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Q:
The ________ is an international organization created by a multilateral treaty in 1945 to promote social and economic cooperation among nations and to protect human rights.
A) United Nations (UN)
B) League of Nations
C) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
D) World Trade Organization (WTO)
Q:
What does the act of state doctrine assert?
Q:
Jewish jurisprudence is administered by the ________, which is a Jewish court consisting of rabbi-judges.
Q:
Laws and regulations that have been adopted by Catholic and other Christian ecclesiastical authorities that relate to internal laws that govern the church and its members are known as ________ law.
Q:
The ________ Act exclusively governs suits against foreign nations that are brought in federal or state courts in the United States.
Q:
Many international contracts contain a(n) ________ clause that designates which nation's court has jurisdiction to hear a case arising out of a dispute.
Q:
The ________ doctrine is based on the principle that a country has absolute authority over what transpires within its own territory. The doctrine states that judges of one country cannot question the validity of an act committed by another country within that other country's borders.
Q:
The Islamic law system is derived from the Qur'an, the ________ (decisions and sayings of the prophet Muhammad), and reasonings by Islamic scholars.
Q:
Classical Hindu law heavily rests on civil codes adopted during the reigns of different kings.
Q:
The Code of Canon Law of 1983 stipulates the code of conduct to be followed by all Christians around the world.
Q:
The canons of Christian faiths provide rules for believers to follow in living their lives and professing their faith.
Q:
The Islamic law of Shari'a encourages levying interest on loan payments.
Q:
The Beis Din is more a search for the truth than it is an adversarial process.
Q:
The FSIA strictly states that a foreign country is not immune to lawsuits in U.S. courts under any circumstance.
Q:
The United States follows the principle of restricted immunity for suits against foreign nations.
Q:
The act of state doctrine is based on the principle that a country has limited authority over what transpires within its own territory.
Q:
A choice of law clause is a clause in an international contract that designates which nation's equity principles will be applied in mediating a dispute arising out of a contract.
Q:
A forum-selection clause designates which nation's court has jurisdiction to hear a case arising out of a contract.
Q:
Classical Hindu law is based on ________.
A) civil codes
B) court decisions
C) the works of private scholars
D) canons collectively called riba
Q:
Which of the following is true of the Islamic law of Shari'a?
A) The Shari'a disallows making a reasonable profit from the sale of goods and services.
B) All Islamic countries strictly follow the complete Shari'a to govern all aspects of life.
C) The Shari'a encourages riba through the strict payment and collection of interest on loans within stipulated periods of time.
D) The Shari'a is primarily used in the areas of marriage, divorce, and inheritance and, to a limited degree, criminal law.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about the canons of Christian faith?
A) The Code of Canon Law produced in 1917 is followed by all sects of Christianity today.
B) The Code of Canon Law regulates the conduct of the Church but fails to govern the actions of individual Catholics.
C) The Orthodox churches treat their canons more as guidelines than as laws.
D) The canons remain silent on the legal measures guiding marriage or inheritance.
Q:
Throughout Christianity, divine and natural laws have been issued in the form of ________.
A) edicts
B) conventions
C) novations
D) canons
Q:
________ prescribes comprehensive and integrated rules of religious, political, and legal life that together form Jewish thought.
A) The Qur'an
B) The Torah
C) Dharmasastra
D) Riba
Q:
Which of the following is a recognized exception to immunity under the Foreign Sovereign Immunities Act (FSIA)?
A) the unfair and deceptive trade practice exception
B) the managed trade exception
C) the diversity of citizenship exception
D) the commercial activity exception
Q:
Which of the following is codified under the Foreign Sovereign Immunities Act (FSIA)?
A) the act of state doctrine
B) the principle of restricted immunity
C) the supremacy clause
D) the choice of forum clause
Q:
Give an account of zoning. What are nonconforming uses?
Q:
The ________ of the Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution allows the government to take private property for publicuse.
Q:
Uses for real estate and buildings that already exist in a zoned area that are permitted to continue even though they do not fit within a new zoning use established for the area are known as ________.
Q:
A(n) ________ is an exception that permits a type of building or use in an area that would not otherwise be allowed by a zoning ordinance.
Q:
Local laws that are adopted by municipalities and local governments to regulate land use within their boundaries are known as ________ ordinances.
Q:
The ________ is a federal statute that makes it unlawful for a party to refuse to sell, rent, finance, or advertise housing to any person because of his or her race, color, national origin, sex, religion, disability, or family status, subject to several exceptions.
Q:
The power of eminent domain allows the government to take private property for public use after paying just compensation.
Q:
The compensation provided by the government for its exercise of the power of eminent domain is final and cannot be disputed further.
Q:
The Due Process Clause of the Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution requires the government to compensate the property owner when it exercises the power of eminent domain.
Q:
The Americans with Disabilities Act applies only to places of accommodation operated by public entities.
Q:
The Fair Housing Act specifically prohibits discrimination against disabled individuals in employment, public services, public accommodations, and services.
Q:
The Fair Housing Act of 1968 does not apply to a person who leases a single-family dwelling and does not own more than three single-family dwellings.
Q:
Which of the following is true of the government's exercise of eminent domain?
A) It does not allow the owner of the property to make a case for keeping the property.
B) It requires the government to compensate the property owner.
C) It does not apply to state and local governments.
D) It allows the government to set up zoning areas.
Q:
The process by which the government can acquire private property for public use is known as ________.
A) a remainder
B) constructive eviction
C) adverse possession
D) eminent domain
Q:
The ________ Clause of the Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution allows the government to take private property for public use.
A) Takings
B) Just Compensation
C) Double Jeopardy
D) Ratification
Q:
A ________ is an exception that permits a type of building or use in an area that would not otherwise be allowed by a zoning ordinance.
A) variance
B) fixture
C) dominant estate
D) servient estate
Q:
What is a lease?
Q:
A(n) ________ is created when a landlord and a tenant agree on a specific duration for the lease.
Q:
A tenant at sufferance is liable for the payment of rent during the period of sufferance.
Q:
The death of one of the parties of a tenancy at will does not terminate the contract.
Q:
In a periodic tenancy, the notice period is usually the same as the length of the payment period.
Q:
A tenancy for years terminates automatically, without notice, upon the expiration of the stated term.
Q:
Any lease for a stated period, irrespective of its duration, is called a periodic tenancy.
Q:
A rental agreement between a landlord and a tenant is called a lease.
Q:
In a landlord-tenant relationship, the tenant receives a nonfreehold estate in the real property.
Q:
Which of the following legislation makes it unlawful for a party to refuse to sell, rent, finance or advertise housing to any person because of his or her race, color, national origin, sex, religion, disability, or family status?
A) the Rent Stabilization Law of 1969
B) the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
C) the Fair Housing Act of 1968
D) the Civil Rights Act of 1866
Q:
Which of the following is true of tenancy at sufferance?
A) It can be terminated only after an eviction proceeding.
B) It cannot be terminated, as the holdover tenant has title.
C) It has a specific time period before expiration.
D) It requires a notice period that equals the length of the payment period.
Q:
Which of the following forms of tenancy involves the possession of property without right?
A) tenancy at sufferance
B) tenancy for life
C) tenancy for years
D) tenancy at will
Q:
What is an unlawful detainer action?
A) a legal process that a tenant must complete before he or she is allowed to sublet
B) a legal action brought against the landlord for breach of the implied warranty of habitability
C) a lawsuit brought by the tenant against the landlord for wrongful eviction
D) a legal process that a landlord must complete to evict a holdover tenant
Q:
A ________ is a tenancy created when a tenant retains possession of property after the expiration of another tenancy or a life estate without the owner's consent.
A) tenancy for life
B) tenancy at will
C) tenancy at sufferance
D) tenancy for years
Q:
What is a tenancy at will?
A) a tenancy created when a lease specifies intervals at which payments are due but does not specify the duration of the lease
B) a tenancy created by a lease that may be terminated at any time by either party
C) a tenancy created when a tenant retains possession of property after the expiration of another tenancy
D) a tenancy created when a landlord and a tenant agree on a specific duration for a lease
Q:
If a person lives in a house and pays rent on a monthly basis, which of the following types of tenancy would that represent?
A) tenancy at will
B) tenancy at sufferance
C) life tenancy
D) periodic tenancy
Q:
A tenancy created when a lease specifies intervals at which payments are due but does not specify the duration of the lease is known as a ________.
A) tenancy at sufferance
B) life tenancy
C) periodic tenancy
D) tenancy at will
Q:
A tenancy created when a landlord and a tenant agree on a specific duration for a lease is known as a ________.
A) tenancy for years
B) tenancy for life
C) tenancy by the entirety
D) tenancy at sufferance
Q:
A transfer of the right to the possession and use of real property for a set term in return for certain consideration is known as a ________.
A) title transfer
B) lease
C) novation
D) deed
Q:
A tenant's interest in real property is called a ________ estate.
A) fee tail
B) free simple absolute
C) gifted
D) leasehold
Q:
An estate in which the tenant has the right to possess the real property but does not own title to the property is called a ________.
A) fee simple absolute estate
B) gifted estate
C) non-freehold estate
D) fee tail estate
Q:
A landlord-tenant relationship is characterized by ________.
A) transfer of title to the tenant
B) the tenant's receipt of a non-freehold estate
C) the creation of a future interest for the tenant
D) the tenant's fee simple absolute ownership of the leased property
Q:
What is an easement and how is it created?
Q:
Explain the role of recording statutes in real property contracts.
Q:
What is a general warranty deed?
Q:
Under the doctrine of ________, the transfer of the property is involuntary and does not require the delivery of a deed.
Q:
________ deeds are most often used when property is transferred between relatives by gift or otherwise.
Q:
Under a(n) ________ deed, the seller is not liable for defects in title that existed before the seller obtained the property or for encumbrances that were present when the seller obtained the property.
Q:
A(n) ________ deed contains the greatest number of warranties and provides the highest level of protection to a grantee.
Q:
An easement is an example of a nonpossessory interest in another's real property.
Q:
To obtain title under adverse possession, the adverse possessor must physically occupy the property.
Q:
The doctrine of adverse possession requires the delivery of the deed for the transfer of property to be valid.
Q:
Properties owned by state and federal governments are subject to the doctrine of adverse possession.
Q:
Recording a deed gives constructive notice to the world of the owner's interest in the property.
Q:
Under a special warranty deed, the seller is liable for defects in title that existed before the seller obtained the property.
Q:
A general warranty deed contains the greatest number of warranties and provides the highest level of protection to a grantee.
Q:
A deed can only be used to transfer a fee simple absolute interest in real property.
Q:
The Statute of Frauds requires real estate sales contracts to be in writing.
Q:
A given or required right to make limited use of someone else's land without owning or leasing it is called a(n) ________.
A) zoning ordinance
B) title insurance
C) easement
D) abstract of title