Q&A Hero

Q: The union of the proximal and middle phalanges form __________ joints. A. pivot B. plane (gliding) C. hinge D. saddle E. condylar (ellipsoid)

Q: The metacarpophalangeal joints at the base of the fingers are ___________ joints. A. ball-and-socket B. condylar C. pivot D. hinge E. plane (gliding)

Q: When you walk up the stairs, your hip and knee joints __________ to lift your body weight. A. rotate B. abduct C. adduct D. flex E. extend

Q: The joint between the left and right parietal bones is called the __________. A. lambdoid suture B. sagittal suture C. coronal suture D. parietal joint E. cranial joint

Q: The least movable joints are _____________ joints. A. symphysis B. synchondrosis C. syndesmosis D. gomphosis E. synostosis

Q: The most movable joints are ___________ joints. A. symphysis B. synovial C. syndesmosis D. gomphosis E. synchondrosis

Q: Which of the following is not an anatomical component of a synovial joint? A. Articular cartilage B. The joint cavity C. The interosseous membrane D. The fibrous capsule E. The synovial membrane

Q: The smooth, connective tissue lining that covers the opposing bony surfaces of a synovial joint is called __________. A. articular cartilage B. a ligament C. the fibrous capsule D. a synovial membrane E. the joint cavity

Q: A(n) __________ is a sac of fluid associated with a synovial joint. A. articular sac B. synovial vesicle C. bursa D. meniscus E. articular cavity

Q: Which of the following is a first-class lever? A. The humeroulnar joint B. The talocrural joint C. The knee joint D. Any metacarpophalangeal joint E. The atlanto-occipital joint

Q: Which of the following is true regarding joints that are first-class levers? A. Their mechanical advantage may be either greater or less than 1.0. B. Their mechanical advantage is always less than 1.0. C. Their output force is always greater than the input force. D. Their resistance is between the joint (fulcrum) and the distal end of the bone (effort). E. The joint (fulcrum) is at the opposite end from the tendinous insertion (effort).

Q: Which of the following is not a factor that determines the range of motion of a joint? A. The shapes of the bone surfaces B. The length of the bone C. The stiffness of the ligaments D. The strength of the ligaments E. The action of the muscles associated with the joint

Q: One example of a multiaxial joint is the __________ joint. A. proximal radioulnar B. metatarsophalangeal C. humeroulnar D. humeroscapular E. atlantoaxial

Q: The proximal radioulnar joint is a __________ joint. A. ball-and-socket B. saddle C. hinge D. pivot E. condylar

Q: The epiphysis and diaphysis of a long bone in a child are bound by a __________. A. synchondrosis B. symphysis C. serrate suture D. lap suture E. plane suture

Q: Some joints become synostoses by replacing __________ with __________. A. fibers; cartilage B. cartilage; fibers C. bone; cartilage D. bone; fibers E. fibers; bone

Q: The joint between the L2 and L3 vertebrae is a __________. A. synostosis B. gomphosis C. synchondrosis D. symphysis E. syndesmosis

Q: The study of joint structure, function, and dysfunction is called __________. A. kinesiology B. arthrology C. osteology D. biomechanics E. synostology

Q: Coronal, sagittal, and lambdoid are examples of __________. A. syndesmoses B. gomphoses C. serrate sutures D. plane sutures E. lap sutures

Q: The elbow has both pivot and hinge joints.

Q: The main stabilizer of the shoulder is the biceps brachii muscle.

Q: Which of the following is not a major joint category? A. Elastic B. Synovial C. Cartilaginous D. Fibrous E. Bony

Q: The joint between the first costal cartilage and the sternum, is a __________, whereas the other costal cartilages are joined to the sternum by __________ joints. A. syndesmosis; synovial B. synchondrosis; synovial C. synostosis; cartilaginous D. synarthrosis; cartilaginous E. symphysis; cartilaginous

Q: Unlike other joints, a __________ does not join two bones to one another. A. suture B. syndesmosis C. gomphosis D. cartilaginous joint E. bony joint

Q: What do sutures, gomphoses, and syndesmoses have in common? A. These are joints found only in the appendicular skeleton. B. These are joints found only in the axial skeleton. C. These are all bony joints. D. These are all fibrous joints. E. These are cartilaginous joints.

Q: The joint between the diaphyses of the radius and ulna is a __________. A. suture B. gomphosis C. syndesmosis D. synchondrosis E. symphysis

Q: Synovial fluid is rich in albumin and hyaluronic acid, which give it a viscous texture similar to egg white.

Q: Bursae are structures associated with fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial joints.

Q: The forearm acts as a third-class lever during flexion of the elbow.

Q: The shoulder is the only multiaxial, ball-and-socket joint in the human body.

Q: Circumduction is limited to ball-and-socket joints.

Q: Hinge joints, such as the tibiofemoral joint, are monoaxial.

Q: Under normal circumstances, the wrist can be hyperextended, but the elbow cannot.

Q: The coxal joint is a ball-and-socket joint, in which the head of the humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapula.

Q: A meniscus is a type of bursa seen in the space between the femur and tibia.

Q: One difference between the male and female pelvis is that the subpubic angle of a female is generally __________. A. greater than 100 degrees B. less than 90 degrees C. greater than 120 degrees D. less than 20 degrees

Q: An articulation is any point at which two bones meet.

Q: Bony joints are the most common type of joints.

Q: Fibrous joints are joints, at which two bones are united by hyaline cartilage.

Q: Symphyses are the most common type of fibrous joints.

Q: Which of the following is not considered a weight-bearing bone? A. The femur B. The tibia C. The fibula D. The talus E. The calcaneous

Q: Spines of the __________ form a part of the pelvic outlet. A. sacrum B. pubis C. ischium D. ilium E. pubic symphysis

Q: The acetabulum articulates with the __________. A. humerus B. femur C. patella D. tibia E. hip bone

Q: A newborn passes through the__________ of its mother during birth. A. obturator foramen B. pelvic inlet C. pelvic outlet D. acetabulum E. false pelvis

Q: Male and female pelves differ in all of the following features except __________. A. the male pelvis is more massive B. the male pelvic outlet is smaller C. the female pubic arch is usually greater than 100 degrees D. the female coccyx is tilted posteriorly E. the female sacrum is longer

Q: The __________ does not belong to the femur. A. anterior border B. fovea capitis C. medial condyle D. greater trochanter E. lesser trochanter

Q: You cannot palpate the __________ on a living person. A. lateral malleolus B. tibial tuberosity C. medial surface of the fibula D. anterior border of the tibia E. calcaneus

Q: There are __________ bones in a newborn compared with the average number in an adult. A. more B. fewer C. the same number of

Q: What are the three auditory ossicles? A. The malleus, incus, and stapes B. The superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae C. The hyoid, mandible, and maxilla D. The temporal, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones

Q: The __________ is a U-shaped bone that sits above the larynx yet does not articulate with any other bone. A. hyoid bone B. mandible C. maxilla D. zygomatic bone

Q: Which cranial bone(s) are separate right and left bones at birth but generally fuse by the age of 5? A. Frontal bone and mandible B. Frontal bone and maxilla C. Mandible and maxilla D. Frontal bone and occipital bone

Q: A young girl falls off her bike and lands on her hand, breaking the medial bone of her antebrachium. Which bone did she break? A. Her carpal B. Her metacarpal C. Her humerus D. Her radius E. Her ulna

Q: Which of the following is found in the palm of your hand? A. Carpal B. Metacarpal C. Tarsal D. Metatarsal E. Phalanx

Q: Which of the following is a sesamoid bone? A. Metatarsal B. Tarsal C. Tibia D. Fibula E. Patella

Q: Rib 7 is a __________ rib. A. true B. floating C. false D. pelvic E. cartilaginous

Q: The __________ can be easily palpated between the clavicles. A. xiphoid process B. suprasternal notch C. body of the sternum D. costal cartilage E. costal groove

Q: The spinous process has a bifid tip in most __________ vertebrae. A. cervical B. thoracic C. lumbar D. sacral E. coccygeal

Q: In a herniated disc, the ring of fibrocartilage called the __________ ruptures and the __________ oozes out. A. nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus B. lamina; nucleus pulposus C. anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus D. anulus fibrosus; body E. nucleus pulposus; lamina

Q: Which of the following do costal cartilages connect? A. The clavicles with the sternum B. The true ribs with the scapula C. The floating ribs with xiphoid process D. The false ribs with the viscera and peritoneum E. The ribs with the sternum

Q: Which of the following is not part of the pectoral girdle? A. The glenohumeral joint B. The acromioclavicular joint C. The sternoclavicular joint D. The sacroiliac joint E. The clavicle and scapula

Q: The acromion is an anatomical feature of the __________. A. clavicle B. scapula C. ulna D. scaphoid E. pollex

Q: The antebrachium contains the __________. A. radius and ulna B. humerus C. carpals and metacarpals D. scapula and clavicle E. phalanges

Q: The glenoid cavity of the __________ articulates with the head of the __________. A. scapula; sternum B. radius; humerus C. humerus; scapula D. sternum; humerus E. scapula; humerus

Q: The right hand and wrist of an adult has __________ bones. A. 15 B. 18 C. 25 D. 27 E. 28

Q: Which of the following is not true of a thoracic vertebra? A. The body has facets as points of articulation for ribs. B. It usually has a facet at the end of each transverse process for attachment of a rib. C. The body is more massive than those of cervical vertebrae but less than those of lumbar vertebrae. D. The spinous process is pointed and angled sharply downward. E. It has a pair of transverse foramina.

Q: The __________ belongs to the thoracic cage, whereas the __________ belongs to the pectoral girdle. A. sternum; clavicle B. clavicle; sternum C. vertebra T5; vertebra T1 D. scapula; clavicle E. scapula; sternum

Q: The manubrium is part of what bone? A. Clavicle B. Sternum C. Scapula D. A rib E. Vertebra

Q: Which bone is a part of the skull and not just associated with it? A. Incus B. Malleus C. Hyoid D. Stapes E. Vomer

Q: Fontanels are __________ in an infant. A. spaces between the unfused cranial bones B. cartilages covering cranial bones C. fibrous connective tissues lining the cranial cavity D. fibrous connective tissues lining the orbits E. fibrous connective tissues lining paranasal sinuses

Q: All of these contribute to the wall of the orbit except the __________ bone. A. sphenoid B. frontal C. maxillary D. zygomatic E. nasal

Q: Which of the following bones is adjacent to both the coronal and lambdoid sutures? A. Occipital bone B. Sphenoid bone C. Parietal bone D. Zygomatic bone E. Frontal bone

Q: Which bone helps form the coronal, lambdoid, and squamous sutures of the skull? A. Occipital bone B. Sphenoid bone C. Parietal bone D. Temporal bone E. Frontal bone

Q: Which of the following bones forms the bulk of the hard palate? A. Nasal bone B. Mandible C. Ethmoid bone D. Maxilla E. Lacrimal bone

Q: Which of the following articualtes with the vertebral column? A. Mandibular fossa B. Mastoid process C. Occipital condyle D. Foramen magnum E. Zygomatic arch

Q: From superior to inferior, how many individual vertebrae are there of each type? A. 12; 7; 5; 5; 4 B. 12; 5; 5; 7; 4 C. 7; 5; 5; 12; 4 D. 7; 12; 5; 5; 4 E. 7; 5; 5; 4; 12

Q: Which of the following is the most common spinal curvature deformity? A. Scoliosis B. Lordosis C. Kyphosis D. Osteosis E. Herniation

Q: Which intervertebral disc is largest? A. The one between C2 and C3 B. The one between C7 and T1 C. The one between T4 and T5 D. The one between T12 and L1 E. The one between L4 and L5

Q: Which of the following is not found on a typical vertebra? A. Spinous process B. Transverse processes C. Vertebral head D. Vertebral foramen E. Vertebral body

Q: Which of the following is only found on the axis vertebra? A. Transverse foramen B. Spinous process C. Dens (odontoid process) D. Vertebral arch E. Superior articular facet

Q: The __________ suture separates the temporal bone from the parietal bone. A. coronal B. squamous C. lambdoid D. sagittal E. frontal