecules together
B. Neutralize antigens by binding to regions of an antigen that can be pathogenic
C. Bind to enemy cells, thus changing their shape so their complement-binding sites are exposed
D. Differentiate into memory antibodies, which upon reexposure to the same pathogen would mount a quicker attack
E. Bind antigen molecules of two or more enemy cells and stick them together
Q:
Cellular (cell-mediated) immunity is effective against __________.
A. allergens
B. venoms
C. cancer cells
D. extracellular viruses
E. toxins
Q:
A(n) __________ is the region of the molecule that is recognized by antibodies.
A. epitope
B. antigen
C. hapten
D. major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
E. antibody monomer
Q:
T cells achieve immunocompetence in the __________.
A. bone marrow
B. bloodstream
C. spleen
D. thymus
E. liver
Q:
T cells undergo positive selection in the thymus, which means they __________.
A. react against self antigens
B. develop surface antigen receptors
C. remain alive but unresponsive
D. die and macrophages phagocytize them
E. multiply and form clones of identical T cells
Q:
The serum used for emergency treatment of snakebites stimulates __________ immunity.
A. artificial passive
B. artificial active
C. natural passive
D. natural active
E. artificial specific
Q:
The majority of T cells of the naive lymphocyte pool wait for the encounter with foreign antigens in the __________.
A. plasma
B. thymus
C. lymphatic tissues
D. lymph
E. blood plasma
Q:
Which of the following cannot act as antigen-presenting cells?
A. Reticular cells
B. Dendritic cells
C. Macrophages
D. B cells
E. T cells
Q:
Helper T (TH) cells recognize antigens when they are bound to a(n) __________.
A. hapten
B. immunoglobulin
C. natural killer cell
D. major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein
E. basophil
Q:
Antigen-presenting cells usually display processed antigens to T cells in the _____________.
A. blood plasma
B. lymph nodes
C. thymus
D. red bone marrow
E. liver
Q:
Helper T (TH) cells do not __________.
A. secrete cytokines that stimulate clonal selection of B cells
B. secrete cytokines that stimulate clonal selection of cytotoxic T cells
C. secrete cytokines that stimulate macrophage activity
D. secrete inflammatory chemicals
E. secrete fever-producing chemicals
Q:
Which of these cellular agents does not participate in inflammation?
A. Cytotoxic T cells
B. Macrophage
C. Eosinophils
D. Neutrophils
E. Endothelial cells
Q:
One group of proteolytic enzymes secreted by natural killer (NK) cells is __________.
A. selectins
B. cytokines
C. granzymes
D. perforins
E. interferons
Q:
Complement C3b protein coats bacteria and stimulates phagocytosis by __________ during a process called __________.
A. lymphocytes and monocytes; opsonization
B. neutrophils and macrophages; cytolysis
C. mast cells and basophils; opsonization
D. mast cells and basophils; cytolysis
E. neutrophils and macrophages; opsonization
Q:
__________ are antimicrobial proteins.
A. Bradykinins
B. Interferons
C. Cytokines
D. Kinins
E. Prostaglandins
Q:
One characteristic of the immune response is specificity. This means that __________.
A. immunity starts in defined organs in the body
B. immunity starts in specialized tissues in the body
C. immunity is carried on by a specific group of cells of the immune system
D. immunity is directed against a particular pathogen
E. immunity is carried on by a specific group of tissues of the immune system
Q:
Vaccination stimulates __________ immunity.
A. natural active
B. artificial active
C. natural passive
D. artificial passive
E. nonspecific
Q:
__________ are found especially in the mucous membrane, standing guard against parasites and allergens.
A. Monocytes
B. Lymphocytes
C. Basophils
D. Neutrophils
E. Eosinophils
Q:
___________ employ a "respiratory burst" to produce bactericidal chemicals such as hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) and hypochlorite (HClO).
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Cytotoxic T cells
D. Natural killer cells
E. Suppressor T cells
Q:
Complement fixation cannot lead to __________.
A. enhanced inflammation
B. opsonization
C. endogenous pyrexia
D. bacterial phagocytosis
E. cytolysis
Q:
__________ are secreted by cells infected with viruses, alerting neighboring cells and protecting them from becoming infected.
A. Complement system globulins
B. Interferons
C. Granzymes
D. Pyrogens
E. Perforins
Q:
When an enemy cell is present, a(n) __________ secrete perforins, which bore a hole in the enemy cell membrane.
A. interferon
B. interleukin
C. natural killer cell
D. antibody
E. opsonization
Q:
A pyrogen is a substance that causes __________.
A. inflammation
B. opsonization
C. complement fixation
D. cytolysis
E. fever
Q:
The first of a series of neutrophil behaviors in inflammation is __________.
A. chemotaxis
B. margination
C. diapedesis
D. phagocytosis
E. opsonization
Q:
__________ is not a cardinal sign characteristic of inflammation.
A. Impaired use
B. Redness
C. Pain
D. Heat
E. Swelling
Q:
Basophils of the blood help to get defensive leukocytes to the site quickly by releasing an anticoagulant called __________ and a vasodilator called __________.
A. bradykinin; histamine
B. selectin; prostaglandin
C. histamine; heparin
D. heparin; histamine
E. prostaglandins; selectin
Q:
__________ are the largest of the lymphatic vessels, and they empty into the __________.
A. Lymphatic trunks; collecting ducts
B. Lymphatic trunks; subclavian arteries
C. Lymphatic trunks; subclavian veins
D. Collecting ducts; subclavian veins
E. Collecting ducts; subclavian arteries
Q:
Immune surveillance is a process in which __________ nonspecifically detect and destroy foreign cells and diseased host cells.
A. T lymphocytes (T cells)
B. reticular cells
C. dendritic cells
D. macrophages
E. natural killer (NK) cells
Q:
The __________ show(s) a remarkable degree of degeneration (involution) with age.
A. lymph nodes
B. thymus
C. spleen
D. pharyngeal tonsils
E. appendix
Q:
The only lymphatic organ(s) with afferent lymphatic vessels is(are) the __________.
A. lymph nodes
B. thymus
C. spleen
D. red bone marrow
E. tonsils
Q:
Removal of the __________ would be more harmful to a one-year-old child than an adult.
A. spleen
B. lymph node
C. thymus
D. appendix
E. palatine tonsil
Q:
Which of the following does(do) not belong to the second line of defense?
A. The macrophage system
B. Natural killer cells
C. Inflammation
D. The gastric juices
E. Interferon and the complement system