Q&A Hero

Q: Cooperating with the authorities, good character, and no prior record are examples of ________ circumstances. a. aggravating b. unforeseen c. compensatory d. mitigating

Q: The court recognized a suspect's right to have legal counsel present during interrogation in Escobedo v. Illinois.

Q: The first ten amendments of the United States Constitution are collectively known as the Bill of Rights.

Q: The first step in decision making in a case regarding a juvenile whose behavior is in violation of the law is known as ________. a. adjudication b. the disposition c. intake d. the arraignment

Q: A model of criminal punishment in which an offender is given a fixed term that may be reduced by good time or gain time is called ________ sentencing. a. indeterminate b. determinate c. quasi-independent d. mandatory

Q: In technical terms, an arrest occurs whenever a law enforcement officer restricts a person's freedom to leave.

Q: The tension between individual rights and social responsibility does NOT form the basis for policymaking activities in the criminal justice arena.

Q: One juvenile case in ________ involves detention before adjudication. a. fifteen b. fifty c. twenty d. five

Q: Proportionality holds that ________. a. the severity of sanctions should bear a direct relationship to the seriousness of the crime b. caseloads should be equally divided among the available judges c. similar crimes should be punished with the same degree of severity d. caseloads should be equally divided among the available prosecutors

Q: Warrantless searches of a vehicle are permitted if officers have probable cause to believe contraband is present.

Q: The adjudication period involves a variety of sentences that can be imposed on a defendant.

Q: In juvenile court, a juvenile petition is similar to a ________ in adult court. a. verdict b. criminal complaint c. warrant d. waiver

Q: A sentence of 8 to 25 years under the supervision of the state department of correction is an example of ________ sentencing. a. consecutive b. concurrent c. indeterminate d. structured

Q: Officers need to provide Miranda warnings only in situations involving both arrest and custodial interrogation.

Q: The systems model of criminal justice is an accurate representation of how the criminal justice system works.

Q: A reading of the Supreme Court's decision in New Jersey v. T.L.O. leads to the conclusion that a school employee's search of a student could be considered reasonable if it does all of the following, EXCEPT which? a. is preceded by a Miranda warning b. is based on a logical suspicion of rule-breaking actions; c. is required to maintain order, discipline, and safety among students d. does not exceed the scope of the original suspicion

Q: Which of the following refers to the goal of criminal sentencing that attempts to make the victim "whole again"? a. restoration b. incapacitation c. retribution d. deterrence

Q: In California v. Hodari D., the Court ruled that suspects who flee from officers and throw away evidence as they retreat may be arrested based on the nature of the abandoned evidence.

Q: Civil justice concerns itself with fairness in relationships among citizens, government agencies, and businesses in private matters.

Q: ________, in the broadest usage, is juvenile actions or conduct in violation of the criminal law, juvenile status offenses, and other juvenile misbehavior. a. Delinquency b. Abuse c. Disposition d. Intake

Q: ________ deterrence seeks to reduce the likelihood of recidivism by convicted offenders. a. Focused b. Specific c. General d. Primary

Q: In 2006 the USA PATRIOT Act was repealed.

Q: The dual goals of crime control and due process are often assumed to be opposing goals.

Q: Under Roman law, the ______ had absolute control over the child. a. state b. mother c. father d. courts

Q: ________ is the earliest known rationale for punishment. a. Retribution b. Incapacitation c. Rehabilitation d. Restoration

Q: In Illinois v. Caballes, the U.S. Supreme Court has held that the use of a drug-sniffing dog during a routine and lawful traffic stop is permissible and may not even be a search within the meaning of the Fourth Amendment.

Q: Criminology is the scientific study of the causes and prevention of crime and the rehabilitation and punishment of offenders.

Q: A common law principle that allows the state to assume a parental role and to take custody of a child when he or she is in need of care the natural parents are unwilling or unable to provide, is called ________. a. status offense b. stare decisis c. parens patriae d. In re Gault

Q: Which of the following sentencing goals is closely associated with the phrase "an eye for an eye"? a. incapacitation b. rehabilitation c. deterrence d. retribution

Q: Supreme Court rulings prohibit officers from searching arrestees of the opposite sex.

Q: Criminal justice is "truth in action" within the process of administration of justice.

Q: The child-savers movement of the nineteenth century produced the ________. a. teen court b. adjudicatory hearing c. reform school d. blended sentence

Q: Which of the following refers to the use of imprisonment or other means to reduce the likelihood that a particular offender will commit more crime? a. deterrence b. incapacitation c. retribution d. rehabilitation

Q: Officers are usually required to submit an affidavit demonstrating probable cause to a magistrate or prosecutor in order to obtain an arrest warrant.

Q: Individual-rights advocates primarily seek to protect personal freedoms and civil rights within the society, and especially within the criminal justice process.

Q: The 1967 Arizona case that granted juveniles many of the due process protections enjoyed by adults, including the right to counsel, was ________. a. In re Gault b. Breed v. Jones c. In re Winship d. Roper v. Simmons

Q: Which of the following is a just deserts perspective that emphasizes taking revenge on a criminal perpetrator or group of offenders? a. deterrence b. retribution c. restoration d. rehabilitation

Q: Police officers may enter a home to conduct a warrantless search even if one of the residents does not give permission.

Q: Public-order advocates support the interests of society over individual rights.

Q: Mary, a juvenile, breaks into Bob's apartment and steals his TV. Mary is a(n) _______ child. a. dependent b. neglected c. delinquent d. abused

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the goals of contemporary sentencing? a. incapacitation b. mitigation c. rehabilitation d. restoration

Q: Probable cause is the minimum standard necessary for an arrest under any circumstance.

Q: In the mid-1980s, the sale and use of illicit drugs was at an all-time low.

Q: A child who has not been receiving the proper level of physical or psychological care from his or her parents or guardians is a(n) ________. a. dependent child b. neglected child c. delinquent child d. undisciplined child

Q: Between 1967 and 1977, a de facto moratorium existed with no executions carried out in any U.S. jurisdiction.

Q: In Richards v. Wisconsin, the Supreme Court favored "no knock" entry when the police have a reasonable suspicion that knocking and announcing their presence would be dangerous or futile.

Q: In 2002, President George W. Bush signed the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, which intended to deter corporate fraud and to hold business executives accountable for their actions.

Q: Most states consider a child who is forced into delinquent behavior to be a(n) ________ child. a. neglected b. abused c. dependent d. undisciplined

Q: Inequities arise when offenders with vastly different financial resources are fined similar amounts.

Q: According to the verdict in U.S. v. Irizarry, the plain-view doctrine applies if officers move objects so they can see evidence otherwise hidden from view.

Q: During the 1960s and 1970s an emphasis on individual rights was accompanied by a dramatic decrease in reported criminal activity.

Q: One of the five philosophical principles that form the basis for the juvenile court movement states that ________ is the "higher or ultimate parent" of the child. a. the father of the child b. the church or religious establishment c. the legal guardian of the child d. the state

Q: Faced with prison overcrowding, high incarceration costs, and public calls for retribution, some judges have used shaming strategies to deter wrongdoers.

Q: In the 1960s, the U.S. Supreme Court accelerated the process of guaranteeing individual rights in the face of criminal prosecution.

Q: The crime epidemic of 1850"1880 was related to social upheaval caused by large-scale immigration and the Civil War.

Q: It is unclear whether juveniles ________. a. can waive their Miranda rights b. have a right to trial by jury under the U.S. Constitution c. have a right to counsel in juvenile court proceedings d. can be executed for a crime committed at age 16

Q: Most research has clearly demonstrated that the death penalty can deter potential offenders from committing crime.

Q: Evidence seized by police officers who are proceeding on a warrant but violate the knock-and-announce rule will be subject to the exclusionary rule.

Q: Evidence-based practice refers to crime-fighting strategies that have been scientifically tested and is based on social science research.

Q: If the first court in which a juvenile case appears is a juvenile court, the juvenile court is said to have ________ jurisdiction. a. concurrent b. original c. exclusive d. mandatory

Q: Information about a defendant's background often comes to the judge in the form of a presentence investigation (PSI) report.

Q: Harris v. U.S. sets out the plain-view doctrine.

Q: In some states, the prosecutor may seek to continue the case against a defendant by filing an information with the court.

Q: The youngest offenders are known as ________. a. undisciplined children b. child delinquents c. status offenders d. abused children

Q: In Mistretta v. U.S. the Supreme Court held federal sentencing guidelines unconstitutional and banned application in any federal cases until changes were made.

Q: Rights are concerned with procedure, that is, with how police and other actors in the criminal justice system handle each part of the process of dealing with suspects.

Q: The conflict model says that the interests of criminal justice agencies tend to make actors within the system self-serving.

Q: The federal Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 1974 requires states accepting federal funds for their juvenile justice systems to agree to separate juvenile prisoners from adult prisoners by "sight and sound" and to ________. a. grant juveniles the right to trial by jury b. establish teen courts c. deinstitutionalize status offenders d. abandon the doctrine of parens patriae

Q: Indeterminate sentencing is also sometimes called presumptive sentencing.

Q: The sole condition for an emergency warrantless search is a probable cause to believe that there is an emergency threat of destruction of evidence.

Q: The 18th Amendment, passed in 1919, prohibited the sale and purchase of intoxicating liquors. The 21st Amendment was ratified in 1933 and repealed the 18th Amendment (Prohibition). Does this show that the constitutional amendment process is dangerous and subject to capricious amendments based on flawed or opportunistic do- gooders?

Q: The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) was first proposed as an amendment to the United States Constitution in 1923 and was designed to guarantee equal rights for women. In 1972, it passed both houses of Congress and was sent to the state legislatures for ratification. The ERA was ratified by 35 states, but was unable to garner the mandatory three additional states by the deadline in 1982. Do you think that such an amendment would pass today? Why or why not?

Q: The 22nd Amendment restricts the length of presidency to two terms. The only president to serve more than two terms was Franklin Delano Roosevelt, who died shortly after beginning his fourth term in 1945. Present an argument that this constitutional amendment should be repealed. What counter argument to your position has the most validity?

Q: Explain the process by which the United States Constitution can be amended. Are there any flaws to this process, in your view? How would you correct such flaws?

Q: Of the Third, Seventh, Ninth, and Tenth Amendments to the Constitution, which do you feel is the most important? Why?

Q: The 10th Amendment was the only amendment agreed on by all the states recommending ________. a. a Bill of Rights.b. a Supremacy Clause. c. peace with England. d. Western expansion.

Q: Some members of the first Congress wanted the 10th amendment to limit the federal government powers just as the _________ had done.a. Declaration of Independence b. Articles of Confederationc. Mayflower Compact d. Federalist Papers

Q: The Necessary and Proper Clause is located in______of the United States Constitution. a. Article 1b. Article 3 c. Article 6 d. Article 8

Q: The Supremacy Clause is located in ________of the United States Constitution. a. Article 1b. Article 3 c. Article 6 d. Article 8

Q: The 10th Amendment refers to a. delegated powers.b. reserved powers.c. both delegated and reserved powers. d. federalism only.