Q&A Hero

Q: The U.S. Supreme Court approved a two-step trial procedure in the case of Gregg v. Georgia pertaining to ________. a. death penalty cases b. felonies c. alternative sentencing d. writs of habeas corpus

Q: ________ cases produce substantial changes both in the understanding of the requirements of due process and in the practical day-to-day operations of the justice system. a. Sensational b. Landmark c. Crucial d. Celebrated

Q: Which of the following terms means procedural fairness? a. case process b. due process c. justice process d. adversarial process

Q: Adjudicatory hearings for juveniles are similar to adult trials, with some notable exceptions. List and define three of those differences and compare them to adult trials. Comment on your belief as to the most important of these differences that benefit juveniles.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a form of structured sentencing? a. presumptive b. determinate c. quasi-independent d. voluntary/advisory

Q: During which Supreme Court Justice's tenure did the rights of individuals expand dramatically? a. Warren Burger b. Earl Warren c. John Ashcroft d. William Rehnquist

Q: Bernard Madoff's operation of a Ponzi scheme is an example of ________. a. white-collar crime b. terrorist attack c. grand theft d. felonious assault

Q: Bullying in our school systems has become a national problem. The author lists a number of possible warning signs that a child is being bullied. List and comment on these signs. Explain your opinions on how to prevent bullying and what to do upon discovery that it is happening.

Q: Recommended sentencing policies that are not required by law are known as ________. a. voluntary sentencing guidelines b. presumptive sentencing c. determinate sentencing d. indeterminate sentencing

Q: The U.S. Supreme Court decided in Illinois v. Perkins that ________. a. the police must obtain a warrant to secure a wiretap b. inmates freely talking about their crimes to an undercover officer posing as an inmate are not protected by Miranda c. spontaneous statements aren"t protected by Miranda d. defendants have the right to an attorney at a lineup

Q: An offender who has served a portion of a prison sentence may be freed on ________. a. probation b. bail c. correction d. parole

Q: The juvenile court movement was based on five philosophical principles. List and define three of those principles. Explain which of the principles is the most productive.

Q: Which Supreme Court case upheld the constitutionality of the federal sentencing guidelines? a. Coker v. Georgia b. Coleman v. Thompson c. Furman v. Georgia d. Mistretta v. U.S.

Q: In ________, the U.S. Supreme Court stated that considerations of public safety can be overriding and negate the need for rights advisement prior to limited questioning. a. Mapp v. Ohio b. Miranda v. Arizona c. Terry v. Ohio d. New York v. Quarles

Q: Which of the following advocates would support the interests of society over those of an individual? a. due-process advocate b. individual-rights advocates c. consensus model advocates d. public-order advocates

Q: The Office of Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention (OJJDP) has identified five significant developments that have taken place over the past decade with significant executive or legislative actions. List and define three of those five developments.

Q: Approximately what percentage of federal cases are the result of guilty pleas? a. 10% b. 50% c. 90% d. 20%

Q: Which amendment guarantees against self-incrimination? a. Fourth b. Eighth c. Fourteenth d. Fifth

Q: Due process includes all of the following basic elements, EXCEPT________. a. an opportunity to defend b. a trial according to established procedure c. a partial tribunal having jurisdictional authority d. an accusation in proper form

Q: According to a 2011 study, recent models for reform adopted by a number of states can be categorized into three groups according to the kinds of influences that have led to their development. Define and explain two of the three models. Choose the model that you believe works the best.

Q: Three-strikes laws require ________ sentencing. a. alternative b. indeterminate c. mandatory d. quasi-independent

Q: Which 1936 Supreme Court case addressed physical abuse as a means of obtaining a confession? a. Escobedo v. Illinois b. Miranda v. Arizona c. Brown v. Mississippi d. Ashcraft v. Tennessee

Q: Which of the following advocates would support the protection of personal freedoms and civil rights? a. crime-control advocates b. states'-rights advocates c. public-order advocates d. individual-rights advocates

Q: There are several important U.S. Supreme Court that had an impact on decisions relating to the treatment of juveniles. List three cases and analyze their impact had on the treatment of juveniles, both in and out of the courtroom. Comment on how each of these cases is relevant and important to the treatment of juveniles.

Q: Which of the following is a form of structured sentencing? a. indeterminate sentencing b. contemporary sentencing c. quasi-independent sentencing d. determinate sentencing

Q: Which famous 1966 U.S. Supreme Court case provided for the advisement of rights to criminal suspects prior to questioning? a. Chimel v. California b. Miranda v. Arizona c. Tennessee v. Garner d. Mapp v. Ohio

Q: At arraignment, the defendant cannot plead ________. a. not guilty b. guilty c. no trial d. no contest

Q: Compare and contrast the similarities and differences between juvenile and adult court proceedings.

Q: Under the indeterminate sentencing model, what is the primary determinant of the amount of time served? a. leniency of the judge b. inmate's behavior while incarcerated c. pressure from politicians d. leniency of the parole board

Q: Which Supreme Court ruling applied the principles developed in Weeks v. U.S. to trials in state courts? a. Illinois v. Gates b. Mapp v. Ohio c. U.S. v. Leon d. Horton v. California

Q: The American criminal justice process begins with ________. a. warrant b. indictment c. investigation d. arraignment

Q: Which is the strategy that the state of California in 2012 moved to implement, under which the state's counties are required to assume full responsibility for managing all of the state's juvenile offenders? a. reinvestment b. resolution c. realignment d. adjudication

Q: What goal of sentencing is sometimes referred to as the "lock "em up approach"? a. incapacitation b. rehabilitation c. retribution d. deterrence

Q: Which of the following is NOT a justification for emergency warrantless searches? a. danger of the removal or destruction of evidence b. danger to property c. danger to life d. danger of escape

Q: At the preliminary hearing, the judge will ________. a. decide whether the case should go to trial b. ask the defendant to enter a plea c. tell the suspects of the charges against them d. seek to determine whether there is probable cause

Q: What is parens patriae? a. a document filed in juvenile court alleging that a juvenile is a delinquent, a status offender, or a dependent and asking that the court assume jurisdiction over the juvenile or that an alleged delinquent be transferred to a criminal court for prosecution as an adult b. a common law principle that allows the state to assume a parental role and to take custody of a child when he or she becomes delinquent, is abandoned, or is in need of care that the natural parents are unable or unwilling to provide c. a child who commits an act that is contrary to the law by virtue of the offender's status as a child; purchasing cigarettes, buying alcohol, and being truant are examples of such behavior d. an act or conduct that is declared by statute to be an offense, but only when committed by or engaged in by a juvenile, and that can be adjudicated only by a juvenile court

Q: According to the NVCAP, which is the most comprehensive victims' bill of rights?a. Victim and Witness Protection Act of 1982b. Victims of Crime Act of 1984c. Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act of 1994d. Victims' Rights and Protection Act of 2008

Q: The 1984 U.S. Supreme Court case U.S. v. Leon established ________. a. warrantless searches b. the plain-view doctrine c. the good-faith exception d. the exclusionary rule

Q: Criminal justice involves all of the following elements, EXCEPT________. a. cultural beliefs of right and wrong b. violations of the criminal law c. protection of the innocent d. fair treatment of offenders

Q: A juvenile court disposition that imposes both a juvenile sanction and ________ is known as blended sentencing. a. confinement b. an adult criminal sentence c. peer review d. probation

Q: The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that ________ must decide the facts that lead to a death sentence. a. juries, not judges b. high courts c. appellate courts d. judges, not juries

Q: Which of the following is NOT an area of communication the ECPA deals specifically with? a. wiretaps and bugs b. pen registers that record the numbers dialed from a telephone c. tracing devices that determine the number from which a call emanates d. GPS tracking

Q: Which model emphasizes the efficient arrest and conviction of criminal offenders? a. due-process model b. crime-control model c. conflict model d. consensus model

Q: A juvenile confined in a private facility is likely to be ________. a. held for a violent offense b. a sex offender c. younger than 14 d. white

Q: The Innocence Protection Act of 2004 provides federal funds to help eliminate ________. a. the use of firing squads as a means of execution b. the writ of habeas corpus c. the backlog of unanalyzed DNA samples d. structured sentencing

Q: Which Supreme Court case has become the basis for "stop and frisk"? a. Brady v. U.S. b. Argersinger v. Hamlin c. Terry v. Ohio d. Miranda v. Arizona

Q: Which of the following terms is defined as an ideal that embraces all aspects of civilized life? a. criminal justice b. vigilante justice c. social justice d. civil justice

Q: Juvenile detention facilities tend to ________. a. have educational programs that are better than those on the outside b. provide very good health care c. be overcrowded d. have good to excellent security

Q: Which the following is the primary sentencing tool of the just deserts model? a. probation b. fine c. restitution d. imprisonment

Q: A legal principle that excludes from introduction at trial any evidence later developed as a result of an illegal search or seizure is called ________. a. good-faith exception b. compelling interest c. latent evidence d. fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine

Q: Which model emphasizes individual rights? a. conflict model b. crime-control model c. due-process model d. consensus model

Q: A high percentage of juvenile offenders who are held in confinement are ________. a. female b. charged with homicide c. male and African American d. status offenders

Q: ________ takes into account the financial resources of the offender. a. Probation b. Imprisonment c. A day fine d. A writ

Q: ________ holds that evidence of an offense that is collected or obtained by law enforcement officers in violation of a defendant's constitutional rights is inadmissible for use in a criminal prosecution in a court of law. a. Plain view b. Exclusionary rule c. Inherently coercive d. Probable cause

Q: In case of indictment, who hears evidence presented by the prosecutor and decides whether the case should go to trial? a. the judge b. the police officer c. the grand jury d. the prosecutor

Q: At the dispositional hearing, most judges decide not to ________ the juvenile. a. transfer b. question c. hear from d. confine

Q: Which of the following cases determined that the method of execution of an offender may not create a substantial risk of wanton and unnecessary infliction of pain, torture, or lingering death? a. Furman v. Georgia b. Baze v.Rees c. Gregg v. Georgia d. Atkins v.Virginia

Q: Which U.S. Supreme Court case was responsible for the creation of the exclusionary rule? a. Powell v. Alabama b. Weeks v. U.S. c. Chimel v. California d. Johnson v. Avery

Q: During arrest and before questioning, defendants are usually advised of their ________. a. civil rights b. individual rights c. political rights d. Miranda rights

Q: What is the final stage in a juvenile case? a. the petition b. intake c. adjudication d. dispositional hearing

Q: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of restorative justice? a. Pain is imposed to punish, deter, and prevent. b. Victims are central to the process of resolving a crime. c. The emphasis is on dialogue and negotiation. d. There is direct involvement by both the offender and the victim.

Q: Which of the following requires that incriminating evidence be seized by police according to the constitutional specifications of due process or it will not be allowed as evidence in court? a. seizure rule b. due process rule c. exclusionary rule d. procedural rule

Q: Which stage in the criminal justice process involves taking pictures and fingerprints of the suspect? a. arraignment b. booking c. hearing d. indictment

Q: Teen court is an alternative approach to juvenile justice in which alleged offenders are judged and/or sentenced by a ________. a. jury of teachers and social workers b. specially appointed judge c. jury of their peers d. juvenile court judge

Q: When a judge, prior to sentencing, reviews information on the background of a convicted defendant, it is called ________. a. a criminal history report b. postconviction evidence c. a presentence investigation d. judicial choice

Q: Which U.S. Supreme Court made the exclusionary rule applicable to criminal prosecutions at the state level? a. Rehnquist Court b. Burger Court c. Eisenhower Court d. Warren Court

Q: ________ is the scientific study of the causes and prevention of crime and the rehabilitation and punishment of offenders. a. Criminology b. Due process c. Psychology d. Criminal justice

Q: Bob is accused of stealing a car. His court case is handled informally, quickly, and in private. The court that heard Bob's case ________. a. was probably an adult court b. is most concerned with Bob's due-process rights c. was probably a juvenile court d. probably granted Bob a jury trial

Q: "Truth in sentencing" guarantees that offenders will serve at least ________ of their sentence. a. 65% b. 50% c. 85% d. 25%

Q: A writ of certiorari ________. a. asks the court to free somebody who has been wrongfully convicted b. is Latin for an affidavit c. allows officers to search a suspect's home d. allows appellate courts to review the record of a lower court case

Q: A(n) ________ issued by a judge provides the legal basis for an apprehension of suspects by police. a. warrant b. indictment c. arraignment d. hearing

Q: In the face of strong evidence of the offender's guilt, a juvenile court judge may ________. a. open the courtroom to the press and public b. sentence a juvenile to death c. waive the juvenile's Miranda rights d. still decide it is not in the child's best interest to be adjudicated delinquent

Q: ________ states eliminated the use of parole and created explicit standards to specify the amount of punishment appropriate for a given offense. a. Mandatory b. Indeterminate c. Presumptive d. Determinate

Q: Unreasonable searches and seizures are prohibited by the ________. a. Fourth Amendment b. equality statute c. protection clause d. Fifth Amendment

Q: Which model assumes that the system's subcomponents work together harmoniously to achieve the social product we call justice? a. consensus model b. crime-control model c. due-process model d. conflict model

Q: The fact-finding process wherein the juvenile court determines whether there is sufficient evidence to sustain the allegations in a petition is called (a)n ________ hearing. a. intake b. transfer c. dispositional d. adjudicatory

Q: Who is the final arbiter of the actual sentence served in a state that relies on an indeterminate sentencing scheme? a. the prosecutor b. the parole board c. the governor d. the judge

Q: When using phone taps, police must stop monitoring the call when it becomes obvious the conversation is innocent.

Q: Contemporary multiculturalism and social diversity draw attention to racial, ethnic, subcultural, generational, faith, economic, and gender lines.

Q: Transfer hearings are held in ________. a. appellate courts b. adult courts c. juvenile courts d. family group conferences