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Management
Q:
Which of the following is true of the general environment?
A. It contains opportunities and threats that are easier to identify and respond to than those in the task environment.
B. It comprises the set of forces that originate with global suppliers, distributors, customers, and competitors.
C. It includes the wide-ranging global, technological, sociocultural, and political forces that affect organizations.
D. It contains the forces that have the most immediate effect on managers and their decisions.
E. It contains forces that have very little impact upon the performance of organizations.
Q:
Which of the following is true of the task environment?
A. It includes the wide-ranging global, technological, sociocultural, and political forces that affect organizations.
B. It contains the forces that have the least immediate effect on managers and their decisions.
C. It contains opportunities and threats that are harder to identify than those in the general environment.
D. It is a framework of environmental policies that dictate the CSR policies of global organizations.
E. It is the set of forces that originate with global suppliers, distributors, customers, and competitors.
Q:
What benefits does the global environment offer organizations?
A. The global environment provides organizations with several opportunities to increase efficacy and efficiency.
B. The global environment is easy to operate within and is constant, straightforward, and predictable.
C. Fluctuating sociocultural factors never affect the performance of organizations that function at a global level.
D. Organizations are faced with fewer challenges and risks when they grow to prominence internationally.
E. Organizations that operate internationally seldom compete for scarce and valuable resources.
Q:
Organizations with culturally homogeneous management teams are best equipped to tailor their management systems to meet the requirements of different cultures.
A. True
B. False
Q:
According to Hofstede, a national culture with a long-term orientation rests on values such as thrift and persistence in achieving goals.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Societies high on uncertainty avoidance, according to Hofstede, value diversity and tolerate differences in personal beliefs and actions.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Societies that have a nurturing orientation, according to Hofstede, value personal relationships highly.
A. True
B. False
Q:
36. According to Hofstede, in low-power-distance countries, the government uses taxation and social welfare programs to reduce inequality and improve the welfare of the least fortunate.
A. True
B. False
Q:
According to Hofstede, the gap between the rich and poor in low-power-distance societies is very wide.
A. True
B. False
Q:
According to Hofstede's model of national culture, individualist societies adhere to the principle that people should be judged by their contribution to the group.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The violation of folkways is a serious matter and is punishable by law.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Folkways are those norms which include proscriptions against murder, theft, adultery, and incest.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Norms that are considered to be central to the functioning of society and to social life are called folkways.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Superstitions are unwritten, informal codes of conduct that prescribe appropriate behavior in particular situations and are considered important by most members of a group or organization.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The establishment of free-trade areas is disadvantageous for manufacturing organizations since it increases their costs.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The free-trade doctrine predicts that if each country agrees to specialize in the production of the goods and services that it can produce most efficiently, this will make the best use of global capital resources and will result in lower prices.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The aim of import tariffs is to encourage the entry of foreign goods into a country's market.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Tariffs are taxes that governments impose on goods in the domestic market that are only circulated within the nation.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The flow of natural resources, parts, and components between companies and countries is called human capital.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Political capital is the flow of people around the world through immigration, migration, and emigration.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Globalization has increased the levels of interdependence between people and nations.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The flow of capital around the world has helped establish an open global environment.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Falling trade barriers pose a serious threat to the nation's domestic market because they increase competition in the task environment.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Nations forming political unions that allow free exchange of resources and capital is an example of the political and legal forces in the environment.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The aging of the population of a country is an example of a demographic force that affects organizations in the country.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Economic forces are outcomes of changes in, or changing attitudes toward, the characteristics of a population, such as age, gender, ethnic origin, race, sexual orientation, and social class.
A. True
B. False
Q:
National culture is the traditional system of relationships established between people and groups in a society.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Managers today have fewer ways to supervise and coordinate geographically dispersed employees.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Economic forces affect the general health and well-being of a country or world region.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Forces in the general environment do not require continuous monitoring because they do not affect ongoing decision making and planning.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Economic, technological, sociocultural, demographic, political, and legal forces in the general environment often have important effects on forces in the task environment that determine an organizations ability to obtain resources.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Low rivalry results in a task environment where competitive pressures are intense and managers have few opportunities to acquire the resources they need to make their organizations effective.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The greater the economies of scale of an existing organization, the lower are the barriers to entry for new competitors.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Cost advantages associated with large operations are called economies of scale.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Potential competitors are organizations that are not presently in a task environment but have the resources to enter if they so choose.
A. True
B. False
Q:
A high level of rivalry typically results in price competition that increases existing prices.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Competitors are organizations that produce goods and services that are similar and comparable to a particular organizations goods and services.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Global outsourcing has grown enormously to take advantage of differences in the cost and quality of resources available in different countries.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Distributors are the individuals and companies that provide an organization with the input resources it needs to produce goods and services.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Forces in the task environment have little impact on short-term decision making.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Opportunities and threats that result from changes in the task environment are easier to identify and respond to than events in the general environment.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The quality of managers understanding of forces in the global environment and their ability to respond appropriately to those forces are critical factors affecting organizational performance.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The global environment is a set of forces and conditions in the world outside an organizations boundary that affect how it operates and shape its behavior.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Which of the following is true of schemas?
A. People tend to pay attention to information that is consistent with their schemas.
B. Schemas tend to weaken over time.
C. Schemas are systematic tendencies to use information about others in ways that result in inaccurate perceptions.
D. Schemas are a persons preconceived notions about the nature of men and women and their traits, attitudes, behaviors, and preferences.
E. It is a misperception that people cannot perceive information without relying on schemas.
Q:
What is a schema?
A. It is the invisible barrier that prevents minorities and women from being promoted to top corporate positions.
B. It is a persons preconceived notions about the nature of men and women and their traits.
C. It is the process through which people select, organize, and interpret sensory input.
D. It is a collection of simplistic and often inaccurate beliefs about the typical characteristics of particular groups of people.
E. It is a systematic tendency to use information about others in ways that result in biases.
Q:
All decisions and actions of managers are based on their _____.
A. subjective perceptions
B. objective determination
C. schemas
D. gender schemas
E. overt discrimination
Q:
The success of fast-food restaurants in diverse markets can be attributed to relatively accurate _____ of managers.
A. schemas
B. gender schemas
C. biases
D. perceptions
E. stereotypes
Q:
What is perception?
A. It is the collection of abstract knowledge structures stored in memory that makes interpreting information possible.
B. It is a persons preconceived notions about the nature of men and women and their traits.
C. It is the process through which people select, organize, and interpret sensory input.
D. It is a collection of simplistic and often inaccurate beliefs about the typical characteristics of particular groups of people.
E. It is a systematic tendency to use information about others in ways that result in biases.
Q:
Which of the following is true of perception?
A. It is the collection of abstract knowledge structures stored in memory that makes interpreting information possible.
B. Perceptions change quickly depending on the mood of a person.
C. Perceptions are influenced by schemas rather than stereotypes.
D. Perceptions are a persons preconceived notions about the nature of men and women and their traits.
E. The effects of perception lead to different interpretations in the area of diversity.
Q:
ALT Inc. conducts periodic reviews to assess the extent to which law firms support diversity in their activities. It uses this information to decide which law firms would be most suitable to represent it legally. This is an example of effective:
A. stereotyping.
B. reverse discrimination.
C. overt discrimination.
D. environmental justice.
E. diversity management.
Q:
Which of the following is a way to effectively manage diversity?
A. Entrusting employees with the responsibility of managing diversity rather than instituting mentoring programs
B. Reducing the use of minority suppliers
C. Reducing the number of religious holidays
D. Encouraging managers to rely on gender schemas to guide their perceptions of employees
E. Insisting that even suppliers support diversity
Q:
As the manager of Taylor Construction, Scott created a policy that required all subcontractors to submit monthly reports to show the percentage of work that was completed by their diverse employees. This is an example of:
A. managing diversity.
B. quid pro quo.
C. affirmative action.
D. overt discrimination.
E. stereotyping.
Q:
JRC Inc., a consumer-electronics firm based in Atlanta, is opening another manufacturing unit. The top management involves female representatives in the design team to take care of any concerns that female employees may have. This is an example of:
A. reverse discrimination.
B. overt discrimination.
C. managing diversity.
D. procedural justice.
E. distributive justice.
Q:
Which of the following is true of managing diversity?
A. Effectively managing diversity is a necessity on ethical rather than business grounds.
B. Effectively managing diversity presents managers with very few challenges.
C. Effective management of diversity can improve future contributions of diverse employees after they quit.
D. If diversity is not effectively managed, employee turnover will reduce considerably.
E. Effective management of diversity can increase profitability and employee retention.
Q:
One result of effectively managing diversity is a(n) _____.
A. decrease in job-satisfaction
B. decrease in use of minority suppliers
C. increase in the cost of hiring replacements
D. narrowing of approaches to problems and opportunities
E. reduction in turnover rates
Q:
The supervisor of medical billing at a hospital has established a rubric that helps her make objective decisions when promoting employees in her department. Which principle are the supervisor's actions based on?
A. Restorative justice
B. Procedural justice
C. Frontier justice
D. Social justice
E. Environmental justice
Q:
Basing employees' promotions on their performance evaluations, independent of ethnicity, age, or gender, is known as:
A. reparative justice.
B. frontier justice.
C. distributive justice.
D. restorative justice.
E. environmental justice.
Q:
Annie assigns interesting job assignments to employees based on their contribution to the company. Which principle is Annie's action consistent with?
A. Distributive justice
B. Restorative justice
C. Environmental justice
D. Reparative justice
E. Frontier justice
Q:
The marketing manager at RST Consulting, allocates annual bonuses to employees based on performance evaluations. What principle is the manager following?
A. Restorative justice
B. Reparative justice
C. Distributive justice
D. Frontier justice
E. Spatial justice
Q:
Which principle dictates that managers should receive a raise in pay based upon their contributions to the organization, and not based on their gender?
A. Restorative justice
B. Reparative justice
C. Distributive justice
D. Frontier justice
E. Spatial justice
Q:
Which of the following is an aim of distributive justice within an organization?
A. To ensure that all members of an organization receive identical or similar outcomes
B. To ensure that women consistently earn more than men
C. To use fair procedures to determine how to distribute outcomes to organization members
D. To provide favorable outcomes to traditionally oppressed groups
E. To ensure that outcomes are not distributed based on a person's personal characteristics like race or age
Q:
In the _____ role, a manager conveys that the effective management of diversity is a valued goal and objective.
A. figurehead
B. leader
C. liaison
D. entrepreneur
E. spokesperson
Q:
Justin, a human resources manager for XYZ Company, commits 5% of the annual budget toward instituting a new program that rewards employees for effectively handling diversity. Justin is playing the role of a(n) _____.
A. monitor
B. entrepreneur
C. disseminator
D. negotiator
E. disturbance handler
Q:
In the _____ role, a manager enables diverse individuals to coordinate their efforts.
A. spokesperson
B. disseminator
C. liaison
D. monitor
E. negotiator
Q:
As the branch manager of Missouri Bank, Jim is responsible for informing staff members about changes in diversity policies. Jim plays the role of a _____ in handling diversity.
A. disseminator
B. leader
C. liaison
D. figurehead
E. communicator
Q:
A manager in the leader role manages diversity in an organization by:
A. conveying that the effective management of diversity is a valued goal and objective.
B. evaluating the extent to which diverse employees are being treated fairly.
C. serving as a role model and instituting policies and procedures to ensure that diverse members are treated fairly.
D. enabling diverse individuals to coordinate their efforts and cooperate with one another.
E. allocating resources to support and encourage the effective management of diversity.
Q:
_____ diversity requires that managers be sensitive and responsive to the needs and concerns of individuals who might not be as well off as others.
A. Ethnic
B. Gender
C. Religious
D. Educational
E. Socioeconomic
Q:
_____ refers to a grouping of people based on some shared characteristic such as national origin, language, or culture.
A. Heritage
B. Ethnicity
C. Ancestry
D. Regionality
E. Descent
Q:
In addition to prohibiting discrimination in employment, the Civil Rights Act of 1991:
A. prohibits discrimination against workers over the age of 40.
B. allows for the awarding of punitive and compensatory damages.
C. prohibits discrimination against disabled individuals.
D. requires that men and women be paid equally if they are performing equal work.
E. requires that employers provide 12 weeks of unpaid leave.
Q:
The term _____ alludes to the invisible barriers that prevent minorities and women from being promoted to top corporate positions.
A. overt discrimination
B. stereotype
C. glass ceiling
D. bias
E. pay gap
Q:
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act prohibits discrimination:
A. against workers over the age of 40 and restricts mandatory retirement.
B. against women in employment decisions on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, and related medical decisions.
C. against disabled individuals in employment decisions and requires that employers make accommodations for disabled workers to enable them to perform their jobs.
D. and allows for the awarding of punitive and compensatory damages in cases of intentional discrimination.
E. in employment decisions on the basis of race, religion, sex, color, or national origin.
Q:
Which act requires that men and women be paid equally if they are performing equal work?
A. Civil Rights Act of 1991
B. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act
C. Equal Pay Act
D. Age Discrimination in Employment Act
E. Gender Equality Act
Q:
What is diversity?
A. Differences among people due to age, gender, race, ethnicity, religion, sexual orientation, socioeconomic background, and any other characteristic that is used to distinguish between people.
B. Differences in the levels of job satisfaction and organizational commitment among managers in different countries because they face different economic, political, and sociocultural forces in their organizations general environments.
C. The extent to which an individual has a strong desire to perform challenging tasks well and to meet personal standards for excellence.
D. The extent to which an individual is concerned about establishing and maintaining good interpersonal relations, being liked, and having the people around him or her get along with one another.
E. The extent to which an individual desires to control or influence others.
Q:
Managers have an ethical obligation to eradicate sexual harassment in their organizations, but it is not legally required.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Lewd jokes and sexually oriented comments are examples of quid pro quo sexual harassment.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Sexual harassment that creates a hostile work environment is more subtle than quid pro quo sexual harassment.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Emotional bonds between a mentor and a protg can enable a protg to sometimes express reluctance to follow a mentors advice.
A. True
B. False
Q:
When managers or employees witness another organization member being unfairly treated, they should be encouraged to speak up and rectify the situation.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Diversity requires organization members to suppress their personal styles.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The ability to appreciate diversity does not require a manager to consider others' perspectives.
A. True
B. False