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Q:
What is the product of translation?
A. A newly synthesized amino acid
B. A newly synthesized polypeptide
C. A newly synthesized nucleic acid
D. An mRNA
E. A tRNA
Q:
Which molecule contains anticodons?
A. An mRNA
B. A DNA molecule
C. A tRNA
D. An rRNA
E. A cDNA
Q:
DNA polymerase is most active during which phase of the cell cycle?
A. S
B. G1
C. G2
D. M
E. G0
Q:
The G1, S, and G2 phases of the cell cycle are collectively called __________.
A. interphase
B. telophase
C. cytokinesis
D. prophase
E. anaphase
Q:
All of the following participate in DNA replication except __________.
A. DNA
B. ribosomes
C. DNA ligase
D. DNA helicase
E. DNA polymerase
Q:
Cytokinesis overlaps with which phase of mitosis?
A. The S phase
B. Telophase
C. Metaphase
D. Prophase
E. Interphase
Q:
A mutation is __________.
A. a change in size or shape of a cell
B. a beneficial change in DNA structure
C. a harmful change in DNA structure
D. a neutral change in DNA structure
E. a change in DNA structure that might be beneficial, harmful, or neutral
Q:
DNA replication is called semiconservative because __________.
A. each daughter DNA consists of one new helix and one old helix
B. each daughter DNA consists of one new nucleotide and one old nucleotide
C. each daughter DNA consists of one new chromatid and one old chromatid
D. each daughter cell receives one new chromatid and one old chromatid
E. each daughter cell receives one new helix and one old helix
Q:
__________ opens up one segment of the DNA helix during replication; __________adds complementary free nucleotides to the exposed DNA strand.
A. DNA ligase; DNA helicase
B. DNA helicase; DNA polymerase
C. DNA ligase; DNA polymerase
D. DNA helicase; DNA ligase
E. DNA polymerase; DNA ligase
Q:
Which of these cannot cause a mutation?
A. Radiation
B. A virus
C. A chemical
D. A mistake made by the DNA polymerase
E. A mistake made by the RNA polymerase
Q:
Cell division is stimulated by __________ and suppressed by __________.
A. mitosis; cytokinesis
B. mitosis; contact inhibition
C. cell size; cytokinesis
D. growth factors; contact inhibition
E. cell size; contact inhibition
Q:
The stage at which chromosomes aggregate along the equator of a cell is __________.
A. prophase
B. metaphase
C. anaphase
D. telophase
E. interphase
Q:
Which of these processes occurs during a cell's first gap (G1) phase?
A. DNA is semiconservatively replicated.
B. The nuclear envelope breaks down.
C. The cell synthesizes the enzymes that control mitosis.
D. The cell synthesizes proteins and grows.
E. The chromatin condenses into visible chromosomes.
Q:
You were able to radioactively tag and thereby trace an amino acid that is used to make insulin, a hormone that will be exported out of the cell. The pathway of the tagged amino acid would be __________.
A. free ribosome cytosol vesicle extracellular fluid
B. rough ER Golgi complex Golgi vesicle extracellular fluid
C. rough ER smooth ER Golgi complex Golgi vesicle extracellular fluid
D. smooth ER Golgi complex Golgi vesicle extracellular fluid
E. smooth ER Golgi complex lysosome extracellular fluid
Q:
The gene coding for a polypeptide made of 51 amino acids would have a minimum of _________ bases.
A. 20
B. 51
C. 102
D. 153
Q:
Which of the following is the template for transcription?
A. The molecule that carries codons
B. The molecule that carries anticodons
C. The molecule that carries base triplets
D. The molecule that carries amino acids
E. The molecule that carries tRNA
Q:
What is the complementary DNA base sequence to the DNA strand TGCCAT?
A. TGCCAT
B. UGCCAU
C. ACGGTA
D. ACGGUA
E. ACCGTA
Q:
A __________ contains the necessary information for the production of a molecule of RNA.
A. genome
B. gene
C. nucleotide
D. genetic code
E. codon
Q:
What is all of the DNA in a set of 23 chromosomes referred to as?
A. A centromere
B. A chromatid
C. The karyotype
D. The phenotype
E. The genome
Q:
The human genome consists of approximately __________ pairs of nucleotides.
A. 3 billion
B. 3 million
C. 300,000
D. 3000
Q:
Copying genetic information from DNA into RNA is called __________; using the information contained in mRNA to make a polypeptide is called __________.
A. transcription; translation
B. translation; transcription
C. DNA replication; translation
D. DNA duplication; transcription
E. DNA translation; RNA transcription
Q:
Which of the following is not directly involved in translation?
A. DNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. rRNA
E. Ribosomes
Q:
Transcription occurs in the __________, but most translation occurs in the __________.
A. nucleus; cytoplasm
B. nucleus; nucleolus
C. cytoplasm; nucleus
D. nucleolus; cytoplasm
E. nucleolus; rough endoplasmic reticulum
Q:
__________ are turned on or off by regulatory proteins in accordance with changing needs for the __________ they encode.
A. Enzymes; products
B. Ribosomes; proteins
C. Genes; proteins
D. Proteins; genes
E. Genes; ribosomes
Q:
Anticodons, codons, and base triplets correspond to __________ respectively.
A. tRNA, DNA, and mRNA
B. DNA, tRNA, and mRNA
C. tRNA, mRNA, and DNA
D. DNA, RNA, and pre-mRNA
E. RNA, DNA, and pre-mRNA
Q:
After translation, a protein may undergo structural changes called __________ modifications.
A. splicing
B. posttranscriptional
C. posttranslational
D. polyribosomal
E. secretory
Q:
Since there are no genes coding for carbohydrates, nucleic acids, or lipids, how do cells produce them?
A. Enzymes encoded by genes synthesize these products.
B. Cells are born with all the products they need.
C. Cells absorb these products by endocytosis.
D. Cells import these products from older cells.
E. Cells can produce carbohydrates, nucleic acids, and lipids out of proteins.
Q:
The genetic code is the link between the __________ and the __________ that they represent.
A. DNA molecule; 20 amino acids
B. DNA molecule; 64 amino acids
C. mRNA anticodons; 20 amino acids
D. mRNA codons; 64 amino acids
E. mRNA codons; 20 amino acids
Q:
DNA is a polymer of __________, which consist of a sugar, a phosphate group, and a __________.
A. amino acids; nucleotide
B. nucleic acids; nucleotide
C. nucleotides; nitrogenous base
D. nucleotides; nucleic acid
E. proteins; nucleotide
Q:
If a DNA molecule were known to be 22% thymine (T), what would be the percentage of guanine (G) present?
A. 8%
B. 11%
C. 22%
D. 28%
E. 78%
Q:
Which of these is the correct sequence from simple to more complex?
A. Chromatin, carbon, nucleotide, nitrogenous base, DNA
B. Carbon, nitrogenous base, nucleotide, chromatin, DNA
C. Chromatin, DNA, nucleotide, nitrogenous base, carbon
D. Carbon, nucleotide, nitrogenous base, chromatin, DNA
E. Carbon, nitrogenous base, nucleotide, DNA, chromatin
Q:
A __________ is composed of a granular cluster of eight proteins called __________ with DNA wound around them.
A. nucleosome; centrosomes
B. nucleosome; histones
C. chromosome; histones
D. chromosome; centromeres
E. centromere; chromatin
Q:
The enzyme RNA polymerase participates in translation.
Q:
There are three codons that do not code for any amino acid.
Q:
All proteins made by the ribosomes are exported from a cell for use elsewhere in the body.
Q:
A cell starting prophase has 92 molecules of DNA in its nucleus.
Q:
After mitosis, each chromosome consists of two parallel filaments called sister chromatids.
Q:
Mitosis is responsible for embryonic development and tissue growth.
Q:
Many genes occur in alternative forms called alleles.
Q:
Phenotype is the result of genetic influences only.
Q:
Oncogenes and tumor-suppressor genes have similar effects on cell division.
Q:
Eye color is a normal polygenic trait.
Q:
What function would immediately cease if the ribosomes of a cell were destroyed?
A. Exocytosis
B. Active transport
C. Ciliary action
D. Protein synthesis
E. Osmosis
Q:
Naked DNA is called chromatin.
Q:
DNA is composed of double-ring nitrogenous bases, whereas RNA is composed of single-ring nitrogenous bases.
Q:
A gene can be defined as an information-containing segment of RNA that codes for the production of a polypeptide.
Q:
Although all cells synthesize phospholipids, there are no genes for phospholipids.
Q:
DNA never migrates from the nucleus to the cytoplasm to participate directly in protein synthesis.
Q:
The plasma membrane is permeable to _________, but impermeable to ___________.
A. nutrients; wastes
B. proteins; nutrients
C. phosphates; wastes
D. nutrients; proteins
E. wastes; nutrients
Q:
A patient was severely dehydrated, losing a large amount of fluid. The patient was given intravenous fluids of normal saline. Normal saline is ________ to your blood cells and is about __________ NaCl.
A. isotonic; 9%
B. isotonic; 0.9%
C. hypertonic; 9%
D. hypotonic; 0.9%
E. hypotonic; 9%
Q:
Which of these is an example of active transport?
A. Diffusion of oxygen from a place of high concentration to a place of lower concentration
B. Facilitated diffusion of K+
C. Transport of glucose down its concentration gradient
D. Transport of Na+ from a place of low concentration to a place of higher concentration
E. Transport of Cl- following its concentration gradient
Q:
Which of these brings nonspecific material into a cell?
A. Phagocytosis
B. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
C. Transcytosis
D. Pinocytosis
E. Exocytosis
Q:
Which of the following is not a membranous organelle?
A. Mitochondria
B. Ribosome
C. Nucleus
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
E. Golgi complex
Q:
Among other functions, hepatocytes (liver cells) are specialized for detoxifying drugs or other chemicals. Hepatocytes have large amounts of __________.
A. DNA
B. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. microtubules
D. cilia
E. centrioles
Q:
Water flows through a selectively permeable membrane in a process called __________, but water molecules cross the membrane more easily through channels of transmembrane proteins called __________.
A. osmosis; water pumps
B. osmosis; aquaporins
C. osmosis; uniport
D. filtration; aquaporins
E. filtration; water pumps
Q:
Insulin is taken up, via endocytosis, by the endothelial cells that line blood capillaries. Then, it's transported across the cell to the other side, where it is released. This transport is called __________.
A. pinocytosis
B. receptor-mediated phagocytosis
C. passive transport
D. facilitated transport
E. transcytosis
Q:
Sodium and glucose are transported together from the intestinal lumen into an intestinal cell. The carrier protein is a(n) __________ and the process is called ____________.
A. symport; cotransport
B. symport; countertransport
C. antiport; countertransport
D. antiport; cotransport
E. uniport; facilitated diffusion
Q:
A red blood cell is placed in a hypertonic solution. This means the concentration of solutes in the solution is __________ than the concentration of solutes in the intracellular fluid, and will cause the cell to ______________.
A. higher; swell
B. lower; swell
C. higher; shrink
D. lower; shrink
E. lower; burst
Q:
What do facilitated diffusion and active transport have in common?
A. Both involve transport of a solute up its concentration gradient.
B. Both involve transport of a solute down its concentration gradient.
C. Both involve the use of energy provided by ATP.
D. Neither require ATP to function.
E. Both are examples of carrier-mediated transport.
Q:
The number of particles of a solute in a solution is described by its ____________. The ability of a solution to affect the fluid volume in a cell is referred to as its __________.
A. tonicity; osmolarity
B. osmolarity; diffusion
C. osmolarity; tonicity
D. osmolarity; molarity
E. tonicity; diffusion
Q:
Which of the following processes could occur only through the plasma membrane of a living cell?
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Simple diffusion
C. Filtration
D. Osmosis
E. Active transport
Q:
Which of the following is not a method by which particles can leave a cell?
A. Active transport
B. Exocytosis
C. Simple diffusion
D. An antiport system
E. Pinocytosis
Q:
White blood cells engulf bacteria by means of __________.
A. phagocytosis
B. cotransport
C. pinocytosis
D. active transport
E. receptor-mediated endocytosis
Q:
The term _____________ refers to a membrane that allows some things to pass through it, but not others.
A. selectively permeable
B. glycocalyx
C. phospholipid bilayer
D. specificity
E. carrier-mediated
Q:
Proteins that do not protrude into the phospholipid bilayer, but adhere to the surface of the plasma membrane, are called __________.
A. peripheral proteins
B. channel proteins
C. glycoproteins
D. integral proteins
E. transmembrane proteins
Q:
A protein that is bound to a carbohydrate is called a _________.
A. phosphoprotein
B. proteocalyx
C. glycoprotein
D. lipoprotein
E. phospholipid
Q:
The plasma membrane is mostly made of molecules that have hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails. These molecules are called _________.
A. proteoglycans
B. glycolipids
C. glycoproteins
D. phospholipids
E. lipoproteins
Q:
ATP is consumed when __________ transfer solutes from one side of the membrane to the other.
A. receptors
B. pumps
C. cell-adhesion molecules
D. channels
E. cell-identity markers
Q:
Two solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane. If solution A has a higher concentration of a nonpermeating solute than solution B, then __________.
A. the solute will pass down its concentration gradient from solution A to B
B. the solute will pass down its concentration gradient from solution B to A
C. water will pass down its concentration gradient from solution A to B
D. water will pass down its concentration gradient from solution B to A
E. neither the solute nor water will diffuse
Q:
_____________ is the process in which ____________ forces water and small solutes, such as salts, through narrow clefts between capillary cells.
A. Filtration; hydrostatic pressure
B. Osmosis; hydrostatic pressure
C. Active transport; osmotic pressure
D. Active transport; hydrostatic pressure
E. Osmosis; osmotic pressure
Q:
The most abundant molecules in the plasma membrane are __________.
A. glycolipids
B. phospholipids
C. prostaglandins
D. proteins
E. cholesterol molecules
Q:
Membrane proteins that bind to signals by which cells communicate are called __________.
A. receptors
B. enzymes
C. carriers
D. cell-identity markers
E. cell-adhesion molecules
Q:
A receptor protein in the plasma membrane will not bind to just any chemical in the extracellular fluid, but only to certain ones. This property is called _________.
A. selectivity
B. specificity
C. efficacy
D. saturation
E. fidelity
Q:
In its second-messenger role, cAMP activates enzymes called _________, whose job is to regulate other enzymes by adding phosphate groups to them.
A. transmembrane proteins
B. peripheral proteins
C. kinases
D. glycocalyx
E. blockers
Q:
Most transmembrane proteins have ___________ regions facing the intra- and extracellular fluid, and __________ regions embedded in the phospholipid bilayer.
A. hydrophilic; hydrophilic
B. hydrophilic; hydrophobic
C. hydrophobic; hydrophobic
D. hydrophobic; hydrophilic
E. lipophilic; lipophobic
Q:
Channel protein gates respond to all these stimuli except __________.
A. chemical messengers
B. ligands
C. changes in electrical potential (voltage) across the plasma membrane
D. physical deformation of the plasma membrane
E. water in the extracellular fluid
Q:
In the glycocalyx, __________ act like identification tags that enable the body to distinguish its own cells from foreign and diseased cells.
A. glycoproteins
B. lipoproteins
C. cholesterol molecules
D. phospholipids
E. cell-adhesion molecules
Q:
The fuzzy coat of carbohydrates on the outer surface of the plasma membrane that functions in cell identification is called the __________.
A. brush border
B. glycocalyx
C. cholesterol coat
D. phospholipid bilayer
E. cell-adhesion molecule
Q:
__________ provide motility to a sperm cell, __________ act as sensory "antennae" in many cells, and ____________ increase a cell's surface area.
A. Cilia; microvilli; flagella
B. Microvilli; cilia; flagella
C. Microvilli; flagella; cilia
D. Flagella; microvilli; cilia
E. Flagella; cilia; microvilli
Q:
The plasma membrane of cells lining the small intestine has __________, which are specialized for absorption of nutrients.
A. flagella
B. cilia
C. microvilli
D. a glycocalyx
E. dynein arms