Q&A Hero

Q: Which type of law covers practices in the areas of customs, immigration, and product safety? a. procedural law b. administrative law c. natural law d. criminal law

Q: Which of the following is NOT a dimension that can be used to measure prison crowding? a. living arrangements (i.e., single vs. double bunking) b. the length of confinement of inmates in cells c. the prison's fiscal budget d. the space available per inmate

Q: Bob consigned all of his stock holdings to the court as collateral against pretrial flight. What type of bail did he post? a. unsecured bond b. signature bond c. deposit bail d. property bond

Q: ________ is the philosophy of law. a. Mens rea b. The penal code c. Jurisprudence d. The M"Naghten rule

Q: Which level of prison security often has chain-link fences topped with barbed wire? a. supermax-security b. medium-security c. maximum-security d. minimum-security

Q: A document guaranteeing the appearance of a defendant in court as required and recording the pledge of money or property to be paid to the court if he or she does not appear is known as a(n) ________. a. bail bond b. unsecured bond c. property bond d. signature bond

Q: The main objective of a civil lawsuit is to ________. a. seek punishment b. gather evidence c. seek compensation d. solicit motive

Q: Which of the following refers to ultra-high-security prisons? a. U.S. penitentiaries b. administrative maximum c. federal correctional institutions d. federal prison camps

Q: Which of the following is an alternative to the cash bond system? a. pretrial release b. conditional release c. plea bargaining d. preliminary hearing

Q: Which type of law is also known as the "law on the books"? a. statutory law b. natural law c. procedural law d. administrative law

Q: Most states use a(n) ________ system to assign inmates to custody levels based on offense history, assessed dangerousness, perceived risk of escape, and other factors. a. random b. direct-supervision c. classification d. design-capacity

Q: Which of the following is NOT a reason for the dependent's first appearance before a judge? a. The defendant is afforded the opportunity for bail. b. The defendant is advised of his or her rights. c. The defendant is given formal notice of the charges. d. The defendant is given the opportunity to cross-examine witnesses.

Q: Which of the following is a procedural defense? a. diminished capacity b. involuntary intoxication c. double jeopardy d. mental incompetence

Q: ________ and ________ are nearly tied as the second most common type of offenses for which inmates were sentenced to state prisons. a. Violent crimes, drug crimes b. Drug crimes, gang shootings c. Violent crimes, property crimes d. Property crimes, drug crimes

Q: How many states have intermediate appellate courts? a. 39 b. 19 c. 15 d. 50

Q: Which of the following is an excuse defense? a. consent b. duress c. necessity d. double jeopardy

Q: Which of the following is NOT a historical factor that contributed to today's high rate of imprisonment? a. an all out campaign for legalization of gun ownership and use of illicit drugs b. the increased use of punishments, including mandated prison terms, for drug-related felonies c. the elimination of good-time prison credits, resulting in longer prison stays for most offenders d. the two- and three-strikes legislation, mandating lengthy or life sentences for repeat offenders

Q: Which of the following provides the first appellate level for courts of limited jurisdiction? a. courts of last resort b. trial courts of general jurisdiction c. intermediate appellate courts d. district courts

Q: A woman is accused of murdering her brother. She claims that she stabbed her brother to release the evil spirits within his body. The excuse defense that would most likely be used at her trial is ________. a. duress b. insanity c. coercion d. provocation

Q: Which state has the lowest rate of imprisonment? a. Maine b. Rhode Island c. New Hampshire d. North Dakota

Q: All of the following EXCEPT which are names used in place of "trial court of general jurisdiction"? a. appellate court b. high court c. circuit court d. superior court

Q: Which of the following elements of crime means "guilty mind"? a. actus reus b. mens rea c. corpus delicti d. stare decisis

Q: Operational capacity is ________. a. the size of the inmate population that a facility can handle according to the judgment of experts b. the inmate population that the institution was originally built to handle c. the number of inmates a prison can effectively accommodate based on management considerations d. the number of program opportunities an institution can effectively make available to inmates

Q: Which of the following is NOT part of the structure developed by states that follow the federal court model? a. trial courts of limited jurisdiction b. special-purpose courts c. trial courts of general jurisdiction d. appellate courts

Q: Tax laws, building codes, and health codes are examples of what type of law? a. criminal law b. procedural law c. administrative law d. natural law

Q: Medium- and low-security facilities in the federal prison system are called ________. a. federal penitentiaries b. U.S. penitentiaries c. federal prison camps d. federal correctional institutions

Q: As state court systems developed, which of the following court models was copied by most states? a. Federal Judiciary Act of 1789 b. Magistrate's Act of 1968 c. Federal Reorganization Act of 1801 d. New York State Field Code of 1848

Q: Which of the following refers to improper or illegal inducement to crime by enforcement agents? a. police fraud b. entrapment c. collateral estoppel d. prosecutorial misconduct

Q: High-security facilities in the federal prison system are called ________. a. U.S. penitentiaries b. federal correctional institutions c. honor type camps d. federal prison camps

Q: Which of the following refers to the lawful authority of a court to hear or to act on a case from its beginning and to pass judgment on the law and the facts? a. appellate jurisdiction b. overlapping jurisdiction c. original jurisdiction d. limited jurisdiction

Q: Which of the following is NOT an example of procedural defense? a. police fraud b. prosecutorial misconduct c. double jeopardy d. eyewitness identification

Q: How many institutions are there in the federal prison system? a. 209 b. 103 c. 50 d. 75

Q: Which of the following is NOT an alternative to bail? a. nolo contendere b. conditional release c. release on recognizance d. third-party custody

Q: Murder, rape, and robbery all fall under what branch of modern law? a. substantive criminal law b. common law c. administrative law d. procedural criminal law

Q: Which term refers to the size of the inmate population a facility can handle according to the judgment of experts? a. design capacity b. operational capacity c. rated capacity d. prison capacity

Q: Which of the following cases is an example where the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the use of antipsychotic drugs on a nonviolent offender who does not represent a danger while institutionalized must be in the defendant's best medical interest? a. U.S. v. Hazzar b. Sell v.U.S. c. Marbury v. Madison d. Herrera v.Collins

Q: Which of the following falls under the category of justification? a. consent b. duress c. insanity d. mistake

Q: Which state became the first in modern times to reinstitute the use of the prison chain gang? a. Maine b. Illinois c. Alabama d. California

Q: One purpose of ________ is to help ensure the reappearance of the accused at trial. a. bail b. adjudication c. plea d. arraignment

Q: Which of the following terms mean "guilty act"? a. collateral estoppel b. mens rea c. corpus delicti d. actus reus

Q: The majority of this country's jail inmates are ________. a. juveniles b. senior citizens c. women d. members of minority groups

Q: Bob's wallet was stolen while eating lunch at the university cafeteria. When the man who stole his wallet was caught, Bob opted to resolve the case informally at a ________. a. community court b. criminal justice center c. dispute-resolution center d. deferral court

Q: Which of the following terms refers to gathering, transmitting, or losing information related to the national defense in such a manner that the information becomes available to enemies of the United States? a. treason b. inchoate c. conspiracies d. espionage

Q: When did many states adopt Objective Prison Classification Systems? a.1950s b. 1980s c. 1920s d. 1990s

Q: In which U.S. Supreme Court case was the Court's authority as the final interpreter of the U.S. Constitution established? a. Sell v.U.S b. U.S. v. Hazzard c. U.S v.Montalvo-Murillo d. Marbury v. Madison

Q: In its written form, the criminal law is also known as ________. a. administrative law b. civil law c. substantive law d. penal law

Q: According to the Bureau of Justice Statistics, an African American male living in America today has approximately a ________ lifetime chance of going to prison, a. 57% b. 24% c. 6% d. 32%

Q: How many regional courts of appeal are there in the United States? a. 12 b. 6 c. 10 d. 60

Q: Our legal system generally recognizes all of the following broad categories of defenses except ________. a. excuses b. justifications c. opportunity d. alibis

Q: The ________ is the most secure prison ever built by the federal government. a. FCC at Allenwood, Pennsylvania b. ADMAX at Florence, Colorado c. California City Correctional Center d. CCM at Washington, D.C.

Q: McNabb v. U.S. formally established that a defendant has to appear at a first appearance within how many hours after arrest? a. 72 b. 12 c. 48 d. 24

Q: Which of the following is NOT an element of crime? a. concurrence of act and intent b. motive for the crime c. criminal act d. culpable mental state

Q: Which of the following Supreme Court cases held that correctional officers employed by a private firm are not entitled to qualified immunity from suits by prisoners? a. Brown v. Plata b. Rhodes v. Chapman c. Richardson v. McKnight d. Johnson v.California

Q: A formal written accusation submitted to a court by a prosecutor, alleging that a specified person has committed a specified offense, is known as a(n) ________. a. arraignment b. plea c. bail d. information

Q: Which of the following would NOT be categorized as a felony? a. murder b. petty theft c. rape d. robbery

Q: Jails that are built and run using the combined resources of a variety of local jurisdictions are called ________. a. direct-supervision jails b. county jails c. regional jails d. jail boot camps

Q: There are ________ federal judicial districts. a. 64 b. 14 c. 94 d. 18

Q: Which of the following violations is NOT a misdemeanor? a. disturbing the peace b. being disorderly in public c. simple assault d. robbery

Q: The largest growth group in jails nationwide is ________. a. minorities b. juveniles c. females d. males

Q: At which stage of the hearing are defendants brought before a judge to possibly be afforded the opportunity for bail? a. preliminary hearing b. pretrial release c. grand jury hearing d. first appearance

Q: Which part of the law specifies the methods to be used in enforcing substantive law? a. civil law b. procedural law c. administrative law d. common law

Q: How many security levels are there in the federal prison system according to the Bureau of Prisons classification? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

Q: A formal written accusation submitted to the court by a grand jury, alleging that a specified person has committed a specified offense, usually a felony, is known as an ________. a. indictment b. assessment c. arraignment d. enforcement

Q: Which type of law refers to the body of regulations that the government creates to control the activities of industries, businesses, and individuals? a. criminal law b. administrative law c. case law d. procedural law

Q: Today, a typical American prison is ____________. a. an ADMAX prison b. minimum or medium custody c. private d. maximum custody

Q: On appeal, when a trial court of general jurisdiction offers a new trial instead of the review of the lower court's decision, it is giving a ________. a. trial de novo b. jury trial c. adversarial trial d. constitutional trial

Q: What is the maxim that an orderly society must be governed by established principles known as? a. rule of law b. inchoate c. body of crime d. common law

Q: All death-row inmates are held in ________ prisons. a. medium-security b. federal c. minimum-security d. maximum-security

Q: Which Supreme Court case held that new evidence of innocence is no reason to order a new state trial when constitutional grounds are lacking? a. McNabb v.U.S. b. Marbury v. Madison c. Keeney v. Tamayo-Reyes d. Herrera v. Collins

Q: Which of the following refers to a traditional body of unwritten historical precedents created from everyday social customs, rules, and practices? a. common law b. statutory law c. law of the land d. case law

Q: Most people sentenced to federal prisons have been convicted of ________ crimes. a. white-collar b. drug c. violent d. property

Q: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the U.S. Supreme Court? a. The U.S. Supreme Court justices serve for eight years. b. The U.S. Supreme Court is the highest federal court. c. The U.S. Supreme Court consists of nine justices. d. The U.S. Supreme Court wields immense power.

Q: The assumption that criminal acts injure not just individuals, but society as a whole is fundamental to which of the following laws? a. criminal law b. administrative law c. civil law d. procedural law

Q: ________ incapacitation seeks to identify the most dangerous criminals. a. Focused b. Collective c. Massive d. Selective

Q: Courts that have the authority to review a decision made by a lower court are said to have ________. a. appellate jurisdiction b. original jurisdiction c. limited jurisdiction d. special jurisdiction

Q: Corpus delictiliterally means "the body of the crime."

Q: ________ incapacitation is a strategy that would imprison almost all serious offenders. a. Collective b. Indeterminate c. Massive d. Selective

Q: High-level appellate courts are also referred to as ________. a. courts of last resort b. intermediate appellate courts c. trial courts of general jurisdiction d. trial courts of limited jurisdiction

Q: Actus reus means "guilty act."

Q: ________ capacity is the number of inmates that a facility can effectively accommodate based on an appraisal of the institution's staff, programs, and services. a. Design b. Operational c. Rated d. Prison