Q&A Hero

Q: _____ appraisals assess what workers are like, while _____ appraisals assess what workers do. A. Trait; results B. Behavior; results C. Trait; behavior D. Results; behavior E. Behavior; trait

Q: Which of the following is true about traits and trait appraisals? A. In trait appraisals, managers appraise performance by the results or the actual outcomes of work behaviors B. Possessing a certain trait always ensures that it will be used on the job and result in high performance. C. Trait appraisals may be viewed as unfair or potentially discriminatory by workers and courts of law. D. Trait appraisals often enable managers to give employees feedback they can use to significantly improve performance. E. Trait appraisals focus on relatively short-lived human characteristics that change often.

Q: _____ are used by managers to assess subordinates on personal characteristics that are relevant to job performance, such as skills, abilities, or personality. Author: This question confirms what I said above in regard to the ambiguous question (or, more accurately, question with multiple correct answer choices), skills, abilities, and personality are all characteristics. A. Sales appraisals B. Behavior appraisals C. Goal appraisals D. Results appraisals E. Trait appraisals

Q: _____ is the process by which a manager shares performance appraisal information with a subordinate and develops a plan for the future development of that subordinate. A. Training B. Selection C. Performance feedback D. Recruitment E. Job evaluation

Q: _____ refers to a manager's evaluation of a subordinate's job performance and her contributions to the organization. A. Monitoring B. Invigilating C. Validating D. Performance training E. Performance appraisal

Q: In order to develop employees who can take on new responsibilities and more challenging positions, an organization provides a tuition reimbursement program to its employees. In this case, the organization is aiming to develop its employees through _____. A. mentoring B. training C. formal education D. varied work experiences E. simulation

Q: To develop executives who will have an understanding of and expertise in a variety of functions, products and services, and markets, managers make sure that executives with high potential have different job proficiencies, some in line positions and some in staff positions. This is employee development through _____. A. varied work experiences B. formal education C. on-the-job training D. role-playing E. simulation

Q: Newly hired trucking employees of a courier delivery service ride with experienced drivers during deliveries to familiarize themselves with routes, timing, and driving conditions. This method of imparting training is an example of _____. A. simulations B. classroom instruction C. on-the-job training D. formal education E. role playing

Q: Due to the complexity and severe consequences of mistakes, pilots are required to undergo training in an artificial setting that closely mimics actual flying conditions. This type of training is called _____. A. simulation B. apprenticeship C. on-the-job training D. formal education E. assistantship

Q: Which of the following is specific only to employee development, and not training? A. Simulation B. Classroom instruction C. On-the-job training D. Formal education E. Role playing

Q: Which of the following focuses primarily on equipping organization members to take on new responsibilities and challenges? A. Training B. Evaluation C. Appraisal D. Job analysis E. Development

Q: _____ focuses primarily on teaching organization members how to perform their current jobs and helping them acquire the knowledge and skills needed to be effective performers. A. Performance appraisal B. Training C. Development D. Objective appraisal E. Worker relations

Q: Before creating training and development programs, managers should perform a _____ to determine which employees require training or development and what type of skills or knowledge they ought to acquire. A. job analysis B. feedback session C. realistic job preview D. needs assessment E. subjective appraisal

Q: A manager attempting to select a test for a job applicant that will most accurately predict the applicant's performance on the job is primarily concerned with the _____ of the test. A. validity B. predictability C. reliability D. compatibility E. consistency

Q: A job applicant is interviewed multiple times by different interviewers. In each case, it was found that the interviewers drew similar conclusions about the applicant. This indicates the interview process has high _____. A. validity B. reliability C. flexibility D. affability E. complexity

Q: The selection process for a school teacher's job requires the applicant to keep a class of thirty students engaged in a classroom activity for an hour. The candidate is evaluated by the interviewers during this period, and the activity plays a vital role in the selection process. This is an example of which of the following types of tests? A. Physical ability test B. Personality test C. Ability test D. Paper-and-pencil test E. Performance test

Q: The routine selection process for becoming a law enforcement officer includes tests that measure an applicant's ability to perform certain job-specific tasks such as running stairs, dragging a weight, or climbing a wall. This is an example of a(n) _____. A. physical ability test B. personality test C. trait test D. behavioral test E. IQ test

Q: Tests that measure the individual characteristics of job applicants that are relevant to successful performance on the job are known as _____. Author: This question, or at least its possible answers below, is ambiguous. Isn't an ability a characteristic? And a physical ability or skill could also be a characteristic. People have many characteristics that are not part of personality. A. ability tests B. physical tests C. IQ tests D. personality tests E. performance tests

Q: As part of the selection process, Mark was required to take a test to determine if he had the necessary skills to perform the jobs successfully. What type of test would Mark most likely be required to take? A. Behavioral test B. Personality test C. Trait test D. Morale test E. Ability test

Q: _____ questions often present interviewees with a scenario they are likely to encounter on the job and ask them to indicate how they would handle it. A. Unstructured interview B. Situational interview C. Traditional interview D. Conventional interview E. Informal interview

Q: Gathering background information, performance tests, physical ability tests, and references are all examples of _____. A. selection tools B. performance appraisal tools C. subjective appraisal tools D. quality assurance tools E. objective appraisal tools

Q: Tim's method of interviewing involves asking applicants the same standard set of questions. What type of interview does Tim conduct? A. Unstructured interview B. Situational interview C. Customized interview D. Structured interview E. Virtual interview

Q: An organization requires all job applicants to fill out applications with details such as their name, age, educational qualifications, and previous work experience. This organization is focusing on which aspect of the selection process? A. Interview process B. Paper-and-pencil test C. Personality assessment D. Background information E. Reference-checking

Q: Managers determine the potential of job applicants in performing particular jobs by evaluating their qualifications and previous job experience. This process is called _____. A. interviewing B. selection C. 360-degree appraisal D. validating E. reference-checking

Q: Joe always ensures that potential job applicants are aware of both the advantages as well as the disadvantages associated with the position they are applying for. Joe's assessment of the position indicates: A. equal employment opportunity compliance. B. a 360-degree appraisal. C. a focus strategy. D. a realistic job preview. E. a low-cost strategy.

Q: Which of the following is true of internal recruitment? A. The cost for internal recruitment is higher than that of external recruitment. B. External applicants are more familiar with the organization than internal applicants. C. Internal recruitment consumes relatively less time than external recruitment. D. Managers have a wider pool of candidates to select from if they recruit internally than externally. E. Managers rely more on internal applicants to bring fresh ideas to the organization than external applicants.

Q: _____ refer(s) to job changes within an organization that entail no major changes in responsibility or authority levels. A. Promotion B. Lateral moves C. Job hunting D. External recruitment E. Job hopping

Q: Recruiting processes conducted by an organization to find people outside the organization who have not worked for the organization previously are known as _____. A. internal recruiting B. lateral recruiting C. external recruiting D. transferring E. promoting

Q: Define evolutionary and revolutionary change.

Q: Describe Lewin's Force-Field Theory.

Q: Discuss the problems associated with bureaucratic control.

Q: Discuss the steps involved in the management by objective process.

Q: Discuss three ways in which managers can attempt to control the behavior of subordinates.

Q: What are stretch goals?

Q: Discuss the four major types of financial measures.

Q: Describe the four steps of the control process.

Q: Discuss the type of control used at each stage in the process of transforming inputs into finished goods or services.

Q: Explain the relationship between organizational control and the four building blocks of competitive advantage.

Q: Which of the following steps of the organizational change process includes benchmarking? A. Introducing and managing change B. Assessing the need for change C. Deciding on the change to make D. Implementing the change E. Evaluating the change

Q: A change that is gradual, in which managers at all levels work together to develop a detailed plan for change, is called a(n) __________. A. top-down change B. radical change C. bottom-up change D. stagnation change E. restructuring change

Q: The first step managers must take to manage change effectively is to: A. evaluate the change. B. decide on the change to make. C. implement the change. D. assess the need for change. E. identify obstacles to change.

Q: Which of the following steps of the organizational change process includes identifying obstacles to change? A. Assessing the need for change B. Identifying the source of the problem C. Deciding on the change to make D. Implementing the change E. Evaluating the change

Q: Which of the following is true of revolutionary change? A. It is gradual B. It is incremental C. It is narrowly focused D. It is a constant attempt to improve E. It is dramatic

Q: Which of the following types of change is rapid, dramatic, and broadly focused? A. Social change B. Cultural change C. Structural change D. Revolutionary change E. Evolutionary change

Q: Which of the following is true of evolutionary change? A. It is sudden. B. It is unexpected. C. It is rapid. D. It is dramatic. E. It is narrowly focused.

Q: Which of the following types of change is gradual, incremental, and narrowly focused? A. Technological change B. Infrastructure change C. Structural change D. Revolutionary change E. Evolutionary change

Q: According to Lewin's force-field theory, what must an organization do to change? A. Increase the forces for change and resistance to change B. Decrease the forces for change and resistance to change C. Increase the forces for change and reduce resistance to change D. Increase resistance to change E. Decrease the forces for change

Q: When is an organization in a state of inertia? A. When it increases the forces for change B. When it reduces resistance to change C. When the forces are evenly balanced D. When the two opposing forces increase together E. When the two opposing forces decrease together

Q: According to the force-field theory: A. a manager cannot evaluate the forces at work when observing the performance of workers such as doctors, research scientists, or engineers. B. a wide variety of forces arise from the way an organization operates that make organizations resistant to change. C. forces that support clan control are significantly different from the forces that form the foundation of organizational culture. D. the forces of evolutionary change and revolutionary change are equal and complement each other. E. an organization is in a state of inertia when it reduces the forces for change and increases resistance to change.

Q: _____ is the movement of an organization away from its present state toward some preferred future state to increase its efficiency and effectiveness. A. Clan control B. Concurrent control C. Direct supervision D. Bureaucratic control E. Organizational change

Q: Which of the following is true of clan control? A. Clan control and organizational culture are independent of each other. B. The use of clan control has decreased in organizations over the past few years. C. It standardizes behavior and leads people to behave in predictable ways. D. It serves a dual function of keeping organization members goal-directed while open to new opportunities. E. It cannot be used for many of the most significant organizational activities.

Q: The control exerted on individuals and groups in an organization by shared values, norms, standards of behavior, and expectations is called: A. output control. B. clan control. C. procedural control. D. feedback control. E. culture control.

Q: The set of values, norms, and expectations of behavior which control the ways in which workers interact with one another within the organization is known as: A. organizational goals. B. organizational culture. C. control procedures. D. SOPs. E. rule-based culture.

Q: Which of the following is true of bureaucratic control and standardization? A. Reducing standardization can reduce the level of learning in an organization. B. Bureaucratic control is not useful for routine, well-understood organizational activities. C. Too many rules can stop employees from thinking for themselves. D. Bureaucratic control leads to production of goods and services of inconsistent quality. E. Rules and SOPs increase misunderstandings over responsibility and the use of power.

Q: Which of the following controls leads to standardized behavior and standardized work outputs? A. Output control B. Bureaucratic control C. Feedback control D. Feedforward control E. Clan control

Q: _____ guide behavior and specify what employees are to do when they confront a problem that needs a solution. A. Rules and SOPs B. Output controls C. Feedback controls D. Evolutionary changes E. Force-fields

Q: Control by means of a comprehensive system of rules and standard operating procedures (SOPs) is known as: A. bureaucratic control. B. management by objective. C. output control. D. clan control. E. behavior control.

Q: Which of the following is an important reason for subordinates to participate in goal setting? A. It strengthens subordinates' commitment to achieving goals and meeting budgets. B. It centralizes the responsibility of setting goals and achieving those goals. C. It enables direct supervision and close scrutiny of employees. D. It enables complete evaluation of employees over relatively short periods. E. It enables manages to set goals that are slightly above an employee's reach.

Q: MBO starts when top managers: A. determine subordinates' goals. B. review subordinates' progress toward meeting goals. C. resort to direct supervision. D. establish organizational objectives. E. link performance evaluations to rewards.

Q: A formal system for evaluating subordinates' behavior by their ability to achieve specific goals is called: A. an SOP. B. an operating standard. C. management by objectives. D. total quality management. E. clan control.

Q: Which of the following provides a framework to monitor progress toward achieving goals? A. Management by objectives B. Direct supervision C. Clan control D. Output control E. Top-down change

Q: Which of the following is true of direct supervision? A. It is an inexpensive form of control. B. It can demotivate subordinates. C. It is the least potent form of behavior control. D. It is feasible for complex jobs. E. It is preferred over bureaucratic control.

Q: _____ allows managers to become personally involved with their subordinates and mentor them. A. Clan control B. An MBO system C. Bureaucratic control D. Output control E. Direct supervision

Q: What is the most immediate and potent form of behavior control? A. SOPs B. An MBO system C. Rules D. Direct supervision E. Bureaucracy

Q: Which of the following is a mechanism of behavior control? A. Clan control B. Direct supervision C. Output control D. Feedback control E. Organizational change

Q: As regional manager of KIM Corp., Dwight is given an operating budget of $1 million for that financial year and is evaluated on the basis of the amount of goods produced based on that budget. Dwight's performance is evaluated on a(n): A. revenue budget approach. B. cash flow budget approach. C. expense budget approach. D. profit budget approach. E. capital budget approach.

Q: As the regional manager, Ted's performance is evaluated on the difference between the sales revenues generated by his region and the cost of making those goods and services. Ted is being evaluated using: A. a profit budget approach. B. a revenue budget approach. C. a cash flow budget approach. D. a cost budget approach. E. an expense budget approach.

Q: What is an operating budget? A. A measure of how much percentage profit a company is earning on sales B. The result of dividing a companys operating profit by sales revenues C. The amount an organization has left after all the costs of making the product and running the business have been deducted D. Specification of the functional goals that the managers of different functions need to achieve E. A blueprint that states how managers intend to use organizational resources to achieve organizational goals efficiently

Q: Which of the following describes stretch goals? A. Goals at one level that are not in sync with goals set at other levels of the organization B. Goals that subordinates set for themselves C. Goals that are specific and difficult but not out of reach D. Goals that are set low and are easy to achieve E. Goals set at an impossibly high level

Q: Which type of financial ratio measures how well the managers of an organization are creating value from the organization's assets? A. Leverage ratios B. Liquidity ratios C. Profit ratios D. Current ratios E. Activity ratios

Q: The times-covered ratio, which measures the degree to which managers use debt or equity to finance ongoing operations, is a type of _____. A. current ratio B. liquidity ratio C. leverage ratio D. activity ratio E. profit ratio

Q: The _____ shows whether an organization can pay claims of short-term creditors without selling inventory. A. quick ratio B. current ratio C. days sales outstanding ratio D. inventory turnover ratio E. profit ratio

Q: Which type of financial ratio is computed by dividing the organization's present assets by its present liabilities? A. Inventory turnover ratio B. Days sales outstanding ratio C. Profit ratio D. Current ratio E. Debt-to-assets ratio

Q: Which of the following financial ratios measures the ability of the organization to pay its short-term debts? A. Leverage ratios B. Liquidity ratios C. Activity ratios D. Profit ratios E. Inventory turnover ratios

Q: Which of the following can be inferred from calculating a company's operating margin? A. An organizations competitive advantage B. How efficiently an organization is using its resources C. Whether the organization has the resources available to meet the claims of short-term creditors D. How efficiently managers are turning inventory over E. How efficiently managers are collecting revenue from customers

Q: Which of the following financial measures is a result of dividing a company's operating profit by its sales revenues? A. Gross profit margin B. Return on investment C. Net profit D. Operating margin E. Operating costs

Q: Why is return on investment (ROI) the most commonly used financial performance measure? A. It measures how far profits can decline before managers cannot meet interest changes. B. It measures how efficiently managers are collecting revenues from customers to pay expenses. C. It shows whether organizations can pay claims of short-term creditors without selling inventory. D. It measures how efficiently managers are turning inventory over. E. It allows managers of one organization to compare performance with that of other organizations.

Q: Which of the following is true of the control process? A. It is difficult to take corrective action when reasons for poor performance are identified. B. It is always easy to measure outputs and behavior. C. It is easy to measure outputs and behavior of complex, nonroutine activities. D. Realistic standards reduce the gap between actual performance and desired performance. E. Managers develop performance standards to measure behavior first and then outputs.

Q: The final step in the control process is to: A. initiate corrective action. B. measure actual performance. C. establish the standards of performance. D. compare actual performance to the standards. E. establish targets.

Q: Which of the following is true of the control process? A. Managers can easily take corrective action when reasons for poor performance are identified. B. Outputs and behavior can be measured easily always. C. It is easy to measure the outputs and behavior of complex, nonroutine activities. D. Managers should never revise performance standards to a lower level. E. Managers develop performance standards to measure behavior first and then outputs.