Q&A Hero

Q: Which one of the following refers to the ability of shareholders to undo a company's dividend policy and create an alternative dividend policy by reinvesting dividends or selling shares of stock? A) Perfect foresight model B) Personalization C) Recapitalization D) Offsetting leverage E) Homemade dividend

Q: Which type of dividend is considered to be a one-time event that will not be repeated? A) Stock dividend B) Extra cash dividend C) Partial liquidating dividend D) Special dividend E) Regular cash dividend

Q: Which one of the following dates is used to determine the names of shareholders who will receive a dividend payment? A) Ex-rights date B) Ex-dividend date C) Date of record D) Date of payment E) Declaration date

Q: The ex-dividend date is defined as ________ business day(s) prior to the date of record A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 10

Q: The board of directors of Wilson Sporting Equipment met this afternoon and passed a resolution to pay a cash dividend of $.42 a share next month. In relation to this dividend, today is referred to as which one of the following dates? A) Decision date B) Date-of-record C) Declaration date D) Payment date E) Ex-dividend date

Q: A $.45 quarterly cash payment paid by Jones & Co. to its shareholders in the normal course of business becomes a liability of the company on the: A) day prior to the ex-dividend date. B) date-of-record. C) declaration date. D) payment date. E) ex-dividend date.

Q: Frozen Foods just paid out $3.62 a share to its shareholders. The cash for these payments came from a large sale of assets, not from any earnings of the firm. What are these payments to shareholders called? A) Dividends B) Distributions C) Repurchases D) Payments-in-kind E) Stock splits

Q: Green Roof Motels has more cash on hand than its operations require. Thus, it has decided to pay out some of its earnings in the form of cash to its shareholders. What are these payments to shareholders called? A) Dividends B) Stock payments C) Repurchases D) Payments-in-kind E) Stock splits

Q: All else equal, the market value of a stock will tend to decrease by roughly the aftertax value of the dividend on the: A) dividend declaration date. B) ex-dividend date. C) date of record. D) date of payment. E) day after the date of payment.

Q: Kate purchased 500 shares of Fast Deliveries stock on Wednesday, July 7. Ted purchased 100 shares of Fast Deliveries stock on Thursday, July 8. Fast Deliveries declared a dividend on June 20 to shareholders of record on July 12 and payable on August 1. Which one of the following statements concerning the dividend paid on August 1 is correct given this information? A) Neither Kate nor Ted is entitled to the dividend. B) Kate is entitled to the dividend but Ted is not. C) Ted is entitled to the dividend but Kate is not. D) Both Ted and Kate are entitled to the dividend. E) Both Ted and Kate are entitled to one-half of the dividend amount.

Q: The last date on which you can purchase shares of stock and still receive the next dividend is the date that is ________ business day(s) prior to the date of record. A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

Q: Bailey's decided on Friday, March 7, to pay a dividend of $.28 a share on Monday, April 7. The ex-dividend date is Tuesday, March 18. What is the date of record? A) Friday, March 7 B) Monday, March 17 C) Friday, March 14 D) Thursday, March 20 E) Friday, March 21

Q: United Foods declared a dividend of $.62 a share on Thursday, October 16. The dividend will be paid on Monday, November 10, to shareholders of record on Friday, October 31. Which one of the following is the ex-dividend date? A) Tuesday, October 28 B) Wednesday, October 29 C) Thursday, October 30 D) Wednesday, November 5 E) Thursday, November 6

Q: Which one of the following statements related to cash dividends is correct? A) Extra cash dividends cannot be repeated in the future. B) A dividend is never a liability of the issuer until it has been declared. C) If a firm has paid regular quarterly dividends for at least five consecutive years, it is legally obligated to continue doing so. D) Regular cash dividends reduce paid-in capital. E) The dividend yield expresses the annual dividend as a percentage of net income.

Q: Katlin Markets is debating between a levered and an unlevered capital structure. The all-equity capital structure would consist of 60,000 shares of stock. The debt and equity option would consist of 45,000 shares of stock plus $250,000 of debt with an interest rate of 7.25 percent. What is the break-even level of earnings before interest and taxes between these two options? Ignore taxes. A) $50,500 B) $68,200 C) $81,400 D) $66,667 E) $72,500

Q: The Bankruptcy Abuse Prevention and Consumer Protection Act of 2005: A) permits creditors to file a prepack immediately after a firm files for bankruptcy protection. B) prevents creditors from submitting any reorganization plans. C) prevents companies from filing for bankruptcy protection more than once. D) permits key employee retention plans only if the affected employee(s) has another job offer. E) allows the payment of bonuses to all key employees to entice those employees to remain in the company's employ.

Q: Which one of these statements related to Chapter 11 bankruptcy is correct? A) Prepacks apply only to Chapter 7, not Chapter 11, bankruptcies. B) Senior management must be replaced prior to exiting a Chapter 11 bankruptcy. C) A company can only file for Chapter 11 after it becomes totally insolvent. D) Companies sometimes file for Chapter 11 in an attempt to gain a competitive advantage. E) Chapter 11 involves the total liquidation of the bankrupt firm.

Q: Which one of the following will generally have the highest priority when assets are distributed in a bankruptcy proceeding? A) Consumer claims B) Dividend payment to preferred shareholders C) Company contribution to the employees' retirement account D) Payment to an unsecured creditor E) Payment of employees' wages

Q: Which one of the following statements related to Chapter 7 bankruptcy is correct? A) A company in Chapter 7 bankruptcy is reorganizing its operations such that it can return to being a viable concern. B) Under a Chapter 7 bankruptcy, a trustee will assume control of the company's assets until those assets can be liquidated. C) Chapter 7 bankruptcies are always involuntary on the part of the firm. D) Under a Chapter 7 bankruptcy, the claims of creditors are paid prior to the administrative costs of the bankruptcy. E) Chapter 7 bankruptcy allows a firm to restructure its equity such that new shares of stock can be issued.

Q: A company is technically insolvent when: A) it has a negative book value. B) its total debt exceeds its total equity. C) it is unable to meet its financial obligations. D) it files for bankruptcy protection. E) the market value of its stock is less than its book value.

Q: Bankruptcy: A) occurs when total equity is negative. B) is a legal proceeding. C) occurs when a company cannot meet its financial obligations. D) refers to a loss of value for debt holders. E) is an inexpensive means of reorganizing a company.

Q: The absolute priority rule determines: A) when a firm must be declared officially bankrupt. B) how a distressed firm is reorganized. C) which judge is assigned to a particular bankruptcy case. D) how long a reorganized firm is allowed to remain under bankruptcy protection. E) which parties receive payment first in a bankruptcy proceeding.

Q: Under the Bankruptcy Abuse Prevention and Consumer Protection Act of 2005, how long after a company firm files for bankruptcy protection do creditors have to wait before submitting their own reorganization plan to the court? A) 60 days B) 45 days C) 180 days D) 12 months E) 18 months

Q: Which one of these actions generally occurs first in a bankruptcy reorganization? A) Filing proofs of claim B) Dividing creditors into classes C) Confirming the reorganization plan D) Distributing cash, property, and securities to creditors E) Submitting a reorganization plan

Q: Edwards Farm Products was unable to meet its financial obligations and was forced into using legal proceedings to restructure itself so that it could continue as a viable business. The process this company underwent is known as a: A) merger. B) repurchase program. C) liquidation. D) reorganization. E) divestiture.

Q: In general, the capital structures of U.S. firms: A) tend to overweigh debt in relation to equity. B) generally result in debt-equity ratios between .45 and .55. C) are fairly standard for all SIC codes. D) tend to exceed a debt-equity ratio of .45. E) vary significantly across industries.

Q: With the exception of a few industries, most corporations in the U.S. tend to: A) minimize taxes. B) underutilize debt. C) rely equally on debt and equity. D) have relatively similar debt-equity ratios across industry lines. E) rely more heavily on debt than on equity.

Q: Which one of the following is correct according to pecking-order theory? A) There is a direct relationship between a company's profits and its debt levels. B) Companies avoid external debt except as a last resort. C) A company's capital structure is independent of its need for external funding. D) Companies stockpile internally generated cash. E) Every company has an optimal capital structure.

Q: Which form of financing do companies prefer to use first according to the pecking-order theory? A) Regular debt B) Convertible debt C) Common stock D) Preferred stock E) Internal funds

Q: The optimal capital structure of a company: A) minimizes the company's tax payments. B) maximizes the value of that company's marketed claims. C) minimizes both the marketed and nonmarketed claims against that company. D) eliminates all nonmarketed claims against that company. E) equates the company's marketed and nonmarketed claims.

Q: Which one of the following is a marketed claim against the cash flows of a company? A) Tax payment to the IRS B) Dividend payment to shareholders C) Payment of employees' wages D) Payment for warranty work on a product produced by the company E) Payment of legal claim against the company

Q: The basic lesson of M&M theory is that the value of a company is dependent upon: A) the company's capital structure. B) the total cash flows of that company. C) minimizing the marketed claims. D) the amount of the company's marketed claims. E) size of the stockholders' claims.

Q: The static theory of capital structure advocates that the optimal capital structure for a company: A) is highly dependent upon a constant debt-equity ratio over time. B) remains fixed over time. C) is independent of the company's tax rate. D) is independent of the company's debt-equity ratio. E) equates marginal tax savings from additional debt to the marginal increased bankruptcy costs of that debt.

Q: The optimal capital structure: A) will be the same for all companies within the same industry. B) will remain constant over time unless the company changes its primary operations. C) will vary over time as taxes and market conditions change. D) places more emphasis on operations than on financing. E) is unaffected by changes in the financial markets.

Q: The capital structure that maximizes the value of a company also: A) minimizes financial distress costs. B) minimizes the cost of capital. C) maximizes the present value of the tax shield on debt. D) maximizes the value of the debt. E) maximizes the present value of the bankruptcy costs.

Q: Which one of the following provides the greatest tendency to increase the percentage of debt included in a company's optimal capital structure? A) Exceptionally high depreciation expenses B) Very low marginal tax rate C) Substantial tax shields from other sources D) Low probability of financial distress E) Minimal taxable income

Q: If a company has the optimal amount of debt, then the: A) direct financial distress costs must equal the present value of the interest tax shield. B) value of the levered company will exceed the value of the unlevered company. C) company has no financial distress costs. D) Value of the firm is equal to VL+ TCD. E) debt-equity ratio is equal to 1.

Q: The proposition that a company borrows up to the point where the marginal benefit of the interest tax shield derived from increased debt is just equal to the marginal expense of the resulting increase in financial distress costs is called: A) the static theory of capital structure. B) M&M Proposition I, with taxes. C) M&M Proposition II, with taxes. D) the pecking-order theory. E) the open markets theorem.

Q: The costs incurred by a business in an effort to avoid bankruptcy are classified as ________ costs. A) flotation B) direct bankruptcy C) indirect bankruptcy D) financial solvency E) capital structure

Q: Which one of the following is a direct cost of bankruptcy? A) Bypassing a positive NPV project to avoid additional debt B) Investing in cash reserves C) Maintaining a debt-equity ratio that is lower than the optimal ratio D) Losing a key company employee E) Paying an outside accountant to prepare bankruptcy reports

Q: The explicit costs, such as legal and administrative expenses, associated with corporate default are classified as ________ costs. A) flotation B) issue C) direct bankruptcy D) indirect bankruptcy E) unlevered

Q: The symbol "RU" refers to the cost of capital for a(n) ________ while "RA" represents the: A) privately owned entity; unlevered cost of capital. B) all-equity company; weighted average cost of capital. C) levered company; cost of capital for an all-equity company. D) levered company; weighted average cost of capital. E) unlevered company; average cost of equity.

Q: Based on M&M Proposition I with taxes, the weighted average cost of capital: A) is equal to the aftertax cost of debt. B) has a linear relationship with the cost of equity capital. C) is unaffected by the tax rate. D) decreases as the debt-equity ratio increases. E) is equal to RU(1 − TC).

Q: The interest tax shield is a key reason why: A) the required rate of return on assets rises when debt is added to the capital structure. B) the value of an unlevered company is equal to the value of a levered company. C) the net cost of debt is generally less than the cost of equity. D) the cost of debt is equal to the cost of equity for a levered company. E) companies prefer equity financing over debt financing.

Q: The present value of the interest tax shield is expressed as: A) TCD/RA. B) VU + TCD. C) TCDRA. D) [EBIT(TCD)]/RA. E) TCD.

Q: M&M Proposition II with taxes: A) has the same general implications as M&M Proposition II without taxes. B) states that capital structure is irrelevant to shareholders. C) supports the argument that business risk is determined by the capital structure decision. D) supports the argument that the cost of equity decreases as the debt-equity ratio increases. E) concludes that the capital structure decision is irrelevant to the value of a firm.

Q: M&M Proposition I with taxes is based on the concept that: A) the optimal capital structure is the one that is totally financed with equity. B) capital structure is irrelevant because investors and companies have differing tax rates. C) WACC is unaffected by a change in the company's capital structure. D) the value of a taxable company increases as the level of debt increases. E) the cost of equity increases as the debt-equity ratio increases.

Q: M&M Proposition I with tax implies that the: A) weighted average cost of capital decreases as the debt-equity ratio increases. B) value of a company is inversely related to the amount of leverage used by that company. C) value of an unlevered company equals the value of a levered company plus the value of the interest tax shield. D) cost of capital is the same regardless of the mix of debt and equity used. E) cost of equity increases as the debt-equity ratio decreases.

Q: Westover Mills reduced its taxes last year by $210 by increasing its interest expense by $1,000. Which one of the following terms is used to describe this tax savings? A) Interest tax shield B) Interest credit C) Homemade leverage shield D) Current tax yield E) Tax-loss interest

Q: M&M Proposition I with no tax supports the argument that: A) business risk has no effect on the return on assets. B) the cost of equity rises as leverage rises. C) a company's debt-equity ratio is completely irrelevant. D) business risk is irrelevant. E) homemade leverage is irrelevant.

Q: Which one of the following is the equity risk related to capital structure policy? A) Market risk B) Systematic risk C) Static risk D) Business risk E) Financial risk

Q: Which one of the following is the equity risk that is most related to the daily operations of a firm? A) Market risk B) Systematic risk C) Extrinsic risk D) Business risk E) Financial risk

Q: Which one of the following states that the cost of equity capital is directly and proportionally related to capital structure? A) Static theory of capital structure B) M&M Proposition I C) M&M Proposition II D) Homemade leverage E) Pecking-order theory

Q: Which one of the following states that the value of a company is unrelated to the company's capital structure? A) Homemade leverage B) M&M Proposition I, no tax C) M&M Proposition II, no tax D) Pecking-order theory E) Static theory of capital structure

Q: Financial risk is: A) the risk inherent in a company's operations. B) a type of unsystematic risk. C) inversely related to the cost of equity. D) dependent upon a company's capital structure. E) irrelevant to the value of a company.

Q: The business risk of a company: A) depends on the company's level of unsystematic risk. B) is inversely related to the required return on the company's assets. C) is dependent upon the relative weights of the debt and equity used to finance the company. D) has a positive relationship with the company's cost of equity. E) has no relationship with the required return on a company's assets according to M&M theory.

Q: M&M Proposition II, without taxes, is the proposition that: A) the capital structure of a company has no effect on that company's value. B) the cost of equity depends on the return on debt, the debt-equity ratio, and the tax rate. C) a company's cost of equity is a linear function with a slope equal to (RA− RD). D) the cost of equity is equivalent to the required rate of return on assets. E) the size of the pie does not depend on how the pie is sliced.

Q: Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to M&M Proposition II, without taxes? A) The cost of equity remains constant as the debt-equity ratio increases. B) The cost of equity is inversely related to the debt-equity ratio. C) The required return on assets is equal to the weighted average cost of capital. D) Financial risk determines the return on assets. E) Financial risk is unaffected by the debt-equity ratio.

Q: The concept of homemade leverage is most associated with: A) M&M Proposition I with no tax. B) M&M Proposition II with no tax. C) M&M Proposition I with tax. D) M&M Proposition II with tax. E) the static theory proposition.

Q: Homemade leverage is: A) the incurrence of debt by a corporation in order to pay dividends to shareholders. B) the exclusive use of debt to fund a corporate expansion project. C) the use of personal borrowing to alter an individual's exposure to financial leverage. D) best defined as an increase in a company's debt level. E) the term used to describe the capital structure of a levered firm.

Q: Which one of the following makes the capital structure of a company irrelevant? A) Taxes B) Interest tax shield C) 100 percent dividend payout ratio D) Debt-equity ratio that is greater than 0 but less than 1 E) Homemade leverage

Q: Jessica invested in QRT stock when the company was unlevered. Since then, QRT has changed its capital structure and now has a debt-equity ratio of .36. To unlever her position, Jessica needs to: A) borrow some money and purchase additional shares of QRT stock. B) maintain her current equity position as the debt of the firm does not affect her personally. C) sell 36 percent of her shares of QRT stock and hold the proceeds in cash. D) sell 36 percent of her shares of QRT stock and loan out the sale proceeds. E) create a personal debt-equity ratio of .36.

Q: Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the relationship between a levered and an unlevered capital structure? Ignore taxes. A) At the break-even point, there is no advantage to debt. B) The earnings per share will equal zero when EBIT is zero for a levered firm. C) The advantages of leverage are inversely related to the level of EBIT. D) The use of leverage at any level of EBIT increases the EPS. E) EPS are more sensitive to changes in EBIT when a firm is unlevered.

Q: You have computed the break-even point between a levered and an unlevered capital structure. Ignore taxes. At the break-even level, the: A) company is earning just enough to pay for the cost of the debt. B) company's earnings before interest and taxes are equal to zero. C) earnings per share for the levered option are exactly double those of the unlevered option. D) advantages of leverage exceed the disadvantages of leverage. E) company has a debt-equity ratio of .50.

Q: Assume you are reviewing a graph that plots earnings per share (EPS) against earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT). The steeper the slope of the plotted line the: A) lower the impact of financial leverage. B) lower the debt-equity ratio. C) higher the tax rate. D) greater the sensitivity of EPS to changes in EBIT. E) lower the probability of a negative EPS.

Q: The optimal capital structure has been achieved when the: A) debt-equity ratio is equal to 1. B) weight of equity is equal to the weight of debt. C) cost of equity is maximized given a pretax cost of debt. D) debt-equity ratio is such that the cost of debt exceeds the cost of equity. E) debt-equity ratio results in the lowest possible weighted average cost of capital.

Q: The value of a firm is maximized when the: A) cost of equity is maximized. B) tax rate equals the cost of capital. C) levered cost of capital is maximized. D) weighted average cost of capital is minimized. E) debt-equity ratio is minimized.

Q: A firm should select the capital structure that: A) produces the highest cost of capital. B) maximizes the value of the firm. C) minimizes taxes. D) is fully unlevered. E) equates the value of debt with the value of equity.

Q: Which one of these statements is correct? A) Capital structure has no effect on shareholder value. B) The optimal capital structure occurs when the cost of equity is minimized. C) The optimal capital structure maximizes shareholder value. D) Shareholder value is maximized when WACC is also maximized. E) Unlevered firms have more value than levered firms when firms are profitable.

Q: New Schools is an all-equity company with an expected EBIT of $94,000 every year forever. The company can borrow at 7.4 percent while its cost of equity is 13.9 percent. What will be the value of the company if it converts to 50 percent debt given its total tax rate of 24 percent? A) $500,916 B) $575,632 C) $477,407 D) $480,690 E) $532,408

Q: Bruce & Co. expects its EBIT to be $165,000 every year forever. The company currently has no debt but can borrow at 8.6 percent while its cost of equity is 14.7 percent. The tax rate is 21 percent. The company is planning to borrow $55,000 and use the loan proceeds to repurchase shares. What will be the WACC after recapitalization? A) 14.57 percent B) 15.07 percent C) 14.51 percent D) 14.11 percent E) 14.58 percent

Q: KN&J expects its EBIT to be $147,000 every year forever. The company currently has no debt but can borrow at 7.6 percent while its cost of equity is 14.6 percent. The tax rate is 21 percent. What will be the value of the company if it borrows $40,000 and uses the loan proceeds to repurchase shares? A) $654,452 B) $646,667 C) $803,811 D) $606,667 E) $681,588

Q: W.V. Trees has a debt-equity ratio of .64, a WACC of 10.8 percent, a pretax cost of debt of 7.9 percent, and a tax rate of 24 percent. What is the unlevered cost of equity capital? A) 11.92 percent B) 12.97 percent C) 13.08 percent D) 13.13 percent E) 13.45 percent

Q: SLG Corp. is an all-equity firm with a weighted average cost of capital of 10.02 percent. The current market value of the equity is $13.4 million and the total tax rate is 22 percent. What is EBIT? A) $1,966,667 B) $2,021,194 C) $1,721,385 D) $2,095,385 E) $1,943,182

Q: Wholesale Supply has earnings before interest and taxes of $148,600. Both the book and the market value of debt is $220,000. The unlevered cost of equity is 13.6 percent while the pretax cost of debt is 7.4 percent. The tax rate is 21 percent. What is the weighted average cost of capital? A) 11.94 percent B) 12.65 percent C) 12.91 percent D) 12.01 percent E) 12.27 percent

Q: Home Decor has a debt-equity ratio of .54. The cost of equity is 15.7 percent, the pretax cost of debt is 6.8 percent, and the tax rate is 22 percent. What will be the cost of equity if the debt-equity ratio is revised to .65? A) 16.89 percent B) 17.07 percent C) 14.70 percent D) 15.69 percent E) 16.44 percent

Q: KN Stitches has debt of $26,000, a leveraged value of $78,400, a pretax cost of debt of 7.05 percent, a cost of equity of 15.3 percent, and a tax rate of 21 percent. What is the weighted average cost of capital? A) 11.47 percent B) 12.12 percent C) 11.69 percent D) 12.07 percent E) 12.02 percent

Q: Jamison's has expected earnings before interest and taxes of $11,900. Its unlevered cost of capital is 12.8 percent and its tax rate is 21 percent. The company has debt with both a book and a face value of $12,500. This debt has a coupon rate of 7.6 percent and pays interest annually. What is the weighted average cost of capital? A) 12.48 percent B) 12.36 percent C) 12.87 percent D) 11.38 percent E) 12.09 percent

Q: D. L. Tuckers has $57,000 of debt outstanding that is selling at par and has a coupon rate of 7.15 percent. The tax rate is 21 percent. What is the present value of the tax shield? A) $11,647 B) $12,791 C) $13,106 D) $12,200 E) $11,970

Q: Georga's Restaurants has 7,000 bonds outstanding with a face value of $1,000 each, a market price of $982, and a coupon rate of 6.95 percent. The interest is paid semiannually. What is the amount of the annual interest tax shield if the tax rate is 23 percent? A) $111,895 B) $113,323 C) $107,750 D) $110,420 E) $113,006