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Q:
Tennis elbow is a common term describing injury to the origin of which of the following?
A. Extensor hallucis longus
B. Pronator quadratus
C. Extensor carpi radialis longus
D. Subscapularis
E. Flexor digitorum profundus
Q:
An injury that results in complete functional loss of the ulnar nerve will affect which of the following muscles?
A. Abductor digiti minimi
B. Abductor pollicis brevis
C. Flexor carpi radialis
D. Brachioradialis
E. Extensor indicis
Q:
Carpal tunnel pressure is sometimes relieved by surgically excising part or all of which structure?
A. Palmar aponeurosis
B. Extensor retinaculum
C. Flexor retinaculum
D. Extensor aponeurosis
E. Median nerve
Q:
What is the longest muscle in the human body?
A. Iliopsoas
B. Sartorius
C. Erector spinae
D. Semitendinosus
E. Semimembranosus
Q:
Which of the following muscles is in the medial compartment of the thigh?
A. Soleus
B. Adductor longus
C. Piriformis
D. Vastus medialis
E. Semimembranosus
Q:
Which of the following muscles inserts on the head of the fibula?
A. Extensor digitorum longus
B. Tibialis anterior
C. Popliteus
D. Biceps femoris
E. Semitendinosus
Q:
Which muscle is innervated by the tibial nerve?
A. Extensor digitorum longus
B. Tibialis anterior
C. Semimembranosus
D. Fibularis longus
E. Vastus lateralis
Q:
Which of the following muscles is responsible for medially rotating the tibia on the femur when the knee is flexed?
A. Piriformis
B. Semitendinosus
C. Adductor brevis
D. Vastus medialis
E. Sartorius
Q:
Which of the following muscles adducts and medially rotates the thigh?
A. Gracilis
B. Piriformis
C. Adductor magnus
D. Rectus femoris
E. Sartorius
Q:
Which of the following muscles is innervated by the obturator nerve?
A. Gracilis
B. Biceps femoris
C. Tibialis anterior
D. Soleus
E. Sartorius
Q:
The serratus anterior is innervated by which nerve?
A. Accessory
B. Dorsal scapular
C. Long thoracic
D. Lateral pectoral
E. Axillary
Q:
Which muscle acting on the arm assists in deep inspiration?
A. Pectoralis major
B. Trapezius
C. Teres minor
D. Diaphragm
E. Deltoid
Q:
A butcher who cuts the distal portion of his fingers may cut the __________ tendon.
A. flexor pollicis longus
B. flexor carpi ulnaris
C. palmaris longus
D. adductor pollicis
E. flexor digitorum profundus
Q:
When a nurse draws blood, it is not uncommon for the needle to penetrate which muscle near the cubital region?
A. Pronator quadratus
B. Semimembranosus
C. Pronator teres
D. Buccinator
E. Supinator
Q:
The muscles that laterally rotate and depress the scapula, as in shrugging and lowering the shoulders, are the __________.
A. trapezius and serratus anterior
B. pectoralis minor and serratus anterior
C. levator scapulae and rhomboideus
D. trapezius and rhomboideus
E. trapezius and latissimus dorsi
Q:
Which cranial nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius?
A. Abducens
B. Facial
C. Vagus
D. Accessory
E. Trigeminal
Q:
Which muscle(s) of respiration is(are) innervated by the phrenic nerve?
A. Diaphragm
B. External intercostals
C. Internal intercostals
D. Innermost intercostals
E. Pectoralis major
Q:
After taking their wedding vows, a bride and groom often ceremonially use which of the following muscles before walking away from the altar?
A. Depressor anguli oris
B. Orbicularis oris
C. Levator labii superioris
D. Platysma
E. Quadriceps femoris
Q:
Which muscle originates at the manubrium, inserts on the thyroid cartilage, and aids in singing low notes?
A. Omohyoid
B. Thyrohyoid
C. Sternothyroid
D. Stylohyoid
E. Lateral pterygoid
Q:
Some people suffer involuntary urination due to incompetence of what muscle?
A. External urethral sphincter
B. Bulbospongiosus
C. Compressor urethrae
D. Ischiocavernosus
E. Levator ani
Q:
A sacral fracture affecting the S3 and S4 nerve roots would result in a person having difficulty with evacuation of the bowels.
Q:
A baseball pitcher who injures one of his SITS muscles most commonly sustains tears to the tendon of which muscle?
A. Supraspinatus
B. Infraspinatus
C. Teres minor
D. Subscapularis
E. Deltoid
Q:
Which of the following is true regarding the levator scapulae?
A. It is innervated by the phrenic nerve.
B. It elevates the scapula if the scapula is fixed.
C. It rotates the scapula and depresses the apex of the shoulder.
D. It flexes the neck if the scapula is fixed.
E. It protracts the scapula if the humerus is fixed.
Q:
Which of the following is an intrinsic muscle of the hand?
A. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
B. Adductor pollicis
C. Extensor pollicis longus
D. Extensor indicis
E. Abductor pollicis longus
Q:
Unilateral contraction of which muscle causes ipsilateral flexion of the lumbar vertebral column?
A. Multifidus
B. Latissimus dorsi
C. External intercostals
D. Serratus anterior
E. Quadratus lumborum
Q:
In lifting a heavy weight from the floor, one should use the power of the __________ in order to avoid straining the lower back.
A. biceps brachii and brachialis
B. gastrocnemius and soleus
C. external and internal abdominal obliques
D. knee and hip extensors
E. trapezius and latissimus dorsi
Q:
In a whiplash injury, the neck undergoes forced hyperextension then hyperflexion, injuring multiple muscles in the neck. Which of the following muscles would be injured during the hyperextension phase of the injury?
A. Trapezius
B. Splenius capitis
C. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Semispinalis capitis
E. Levator scapulae
Q:
Tendinous intersections divide the __________ into segments that are externally visible on the abdomen of a well-muscled person.
A. vastus lateralis
B. serratus anterior
C. rectus abdominis
D. quadriceps femoris
E. transverse abdominal
Q:
The rectus abdominis is a __________ muscle, while the rectus femoris is a __________ muscle.
A. fusiform; parallel
B. parallel; bipennate
C. convergent; unipennate
D. bipennate; parallel
E. multipennate; convergent
Q:
Which of the following correctly states the origin and insertion of the sternocleidomastoid?
A. Sternal manubrium and lateral one-third of clavicle; mastoid process and lateral half of superior nuchal line
B. Sternal manubrium and medial half of clavicle; mastoid process and medial one-third of superior nuchal line
C. Sternal manubrium and medial one-third of clavicle; mastoid process and lateral half of superior nuchal line
D. Sternal manubrium and lateral half of clavicle; mastoid process and lateral one-third of superior nuchal line
E. Mastoid process and lateral half of superior nuchal line; sternal manubrium, medial one-third of clavicle
Q:
A point of convergence for several muscles of the lower face is the __________.
A. retinaculum
B. aponeurotica
C. modiolus
D. nuchal line
E. galea
Q:
The ________ originates on the zygomatic arch and inserts on the angle of the mandible.
A. masseter
B. buccinator
C. temporalis
D. genioglossus
E. stylohyoid
Q:
Which one of these muscles helps to open the mouth (depress the mandible)?
A. Zygomaticus major
B. Digastric
C. Sternohyoid
D. Depressor anguli oris
E. Hyoglossus
Q:
The palatoglossus is innervated by which nerve(s)?
A. Hypoglossal
B. Accessory
C. Vagus
D. Hypoglossal and accessory
E. Accessory and vagal
Q:
Which of the following muscles of mastication would be responsible for mandibular elevation?
A. Temporalis
B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Stylohyoid
D. Zygomaticus major
E. Zygomaticus minor
Q:
The aponeurosis of the external oblique forms the ________ at its inferior margin.
A. linea alba
B. rectus sheath
C. linea semilunaris
D. medial retinaculum
E. inguinal ligament
Q:
The deepest muscle of the abdominal wall is the __________.
A. transverse abdominal
B. internal oblique
C. rectus abdominis
D. latissimus dorsi
E. pectoralis minor
Q:
While sitting at your desk, you drop your pencil onto the floor. You bend over to pick up the pencil. In order to straighten up and continue your exam you must use which of the following muscles?
A. Tibialis anterior
B. Erector spinae
C. Semimembranosus
D. Tibialis anterior and semimembranosus
E. Extensor hallucis longus
Q:
Which of the following muscles is not externally visible on the trunk of the body?
A. Transverse abdominal
B. Latissimus dorsi
C. Trapezius
D. Pectoralis major
E. External abdominal oblique
Q:
Which term below best describes the deltoid?
A. Fusiform
B. Intrinsic
C. Involuntary
D. Extrinsic
E. Parallel
Q:
Which term best describes the relationship of the deltoid and SITS muscles during shoulder abduction?
A. Prime movers
B. Antagonists
C. Synergists
D. Fixators
E. Adductors
Q:
The semitendinosus is an example of what muscle shape?
A. Triangular
B. Fusiform
C. Sphincter
D. Convergent
E. Pennate
Q:
Which of the following muscles is the prime mover for inhalation?
A. Internal intercostals
B. External intercostals
C. Diaphragm
D. Stylohyoid
E. Hyoglossus
Q:
Which of the following extensors of the head is the most superficial?
A. Trapezius
B. Semispinalis capitis
C. Splenius capitis
D. Sternocleidomastoid
E. Temporalis
Q:
The occipitalis and frontalis are connected via the __________.
A. galea retinaculum
B. galea aponeurotica
C. galea cranium
D. galea orbicularis
E. galea neurotica
Q:
Which of the following muscles of facial expression is not innervated by the facial nerve?
A. Orbicularis oculi
B. Zygomaticus major
C. Corrugator supercilii
D. Levator palpebrae superioris
E. Buccinator
Q:
The study of the muscular system is known as __________.
A. kinesiology
B. pathophysiology
C. myology
D. biology
E. neurology
Q:
Which of the following is not a function of the muscular system?
A. Stability
B. Heat production
C. Control of openings
D. Secretion
E. Breathing
Q:
What term best describes the relationship between the pronator quadratus and supinator?
A. Fixators
B. Antagonists
C. Synergists
D. Prime movers
E. Depressors
Q:
Muscle fibers are arranged in bundles called ___________.
A. compartments
B. fascicles
C. retinacula
D. aponeuroses
E. groups
Q:
Which of the following describes muscular tissue emerging directly from bone rather than being separated from it by an obvious tendon?
A. Direct attachment
B. Indirect attachment
C. Inverted attachment
D. Insertion
E. Origin
Q:
The rectus femoris is an example of what muscle shape?
A. Fusiform
B. Parallel
C. Triangular
D. Elongated
E. Pennate
Q:
Groups of muscles are separated by which of the following?
A. Epimysium
B. Fascicles
C. Perimysium
D. Fascia
E. Endomysium
Q:
The __________ is not found in the elbow.
A. humeroulnar joint
B. humeroradial joint
C. proximal radioulnar joint
D. distal radioulnar joint
E. anular ligament
Q:
Which of the following is the most stable joint?
A. Coxal joint
B. Glenohumeral joint
C. Tibiofemoral joint
D. Humeroulnar joint
E. Humeroradial joint
Q:
Which of the following is the largest and most complex diarthrosis in the body?
A. The hip
B. The knee
C. The elbow
D. The shoulder
E. The wrist
Q:
The _________ deepens the socket of the hip joint and helps stabilize the joint.
A. fovea capitis
B. greater trochanter
C. lesser trochanter
D. acetabular labrum
E. ischial tuberosity
Q:
The __________ is not part of the tibiofemoral joint.
A. lateral meniscus
B. anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
C. tibial (medial) collateral ligament
D. fibular (lateral) collateral ligament
E. posterior tibiofibular ligament
Q:
The ligament that attaches the lateral femoral epicondyle to the fibula is called the __________.
A. anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
B. posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
C. fibular (lateral) collateral ligament (LCL)
D. tibial (medial) collateral ligament (MCL)
E. patellar ligament
Q:
The fibrocartilage pad between the medial condyle of the femur and the medial condyle of the tibia is called the __________.
A. anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
B. posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
C. infrapatellar bursa
D. medial meniscus
E. lateral meniscus
Q:
Which of the following structures prevents knee hyperextension?
A. The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
B. The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
C. The fibular (lateral) collateral ligament
D. The medial meniscus
E. The lateral meniscus
Q:
The talocrural joint is formed by the union of the __________, the _________, and the _________.
A. femur; calcaneus; talus
B. femur; tibia; patella
C. tibia; fibula; talus
D. tibia; fibula; calcaneus
E. tibia; calcaneus; talus
Q:
The jaw joint is the articulation of the __________ and the __________.
A. mandible; temporal bone
B. mandible; sphenoid bone
C. mandible; zygomatic bone
D. mandible; maxilla
E. maxilla; zygomatic
Q:
The rotator cuff tendons enclose the shoulder joint on all sides except _______________, which partly explains the nature of most shoulder dislocations.
A. anteriorly
B. posteriorly
C. superiorly
D. inferiorly
E. medially
Q:
Which of the following structures is not found in the shoulder?
A. The glenohumeral ligament
B. The transverse humeral ligament
C. The coracohumeral ligament
D. The radioulnar ligament
E. The rotator cuff
Q:
The __________ bursa is not an accessory structure of the glenohumeral joint.
A. subdeltoid
B. subcoracoid
C. subpatellar
D. subacromial
E. subscapular
Q:
Radial (lateral) and ulnar (medial) collateral ligaments restrict side-to-side movements of the __________ joint.
A. shoulder
B. elbow
C. wrist
D. hip
E. knee
Q:
In humans, normal chewing involves ___________ and __________ of the mandible.
A. protraction; retraction
B. opposition; reposition
C. elevation; pronation
D. elevation; depression
E. supination; depression
Q:
Suppose you cup your hands to hold some water. To limit the amount of leaking through your hands, this action would most likely require __________.
A. pronation of the forearm
B. circumduction of the wrists
C. opposition of the thumb
D. abduction of the fingers
E. adduction of the fingers
Q:
While standing, looking up at the stars requires __________.
A. elevation of the mandible
B. extension of the neck
C. hyperextension of the neck
D. abduction of the neck
E. dorsiflexion of the neck
Q:
If you stand on tiptoes to reach something high, you are performing __________ at the ankle.
A. plantar flexion
B. abduction
C. opposition
D. dorsiflexion
E. eversion
Q:
With the elbow and wrist extended, painting a circle on a canvas requires __________ of the shoulder.
A. rotation
B. circumduction
C. extension
D. flexion
E. elevation
Q:
When doing a pushup, your shoulders __________ as your body is pushed upward.
A. protract
B. retract
C. supinate
D. hyperextend
E. elevate
Q:
A monoaxial joint, like the elbow, is capable of which one of the following movements?
A. Circumduction
B. Supination and pronation
C. Flexion and extension
D. Rotation
E. Abduction
Q:
Raising your hand and placing it on the shoulder of a person standing in front of you, requires __________ of the shoulder.
A. abduction
B. adduction
C. extension
D. flexion
E. elevation
Q:
Showing your palm to someone who is in front of you, as if to tell them "Stop," requires __________.
A. dorsiflexion of the hand
B. hyperextension of the wrist
C. abduction of the wrist
D. flexion of the wrist
E. hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints
Q:
To tip the soles of the feet medially, so they face each other, requires __________. Tipping them out laterally so they face away from each other is __________.
A. dorsiflexion; plantar flexion
B. inversion; eversion
C. medial excursion; lateral excursion
D. opposition; reposition
E. retraction; protraction
Q:
The temporomandibular joint is a(n) __________ joint.
A. osseous
B. cartilaginous
C. bony
D. fibrous
E. synovial
Q:
When you hold out your hands with the palms up, __________ your wrists will tip your palms toward you.
A. hyperextending
B. circumducting
C. rotating
D. flexing
E. abducting
Q:
Raising an arm to one side of the body to stop a taxi, is an example of __________ of the shoulder.
A. abduction
B. adduction
C. circumduction
D. rotation
E. protraction