Q&A Hero

Q: The adrenal medulla secretes mostly ___________. A. norepinephrine (noradrenaline) B. dopamine C. endorphins D. acetylcholine (ACh) E. epinephrine (adrenaline)

Q: The parasympathetic division arises from the __________ regions of the spinal cord. A. brain, thoracic, and lumbar B. brain, sacral, and coccygeal C. brain, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal D. sacral and lumbar E. brain and sacral

Q: Damage to the __________ may affect near vision accommodation. A. celiac ganglion B. oculomotor nerve (CN III) C. facial nerve (CN VII) D. glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) E. cardiac plexus

Q: White rami carry _________ neurons, while gray rami carry _________ neurons. A. myelinated postganglionic; unmyelinated preganglionic B. unmyelinated postganglionic; myelinated preganglionic C. myelinated preganglionic; unmyelinated postganglionic D. unmyelinated preganglionic; myelinated postganglionic E. myelinated preganglionic; myelinated postganglionic

Q: Preganglionic fibers run from the _________ to the __________. A. posterior root ganglia; gray matter B. posterior root ganglia; autonomic ganglia C. gray matter; posterior root ganglia D. gray matter; autonomic ganglia E. autonomic ganglia; visceral effectors

Q: Preganglionic fibers of the autonomic efferent pathway are _________ and secrete __________. A. myelinated; norepinephrine (NE) B. myelinated; acetylcholine (ACh) C. myelinated; acetylcholine (ACh) and norepinephrine(NE) D. unmyelinated; acetylcholine (ACh) E. unmyelinated; norepinephrine(NE)

Q: Which of the following is not a reason that somatic reflexes act faster than visceral reflexes? A. The effector pathway in the somatic reflex arc is myelinated. B. The effector pathway in the visceral reflex arc involves more neurons. C. The effector pathway in the visceral reflex arc involves more chemical synapses. D. Some of the neurons in the effector pathway in the visceral reflex arc are unmyelinated. E. The effector organs in the somatic reflex are closer to the spinal cord.

Q: Most fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system travel in the __________. A. vagus B. trigeminal C. splanchnic D. facial E. sciatic

Q: Autonomic nervous system fibers are involved in all of the following except __________. A. changing the diameter of the pupil B. adjusting heart rate and force C. altering salivary mucus secretion D. regulating gastrointestinal motility E. maintaining tonicity of the muscles of the neck

Q: Which one of the following best describes the order of a visceral reflex? A. Sensory receptor interneuron afferent nerve fiber efferent nerve fiber gland B. Sensory receptor efferent nerve fiber interneuron afferent nerve fiber gland C. Sensory receptor afferent nerve fiber interneuron efferent nerve fiber gland D. Sensory receptor efferent nerve fiber afferent nerve fiber interneuron gland E. Sensory receptor interneuron efferent nerve fiber afferent nerve fiber gland

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding parasympathetic tone? A. It holds the resting heart rate below its intrinsic rate. B. It accelerates the resting heart rate above its intrinsic rate. C. It might increase or decrease heart rate depending on the situation. D. It affects heart rate only after myocardial infarction. E. It does not affect heart rate.

Q: Sympathetic nerve fibers are not associated with situations involving __________. A. anger B. digestion C. exercise D. stress E. arousal

Q: The background rate of sympathetic and parasympathetic activity is called ___________. A. "fight-or-flight" activity B. visceral motor activity C. autonomic reflex arc activity D. visceral tone E. autonomic tone

Q: The neurotransmitter(s) associated with autonomic ganglia is(are) __________. A. norepinephrine (NE) B. acetylcholine (ACh) and norepinephrine (NE) C. acetylcholine (ACh) D. dopamine E. dopamine and norepinephrine (NE)

Q: The effect of autonomic fibers on target cells is _________. The effect of somatic fibers on target cells is __________. A. always excitatory; always excitatory B. excitatory or inhibitory; always excitatory C. excitatory or inhibitory; excitatory or inhibitory D. always inhibitory; excitatory or inhibitory E. always inhibitory; always excitatory

Q: Which of the following is true regarding the autonomic nervous system? A. It controls skeletal muscle contraction. B. It has no ganglia along its nerves. C. It uses the neurotransmitter acetylcholine exclusively. D. Its denervation would cause hypersensitivity. E. It usually controls conscious actions.

Q: In response to high blood pressure, stretch receptors called __________ in the walls of arteries carrying blood to the head, will trigger a reflex that causes the heart to __________ its beats per minute. A. baroreceptors; decrease B. proprioceptors; decrease C. baroreceptors; increase D. proprioceptors; increase E. chemoreceptors; increase

Q: The motor pathway of the autonomic nervous system usually involves __________ neurons. A. no B. one C. two D. three E. four

Q: All sympathetic postganglionic adrenergic fibers secrete adrenaline.

Q: Acetylcholine (ACh) binds to both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors.

Q: Acetylcholine (ACh) always has an excitatory effect.

Q: Binding of norepinephrine (NE) to an alpha-adrenergic receptor is usually excitatory, and binding to a beta-adrenergic receptor is usually inhibitory.

Q: All autonomic output originates in the central nervous system.

Q: The autonomic nervous system controls all of the following except the __________. A. adrenal gland B. smooth muscle in the walls of the aorta C. cardiac muscle in the right atrium D. skeletal muscle in the rectus abdominis E. parotid salivary gland

Q: Which of the following pairings of brain wave names and descriptions is paired correctly? A. Delta Waves - Predominance of these may indicate serious brain damage in an adult B. Beta waves - Predominance of these may indicate emotional stress C. Alpha waves - Are greatest during sensory stimulation D. Theta waves - Absent during deep sleep

Q: Exhausted from studying all night, you briefly close your eyes and your mind starts to wander. Which brain waves would be most predominant in an EEG? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Delta D. Theta

Q: Which of the following cranial nerves is mispaired? A. Abducens - V B. Oculomotor - III C. Facial - VII D. Accessory - XI

Q: Your dentist gives you an injection of anesthetic in preparation for a filling. Which cranial nerve did they target? A. V B. VII C. IX D. XII

Q: Most preganglionic fibers synapse with postganglionic fibers in the dorsal root ganglia.

Q: All preganglionic fibers of the ANS pass through the sympathetic chain of ganglia, synapsing at least once there.

Q: The adrenal medulla is a modified sympathetic ganglion.

Q: Fibers of the vagus nerve end very near or within their target organs.

Q: The autonomic effect on a target cell depends only on the neurotransmitter reaching that target cell.

Q: Which cranial nerve pathway would be used to look cross-eyed at the tip of your nose? A. Trochlear nerve (IV) B. Oculomotor nerve (III) C. Abducens nerve (VI) D. Facial nerve (VII) E. Vagus nerve (X)

Q: Which of the following structures does not contain CSF? A. Dural sinus B. Lateral ventricle C. Central canal D. Subarachnoid space

Q: Injury to the reticular formation can result in which of the following? A. Irreversible coma B. Hypertension C. Parkinson disease D. Alzheimer disease

Q: If the cerebrum was no longer able to communicate with the midbrain, what type of tract would you suspect has been damaged? A. Projection B. Association C. Commisural D. Ascending

Q: In the cerebral cortex, which cells process information on a local level? A. Stellate B. Pyramidal C. Purkinje D. Ependymal

Q: Why is 90% of the cerebral cortex referred to as the neocortex? A. It developed recently evolutionarily when mammals diversified. B. It is only found in humans. C. It is last to develop in the fetus and is thus the youngest part of the brain. D. It has the ability to regenerate the outermost three of its six layers.

Q: The neocortex contains which of the following cells? A. Pyramidal and stellate cells B. Pyramidal and Purkinje cells C. Purkinje and stellate cells D. Pyramidal, stellate, and Purkinje cells

Q: After a stroke, a patient complains about lack of sensitivity in her right hand. The stroke most likely affected which part of the brain? A. Precentral gyrus in the right frontal lobe B. Postcentral gyrus in the left parietal lobe C. Precentral gyrus in the left frontal lobe D. Postcentral gyrus in the right temporal lobe E. Postcentral gyrus in the left frontal lobe

Q: Which of the following is not a motor cranial nerve? A. Trochlear nerve (IV) B. Abducens nerve (VI) C. Hypoglossal nerve (XII) D. Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) E. Accessory nerve (XI)

Q: What is the largest of the cranial nerves and the most important sensory nerve of the face? A. Accessory nerve (XI) B. Facial nerve (VII) C. Trigeminal nerve (V) D. Hypoglossal nerve (XII) E. Abducens nerve (VI)

Q: Which cranial nerve innervates most of the viscera in the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities? A. Hypoglossal nerve (XII) B. Accessory nerve (XI) C. Trochlear nerve (IV) D. Abducens nerve (VI) E. Vagus nerve (X)

Q: Most gray matter of the cerebrum is located in which region? A. Reticular formation B. Neocortex C. Limbic system D. Basal nuclei E. Substantia nigra

Q: Where are the hippocampus and amygdala found? A. Medulla oblongata B. Basal nuclei C. Limbic system D. Midbrain E. Cerebral cortex

Q: A predominance of which waves in an electroencephalogram (EEG) might indicate that a person is physically and mentally relaxed? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Theta D. Delta E. Gamma

Q: Which of the following occurs during rapid eye movement (REM) sleep? A. The muscles relax, and body temperature, blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate fall. B. The muscles are very relaxed and body temperature, blood pressure, and heart rate, and respiratory rate are at their lowest levels. C. The muscles are paralyzed, and body temperature, blood pressure, and heart rate and respiratory rate increase. D. A person falls into light sleep. E. A person begins to relax and feels drowsy.

Q: The __________ association area is responsible for perceiving and attending to stimuli, and the __________ association area is responsible for identifying them. A. temporal; parietal B. temporal; occipital C. frontal; occipital D. parietal; temporal E. occipital; frontal

Q: Short-term memory is associated with the __________, whereas long-term memory is associated with the __________. A. cerebral cortex; hippocampus B. hippocampus; cerebral cortex C. cerebral cortex; amygdala D. amygdala; hippocampus E. hippocampus; midbrain

Q: Destruction of the amygdala would mostly affect which of the following? A. Memory B. Awareness of objects C. Recognition and identification of objects D. Expression of emotional feelings E. Cognition

Q: Which body region is controlled by the largest area of the motor cortex? A. Shoulder B. Fingers C. Toes D. Trunk E. Neck

Q: The pyramidal cells of the precentral gyrus are called __________ neurons. A. stellate B. third-order C. first-order D. upper motor E. lower motor

Q: Nonfluent aphasia, due to a lesion in the __________, results in slow speech, difficulty in choosing words, or use of words that only approximate the correct word. A. primary motor area B. cerebral lateralization C. Broca area D. Wernicke area E. primary auditory area

Q: __________ show more lateralization than __________. A. Adult males; adult females B. Young children; adults C. Young children; elders D. Adult females; adult males E. Young male children; adult males

Q: Which of the following functions would most likely be controlled by the representational hemisphere of the cerebrum? A. Answering this question B. Diagnosing a patient's disease C. Balancing your checkbook D. Giving a speech E. Painting a picture

Q: The great majority of which tracts pass through the corpus callosum? A. Ascending B. Descending C. Projection D. Commissural E. Association

Q: Degeneration of the neurons in which of the following structures leads to the muscle tremors associated with Parkinson disease? A. Cerebral crus B. Tegmentum C. Pons D. Substantia nigra E. Inferior colliculi

Q: The reticular formation is a web of __________ scattered throughout the __________. A. nerves; white matter in the cerebrum B. white matter; cerebellum C. gray matter; brainstem D. gray matter; cerebrum E. neurosomas; hypothalamus

Q: What is the largest part of the hindbrain? A. Cerebellum B. Cerebrum C. Brainstem D. Pons E. Hypothalamus

Q: Loss of equilibrium and motor coordination would most likely be related to a lesion in which structure? A. Limbic system B. Pons C. Pituitary gland D. Medulla oblongata E. Cerebellum

Q: In which structure is the arbor vitae found? A. Left cerebral hemisphere B. Tegmentum in the midbrain C. Cerebellum D. Reticular formation E. Diencephalon

Q: There are no cranial nerves associated with which part of the brain? A. Thalamus B. Medulla oblongata C. Midbrain D. Cerebellum E. Pons

Q: Which of the following is not associated with the pons? A. Sensory information from the middle region of the face B. Sensory information from the inferior region of the face C. Sensory information from the superior region of the face D. Lateral eye movements E. Neck movement

Q: The thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus are derivatives of which embryonic structure? A. Telencephalon B. Diencephalon C. Mesencephalon D. Metencephalon E. Myelencephalon

Q: Nearly all the somatosensory input to the cerebrum passes by way of synapses in which region of the brain? A. Thalamus B. Hypothalamus C. Epithalamus D. Cerebellum E. Reticular formation

Q: Sex drive, body temperature, and food and water intake are regulated by which part of the brain? A. Limbic system B. Thalamus C. Pineal gland D. Hypothalamus E. Pituitary gland

Q: A lesion in which structure would cause a person to have an erratic waking/sleeping cycle? A. Satiety center B. Mammillary nucleus C. Suprachiasmatic nucleus D. Pituitary gland E. Medial geniculate nucleus

Q: The pineal gland is part of which larger region of the brain? A. Thalamus B. Hypothalamus C. Occipital lobe D. Midbrain E. Epithalamus

Q: Planning, motivation, and social judgment are functions of the brain associated with which part of the cerebrum? A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Insula E. Temporal lobe

Q: Which of the following is correct regarding the occipital lobe? A. It is chiefly concerned with mood, memory, and emotions. B. It is the principal visual center of the brain. C. It is the primary site for receiving and interpreting signals from the general senses. D. It is concerned with voluntary motor functions. E. It is likely to play a role in understanding spoken language.

Q: Which lobe is deep to the lateral sulcus and can only be seen by removing some of the overlying cerebrum? A. Frontal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Temporal lobe E. Insula

Q: The __________ function(s) in visual attention, such as to look and follow the flight of a butterfly. A. inferior colliculi B. superior colliculi C. tegmentum D. red nucleus E. substantia nigra

Q: The cerebellum is __________ to the cerebrum. A. superficial B. deep C. caudal D. rostral E. medial

Q: The gray matter of the cerebrum forms a surface layer called the __________ and deeper masses called __________ surrounded by white matter. A. nuclei; tracts B. cortex; nuclei C. cortex; medulla D. medulla; midbrain E. medulla; nerves

Q: The pons and cerebellum arise from which secondary embryonic vesicle? A. Telencephalon B. Diencephalon C. Mesencephalon D. Metencephalon E. Myelencephalon

Q: Which of the following structures appears as a large bulge just rostral to the medulla? A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Cerebellum D. Medulla oblongata E. Hypothalamus

Q: Which structure forms the floor and part of the walls of the third ventricle? A. Thalamus B. Hypothalamus C. Epithalamus D. Pituitary gland E. Midbrain

Q: From superficial to deep, the meninges occur in which order? A. Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid B. Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater C. Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid D. Pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater E. Arachnoid, pia mater, dura mater

Q: Which of the following is not a function of CSF? A. To regulate the chemical environment of the nervous tissue B. To rinse metabolic wastes from the nervous tissue C. To provide oxygen and nutrients to the nervous tissue D. To protect the brain from striking the cranium when the head is jolted E. To allow the brain to attain considerable size without being impaired by its own weight