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Law
Q:
Which of the following cases emphasizes the totality of circumstances approach?
a. U.S. v. Leon
b. Mapp v. Ohio
c. Brown v. Mississippi
d. Illinois v. Gates
Q:
The clearance rate of any crime refers to the proportion of reported crimes that have been solved.
Q:
Stress levels for probation and parole officers have gone up, in part, due to the increasingly serious offenses of offenders sentenced to probation and released on parole.
Q:
The applicability of constitutional rights to all citizens, regardless of state law or procedure is guaranteed by the ________ Amendment.
a. Fourteenth
b. Eighth
c. Sixth
d. Fourth
Q:
Most UCR/NIBRS information is reported as a rate of crime.
Q:
Nationwide, approximately 96% of parolees successfully complete parole.
Q:
What legal concept provides the basis of suspicion less searches when public safety is at issue?
a. fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
b. reasonable suspicion
c. probable cause
d. compelling interest
Q:
Men are more likely to be victims of crime than women.
Q:
In California v. Carney (1985), the Court extended police authority to conduct warrantless searches of vehicles to include ________.
a. bicycles
b. motor homes
c. motorcycles
d. airplanes
Q:
Property crimes typically have lower clearance rates than personal/violent crimes.
Q:
Comment on the history of victims' rights and the related attempts to encourage victims to participate in the sentencing portion of the criminal case. Analyze the role the victim plays in the criminal justice proceedings today. Explain the differences in the state system as opposed to the federal system when it comes to victims' rights.
Q:
In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court recognize the need for emergency searches without a warrant?
a. Arkansas v. Sanders
b. Mincey v. Arizona
c. Maryland v. Buie
d. Warden v. Hayden
Q:
The federal fetal homicide statute passed in 2004 prohibits the prosecution of abortionists who are acting with the consent of the pregnant woman.
Q:
Analyze and comment on the pros and cons of capital punishment. What are your thoughts on implementation of the death penaltyare you for or against it, and why? Define the role of the writ of habeas corpus. List several of the justifications and oppositions to the death penalty.
Q:
An officer knocks on the door of a suspected drug dealer, who invites the officer into the house. While in the kitchen, the officer notices a marijuana plant on the windowsill. The officer may legally seize the plant under the ________ doctrine.
a. emergency search of property
b. good-faith
c. plain-view
d. emergency search of a person
Q:
Online file-sharing services may be held liable for copyright infringement if they promote their services explicitly as a way for users to download copyrighted music and other content.
Q:
Explain the role of plea bargaining in the Federal Court System. What conditions did the Sentencing Commission place on plea bargaining?
Q:
Police officers are not allowed to randomly stop citizens for questioning when they don"t suspect them of breaking the law. This rule was established in ________.
a. Arizona v. Hicks
b. Brown v. Texas
c. U.S. v. Irizarry
d. Horton v. California
Q:
Spam is the result of malicious computer programs such as viruses, worms, and Trojan horses.
Q:
Describe the presentence investigation process. Explain who conducts the investigation and why is it done. Also, who orders the investigation and what is done with the completed report? Be specific in your answer, using examples when necessary.
Q:
Which of the following Supreme Court cases is concerned with search incident to lawful arrest?
a. Maryland v. Garrison
b. Illinois v. Krull
c. U.S. v. Robinson
d. U.S. v. Irizarry
Q:
The Federal Bureau of Investigation runs the Uniform Crime Reporting Program.
Q:
List and describe at least three typical aggravating and mitigating circumstances judges may consider in arriving at sentencing decisions in presumptive sentencing jurisdictions. Compare the pros and cons for each circumstance.
Q:
In Wells, the Court held that ________ authorizing the search of a vehicle for inventorying purposes were necessary before such a discovery could be legitimate.
a. comprehensive criteria
b. reasonable parameters
c. fair yardsticks
d. standardized criteria
Q:
What does justice mean to you? Discuss the three types of justice and their effect on individual rights to support your answer.
Q:
List and define three of the five goals of criminal sentencing. Which of these goals do you believe is the most effective in dealing with defendants?
Q:
In which of the following cases did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that the suspect of a robbery could not be ordered to undergo surgery because such a magnitude of intrusion into his body was unacceptable under the right to privacy guaranteed by the Fourth Amendment?
a. Olmstead v. U.S.
b. U.S. v. Montoya de Hernandez
c. Hayes v. Florida
d. Winston v. Lee
Q:
Analyze and comment on what is meant by due process of law to you. Support your opinions with facts and data.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of fines?
a. The impact of a fine depends on the ability of the sentenced person to pay.
b. Fines can promote rehabilitation by enforcing economic responsibility
c. Fines can be collected by existing criminal justice agencies and are relatively inexpensive to administer.
d. Fines can be made proportionate to both the severity of the offense and the ability of the offender to pay.
Q:
In the case of U.S. v. Sokolow, the Supreme Court ruled that the legitimacy of stopping and detaining the suspect for investigative purposes when there is probable cause lacking, must be according to ________ criterion.
a. certainty
b. totality of circumstances
c. probable cause
d. best guess
Q:
Compare and contrast the consensus and conflict models found in the criminal justice system.
Q:
Which of the following cases essentially says that requiring sentencing judges to consider facts not proven to a jury violates the Constitution?
a. Apprendi v.New Jersey
b. Elledge v.Florida
c. Rita v.U.S.
d. Gall v.U.S.
Q:
________ is a belief, based on a consideration of the facts at hand and on reasonable inferences drawn from those facts that would induce an ordinarily prudent and cautious person under the same circumstances to conclude that criminal activity is taking place or that criminal activity has recently occurred.
a. The good faith exception
b. Probable cause
c. Reasonable suspicion
d. Plain view
Q:
List and explain the four steps in the pretrial activities.
Q:
In ________ the U.S. Supreme Court recognized that evolving standards of decency might necessitate a reconsideration of whether the death penalty violated the Eighth Amendment.
a. Woodson v.North Carolina
b. Furman v. Georgia
c. Coker v.Georgia
d. Schriro v.Summerlin
Q:
In which of the following cases was it established that an officer must have an arrest warrant to enter a suspect's private residence, unless the suspect gives consent or there are some emergency circumstances?
a. Stansbury v. California
b. Ashcraft v. Tennessee
c. U.S. v. Mendenhall
d. Payton v. New York
Q:
Compare and contrast the four main components of the pre-trial part of the criminal justice system.
Q:
What method of execution is used in most death-penalty states?
a. firing squad
b. hanging
c. electrocution
d. lethal injection
Q:
Which of the following Supreme Court cases set the "free to leave" test?
a. Mapp v. Ohio
b. U.S. v. Mendenhall
c. Chimel v. California
d. Illinois v. Perkins
Q:
Compare and contrast the three main components of the criminal justice system.
Q:
About how many offenses are punishable by death under federal laws?
a. 100
b. 60
c. 30
d. 20
Q:
The plain-view doctrine was set out in ________.
a. U.S. v. Robinson
b. Terry v. Ohio
c. Harris v. U.S.
d. Carroll v. U.S.
Q:
Define multiculturalism and discuss the importance of multiculturalism in the criminal justice process.
Q:
Which of the following refers to the act of taking revenge on a criminal perpetrator?a. adjudicationb. retributionc. probationd. incapacitation
Q:
In 2005, ________ was appointed Chief Justice of the U.S. Supreme Court.
a. William Rehnquist
b. Earl Warren
c. John G. Roberts
d. Warren Burger
Q:
________ refers to crime-fighting strategies that have been scientifically tested and are based on social science research.
a. Consensus model
b. Social justice
c. Social control
d. Evidence-based practice
Q:
According to the latest statistics, what percentage of death-row inmates in the United States are male?
a. 88%
b. 78%
c. 67%
d. 98%
Q:
Which of the following Supreme Court cases determined that "inadvertence" is no longer a necessary condition to ensure the legitimacy of seizure under the plain-view doctrine?
a. Illinois v. Krull
b. Maryland v. Garrison
c. Horton v. California
d. Chimel v. California
Q:
Which statement does NOT correspond to early criminal justice education?
a. It was a kind of extension of on-the-job training for working practitioners.
b. It encouraged scientific research into the operation of the criminal justice system.
c. It focused on the application of general management principles to the administration of police agencies.
d. It came to be seen as a practical field of study concerned largely with issues of organizational effectiveness.
Q:
The Supreme Court case of Wilkerson v. Utah deals with what form of execution?
a. firing squad
b. electrocution
c. lethal injection
d. hanging
Q:
Which 1987 Supreme Court case supported the use of evidence obtained with a search warrant that was inaccurate in its specifics?
a. Miranda v. Arizona
b. Aguilar v. Texas
c. Chimel v. California
d. Maryland v. Garrison
Q:
Multiculturalism is usually linked with what other term?
a. conformity
b. morality
c. diversity
d. nobility
Q:
The Supreme Court case of In re Kemmler deals with what form of execution?
a. electrocution
b. firing squad
c. hanging
d. lethal injection
Q:
Which of the following Supreme Court cases diminished the scope of the exclusionary rule?
a. Hayes v. Florida
b. Illinois v. Rodriguez
c. Aguilar v. Texas
d. Miranda v. Arizona
Q:
________ describes a society that is home to a multitude of different cultures.
a. Postmodernism
b. Multiculturalism
c. Polygamy
d. Professionalism
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a right under the Crime Victims' Rights Act to the victims of federal crimes?
a. The right to be reasonably protected from the accused.
b. The right to proceedings free from unreasonable delay.
c. The right to confer with the federal prosecutor handling the case.
d. The right to appeal any state or federal grant of clemency.
Q:
Probable cause is ________.
a. a precedent-setting term concerned with the use of undercover operations
b. a police procedural issue concerned with the use of deadly force
c. a legal explanation for the use of interrogation as a means to elicit a confession
d. a set of facts that cause a reasonable person to believe that a person committed a specific crime
Q:
Who created a cabinet-level "drug czar" position to coordinate the "war on drugs"?
a. Supreme Court Justice Sandra Day O"Connor
b. President Ronald Reagan
c. Supreme Court Justice Clarence Thomas
d. President George H. W. Bush
Q:
A defendant having no record of criminal convictions punishable by more than 60 days of imprisonment is an example of ________.
a. truth in sentencing
b. aggravating circumstances
c. mitigating circumstances
d. advisory sentencing
Q:
In which of the following cases did the U.S. Supreme Court extend the protection against warrantless searches to overnight guests residing in the home of another?
a. Brady v. U.S.
b. Minnesota v. Olson
c. Miranda v. Arizona
d. U.S. v. Leon
Q:
Which of the following acts was enacted in response to the terrorist attacks on the World Trade Center and the Pentagon on September 11, 2001?
a. United States Terrorism Act of 2001
b. USA PATRIOT Act of 2001
c. Armed Forces Act of 2001
d. Civil Defense Act of 2001
Q:
Which sentencing principle holds that the severity of sanctions should bear a direct relationship to the seriousness of the crime committed?
a. equity
b. proportionality
c. social debt
d. deterrence
Q:
A(n) ________ warrant is issued based on probable cause to believe that evidence of a crime, while not currently at the place described, will likely be there when the warrant is executed.
a. plain-view
b. anticipatory
c. latent
d. electronic
Q:
Which Supreme Court era is remembered for its concern with protecting the innocent against massive power of the state in criminal proceedings?
a. Warren Court
b. Roberts Court
c. Burger Court
d. Rehnquist Court
Q:
Which of the following sentencing principles objectively holds that an offender's criminal history should be taken into account in sentencing decisions?
a. equity
b. proportionality
c. social debt
d. good time
Q:
Silverthorne Lumber Co. v. U.S. is responsible for describing what principle of Fourth Amendment processes?
a. public-safety exception
b. exclusionary rule
c. fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
d. good-faith exception
Q:
One purpose of ________ is to provide an opportunity for bail.
a. an arrest
b. the preliminary hearing
c. a first appearance
d. an indictment
Q:
The U.S. Supreme Court case of McCleskey v. Kemp deals with the issue of ________ in capital crimes.
a. unguided discretion
b. racial discrepancies
c. death sentencing rates
d. death-qualified juries
Q:
Which U.S. Supreme Court case made the exclusionary rule applicable to seizures by federal officers?
a. Weeks v. U.S.
b. Johnson v. Avery
c. Powell v. Alabama
d. Chimel v. California
Q:
Which model of criminal justice assumes that the efforts of the component parts of the system are fragmented, leading to a criminal justice nonsystem?
a. due-process model
b. consensus model
c. crime-control model
d. conflict model
Q:
Opportunities for federal appeals by death-row inmates were further limited by the ________ Act
a. Victim and Witness Protection
b. Victims of Crime
c. Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement
d. Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty
Q:
Which of the following is NOT one of the major areas of due-process requirements of relevance to the police?
a. evidence and investigation
b. incarceration
c. arrest
d. interrogation
Q:
Criminal justice refers to the aspects of ________ ________ that concern violations of criminal law.
a. social justice
b. civil justice
c. corporate justice
d. administrative justice
Q:
Which of the following Supreme Court cases limited the number of appeals a condemned person may lodge with the courts?
a. Gregg v. Georgia
b. McCleskey v. Zant
c. Furman v. Georgia
d. Coleman v. Thompson
Q:
Jake and Mary are married and own their home. The police come to the house and ask for permission to search the house for drugs. Jake gives his consent to the search, but Mary says no because she has hidden some drugs in the kitchen. The police come in and search, over Mary's objection, since Jake said it was okay. They find Mary's drugs. Which of the following is legally correct in the ensuing trial?
a. The drugs can be used at Mary's trial because the police had Jake's consent to search the house.
b. The drugs can be used at Mary's trial because the exclusionary rule does not apply in drug cases.
c. The drugs cannot be used at Mary's trial because the police violated the plain-view doctrine.
d. The drugs cannot be used at Mary's trial because she did not consent to the search.
Q:
Which stage of the criminal justice process is an adversarial process that pits the prosecution against the defense?
a. arrest
b. investigation
c. trial
d. corrections
Q:
________ is known as the suspension of criminal proceedings before sentencing and referral to a private agency.
a. Diversion
b. Presentence investigation
c. Long form
d. Short form
Q:
An officer's authority to detain occupants of a dwelling incident to the execution of a valid search warrant is ________.
a. limited to a pat down
b. as broad as the warrant allows
c. absolute and unqualified
d. limited by the Sixth Amendment
Q:
In the criminal justice process, a(n) ________ has to occur before a(n) ________ can take place.
a. arrest; booking
b. appearance; investigation
c. sentence; trial
d. warrant; arraignment
Q:
A 2000 study by Columbia Law School professors James S. Liebman, Jeffrey Fagan, and Simon H. Rifkind examined 4,578 death-penalty cases in state and federal courts from 1973 to 1995.