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Q:
If the SA node is damaged, nodal rhythm is sufficient to sustain life.
Q:
Repolarization of a ventricular cardiocyte takes longer than repolarization of a typical neuron.
Q:
Atrial hypertrophy would probably cause an enlarged P wave on an electrocardiogram.
Q:
When a clot is no longer needed, fibrin is dissolved by __________.
A. prothrombin
B. thromboplastin
C. kallikrein
D. plasmin
E. platelet-derived growth factor
Q:
Which of these does not prevent the spontaneous formation of a clot?
A. The presence of tissue thromboplastin
B. The smooth prostacyclin-coated endothelium of blood vessels
C. The dilution of thrombin when blood flows at a normal rate
D. The presence of antithrombin in plasma
E. The presence of heparin in plasma
Q:
Platelets release __________, a chemical vasoconstrictor that contributes to the vascular spasm.
A. heparin
B. thrombin
C. thromboplastin
D. prostacyclin
E. serotonin
Q:
The structural framework of a blood clot is formed by __________.
A. soluble fibrinogen
B. soluble fibrin
C. a fibrin polymer
D. a fibrinogen polymer
E. a thrombin polymer
Q:
The pulmonary circuit is supplied by both the right and the left sides of the heart.
Q:
What are the most abundant agranulocytes?
A. Macrophages
B. Eosinophils
C. Monocytes
D. Lymphocytes
E. Neutrophils
Q:
The number of __________ typically increases in response to bacterial infections.
A. basophils
B. monocytes
C. erythrocytes
D. eosinophils
E. neutrophils
Q:
Which cells aid in the body's defense processes by secreting histamine and heparin?
A. Eosinophils
B. Basophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Platelets
E. Monocytes
Q:
Leukopoiesis begins with the differentiation of __________.
A. pluripotent stem cells
B. precursor cells
C. colony-forming units
D. myeloblasts
E. lymphoblasts
Q:
Some lymphocytes can survive as long as __________.
A. days
B. weeks
C. months
D. years
E. decades
Q:
A patient is diagnosed with leukocytosis if they have more than __________ WBCs/mL.
A. 100,000
B. 50,000
C. 10,000
D. 5,000
E. 1,000
Q:
Which of the following has not been implicated in causing leukemia?
A. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
B. Lead poisoning
C. Radiation therapy
D. Dehydration
E. Immunosuppressant drugs
Q:
What is the largest leukocyte that contains small cytoplasmic granules and typically a kidney- or horseshoe-shaped nucleus?
A. Monocyte
B. Lymphocyte
C. Neutrophil
D. Eosinophil
E. Basophil
Q:
Which of the following are not secreted by platelets?
A. Procoagulants
B. Thrombopoietin
C. Growth factors
D. Vasoconstrictors
E. Chemicals that attract neutrophils
Q:
The cessation of bleeding is specifically called __________.
A. a vascular spasm
B. homeostasis
C. hemostasis
D. platelet plug formation
E. coagulation
Q:
What is the function of thromboplastin in hemostasis?
A. It initiates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
B. It initiates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation.
C. It converts prothrombin into thrombin.
D. It acts as a potent vasoconstrictor to reduce blood loss.
E. It dissolves the clot after the tissue has healed.
Q:
The main reason why an individual with type AB, Rh-negative blood cannot donate blood to an individual with type A, Rh-positive blood is because __________.
A. anti-A antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBCs of the recipient
B. anti-A antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor
C. anti-B antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBCs of the recipient
D. anti-D antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBC of the recipient
E. anti-B antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor
Q:
A woman's first pregnancy is normal but her second pregnancy results in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). The second child needed a transfusion to completely replace the agglutinating blood. The mother is most likely type __________ and both children are most likely __________.
A. A, Rh-negative; B, Rh-positive
B. A, Rh-positive; B, Rh-negative
C. O, Rh-negative; AB, Rh-negative
D. AB, Rh-positive; O, Rh-negative
E. AB, Rh-positive; O, Rh-positive
Q:
What are the least abundant of the formed elements?
A. Platelets
B. Basophils
C. Erythrocytes
D. Neutrophils
E. Eosinophils
Q:
Which of the following would not lead to polycythemia?
A. Cancer of the erythropoietic line of the red bone marrow
B. Iron deficiency
C. Dehydration
D. Emphysema
E. Excessive aerobic exercise
Q:
Which of the following is most likely to cause anemia?
A. High altitude
B. Air pollution other than by carbon monoxide
C. Renal disease
D. Smoking
E. Any factor that creates a state of hypoxemia
Q:
Which of the following is not true of a patient with anemia?
A. Their blood viscosity is increased.
B. They are lethargic.
C. Their blood osmolarity is reduced.
D. Their resistance to blood flow is reduced.
E. More fluid transfers from their bloodstream into their intercellular spaces.
Q:
What is the final product of the breakdown of the organic nonprotein moiety of hemoglobin?
A. Biliverdin
B. Bilirubin
C. Globin
D. Heme
E. Iron
Q:
Correction of hypoxemia is regulated by __________.
A. a self-amplifying mechanism
B. an enzymatic amplification
C. a positive feedback loop
D. a negative feedback loop
E. a cascade effect
Q:
A deficiency of __________ can cause pernicious anemia.
A. vitamin C
B. iron
C. vitamin B12
D. EPO secretion
E. folic acid
Q:
Which of the following is not true regarding sickle-cell disease?
A. It is caused by a recessive allele that modifies the structure of hemoglobin.
B. It is due to a hereditary hemoglobin defect.
C. It is advantageous in that it can protect carriers against malaria.
D. It is a cause of malaria.
E. It is a cause of anemia.
Q:
The ABO blood group is determined by __________ in the plasma membrane of RBCs.
A. glycolipids
B. glycoproteins
C. antibodies
D. antigen-antibody complexes
E. agglutinins
Q:
A person with type A blood can safely donate RBCs to someone of type __________ and can receive RBCs from someone of type __________.
A. O; AB
B. AB; O
C. A; B
D. B; A
E. O; O
Q:
A person with type AB blood has __________ RBC antigen(s).
A. no
B. anti-A and anti-B
C. anti-A
D. anti-B
E. A and B
Q:
Why are pregnant Rh- women given an injection of Rh immune globulin?
A. Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-D antibodies.
B. Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
C. Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-A antibodies.
D. Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-O antibodies.
E. Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-B antibodies.
Q:
The universal donor of RBCs, but not necessarily plasma, is blood type __________.
A. AB, Rh-negative
B. AB, Rh-positive
C. O, Rh-negative
D. O, Rh-positive
E. ABO, Rh-negative
Q:
An individual has type B, Rh-positive blood. The individual has __________ antigen(s) and can produce anti-__________ antibodies.
A. A and D; B
B. B and D; A
C. B; A and D
D. A; B and D
E. D; A and B
Q:
Which of the following is not normally found in plasma?
A. Glycogen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Glucose
D. Urea
E. Albumin
Q:
Which of the following proteins is not normally found in plasma?
A. Albumin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Transferrin
D. Prothrombin
E. Fibrinogen
Q:
What is the most abundant protein in plasma?
A. Insulin
B. Creatine
C. Bilirubin
D. Albumin
E. Creatinine
Q:
Which of the following would not decrease the blood colloid osmotic pressure (COP)?
A. Severe liver failure
B. A diet predominantly based on red meat
C. Starvation
D. An extremely low-protein diet
E. Hypoproteinemia
Q:
Serum is essentially identical to plasma except for the absence of __________.
A. fibrinogen
B. nitrogenous wastes
C. platelets
D. glucose
E. albumin
Q:
Tissues can become edematous (swollen) when which of the following occurs?
A. Colloid osmotic pressure (COP) is high.
B. There is hyperproteinemia.
C. The concentration of sodium and proteins in blood is high.
D. The hematocrit is high.
E. There is a dietary protein deficiency.
Q:
Where does myeloid hemopoiesis take place in adults?
A. Thymus
B. Spleen
C. Red bone marrow
D. Yellow bone marrow
E. Liver
Q:
The viscosity of blood is due more to the presence of __________ than to any other factor.
A. fibrin
B. albumin
C. sodium
D. erythrocytes
E. nitrogenous wastes
Q:
Erythrocytes transport oxygen and __________.
A. defend the body against pathogens
B. initiate blood clotting
C. regulate erythropoiesis
D. transport nutrients
E. transport some carbon dioxide
Q:
Most oxygen is transported in the blood bound to __________.
A. the plasma membrane of erythrocytes
B. alpha chains in hemoglobin
C. beta chains in hemoglobin
D. delta chains in hemoglobin
E. heme groups in hemoglobin
Q:
What would happen if all of the hemoglobin contained within the RBCs became free in the plasma?
A. It would considerably increase blood oxygen carrying capacity.
B. It would facilitate delivery of oxygen into tissues supplied by small capillaries.
C. It would facilitate oxygen diffusion into cells distant from blood capillaries.
D. It would significantly increase blood osmolarity.
E. It would drastically increase osmotic colloid pressure.
Q:
An increased erythropoietin (EPO) output by the kidneys would lead to all of the following except __________.
A. increased hypoxemia
B. increased blood osmolarity
C. increased RBC production
D. increased blood viscosity
E. increased hematocrit
Q:
Where do most RBCs die?
A. Stomach and small intestine
B. Red bone marrow
C. Spleen and liver
D. Lymph nodes and thymus
E. Stomach and liver
Q:
Which of the following is not a function of blood?
A. Transports a variety of nutrients
B. Helps to stabilize the pH of extracellular fluids
C. Participates in the initiation of blood clotting
D. Produces plasma hormones
E. Helps to regulate body temperature
Q:
Blood clots in the limbs put a patient most at risk for __________.
A. hemophilia
B. pulmonary embolism
C. thrombocytopenia
D. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
E. septicemia
Q:
Which of the following is not contained in the buffy coat?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Granulocytes
C. Erythrocytes
D. Agranulocytes
E. Platelets
Q:
Hemostasis is the production of formed elements of blood.
Q:
A normal hematocrit is __________ of the total blood volume.
A. less than 1%
B. 47% to 63%
C. 25% to 37%
D. 42% to 45%
E. 37% to 52%
Q:
Blood viscosity stems mainly from electrolytes and monomers dissolved in plasma.
Q:
Lymphoid hemopoiesis occurs mainly in the bone marrow.
Q:
Oxygen and carbon dioxide bind to different parts of hemoglobin.
Q:
The liver stores excess iron in ferritin.
Q:
The most important components in the cytoplasm of RBCs are hemoglobin and carbonic anhydrase.
Q:
A person develops anti-A antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen A, and anti-B antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen B.
Q:
Rh incompatibility between a sensitized Rh+ woman and an Rh- fetus can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Q:
Circulating WBCs spend most of their lives in the bloodstream.
Q:
Lymphocytes secrete antibodies, coordinate action of other immune cells, and serve in immune memory.
Q:
Monocytes differentiate into large phagocytic cells.
Q:
Coagulation starts with a vascular spasm and ends with the formation of a platelet plug.
Q:
Clotting deficiency can result from thrombocytopenia or hemophilia.
Q:
After a wound is sealed, tissue repair is followed by fibrinolysis.
Q:
Which of the following might be injected into a patient who is prone to forming blood clots and therefore at risk of a heart attack or stroke?
A. Thromboplastin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Fibrin
D. Heparin
E. Factor X
Q:
Which of the following is not a role of prostaglandins?
A. To induce labor contractions
B. To stop fever and pain
C. To constrict or dilate arterioles
D. To act as vasodilators or vasoconstrictors
E. To inhibit gastric secretion
Q:
Aspirin and ibuprofen block the __________.
A. release of arachidonic acid from the plasma membrane
B. action of phospholipase A1
C. action of phospholipase A2
D. action of lipoxygenase
E. action of cyclooxygenase
Q:
Diabetes insipidus is caused by __________.
A. epinephrine hypersecretion
B. cortisol hypersecretion
C. aldosterone hypersecretion
D. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) hyposecretion
E. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) hypersecretion
Q:
Which of the following effects on a gland can be caused by a tumor?
A. Hypersecretion only
B. Hyposecretion only
C. Hyposecretion and hypersecretion
Q:
Which of the following is not a cause of Cushing syndrome?
A. ACTH hypersecretion by the pituitary
B. ACTH-secreting tumors
C. Hyperactivity of the adrenal cortex
D. Hyperactivity of the adrenal medulla
E. Excess cortisol secretion
Q:
Growth hormone (GH) hypersecretion causes gigantism when it begins in childhood, but it is more likely to cause __________ when it begins in adulthood.
A. myxedema
B. Graves disease
C. Cushing syndrome
D. goiter
E. acromegaly
Q:
Which of the following is not a characteristic of diabetes mellitus?4-25-2013
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Polyuria
C. Polyphagia
D. Polydipsia
E. Glucosuria
Q:
Which of the following statements about diabetes mellitus is false?
A. The body produces autoantibodies that destroy the pancreatic beta cells in type I DM.
B. Target cells are unresponsive to insulin in type II DM.
C. Both type I and type II DM are characterized by lack of, or low levels of, insulin.
D. Diabetic neuropathy is a common long term effect of DM.
E. Type II DM is more common than type I DM.
Q:
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events leading to the polyuria and dehydration associated with diabetes mellitus?
A. Hyperglycemia glucose in urine raises osmolarity of tubular fluid glucose transport maximum exceeded glucose enters renal tubules osmotic diuresis
B. Hyperglycemia glucose enters renal tubules glucose transport maximum exceeded glucose in urine raises osmolarity of tubular fluid osmotic diuresis
C. Hyperglycemia glucose enters renal tubules glucose in urine raises osmolarity of tubular fluid osmotic dieresis glucose transport maximum exceeded
D. Hyperglycemia glucose transport maximum exceeded glucose enters renal tubules glucose in urine raises osmolarity of tubular fluid osmotic diuresis
E. Osmotic diuresis glucose enters renal tubules glucose transport maximum exceeded glucose in urine raises osmolarity of tubular fluid hyperglycemia
Q:
Most strokes and heart attacks are caused by the abnormal clotting of blood in an unbroken vessel. Moreover, a piece of the __________ (clot) may break loose and begin to travel in the bloodstream as a(n) __________.
A. thrombus; embolus
B. embolism; thrombus
C. plaque; thrombus
D. thrombosis; plaque
E. plaque; embolus
Q:
During coagulation, which of the following is found in the extrinsic mechanism only?
A. Calcium
B. Prothrombin activator
C. Prothrombin
D. Thromboplastin
E. Thrombin
Q:
Where are most clotting factors synthesized in the body?
A. Spleen
B. Red bone marrow
C. Perivascular tissue
D. Kidneys
E. Liver
Q:
A patient is suffering from ketoacidosis caused by an unregulated high protein diet. Which function of the blood has been compromised?
A. Stabilizing fluid distribution in the body
B. Stabilizing the body's pH
C. Protecting against microorganisms
D. Transporting nutrients
E. Transporting hormones