Q&A Hero

Q: The National Labor Relations Board was primarily established for the purpose of ________. A) establishing branches in right-to-work states B) negotiating contracts on behalf of local unions C) investigating unfair labor practice charges D) overseeing the establishment of local unions

Q: Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Wagner Act? A) guaranteeing each employee the right to bargain collectively free from interference and coercion B) banning unions from preventing employees from exercising their guaranteed bargaining rights C) allowing secret-ballot elections for determining whether a firm's employees would unionize D) making it illegal for a union to refuse to bargain in good faith with the employer

Q: Which of the following was passed in 1935 to amend the Norris -LaGuardia Act? A) Taft-Hartley Act B) New Deal Act C) Wagner Act D) Landrum-Griffin Act

Q: Which of the following was established by the Wagner Act? A) Labor Management Relations Board B) National Labor Relations Board C) Knights of Labor D) AFL-CIO

Q: Which of the following bans five unfair labor practices and provides for majority rule and secret ballot elections? A) Landrum-Griffin Act B) Norris-LaGuardia Act C) Taft-Hartley Act D) Wagner Act

Q: Which of the following guaranteed each employee the right to bargain collectively without interference, restraint, or coercion? A) National Labor Relations Act B) Norris-LaGuardia Act C) Davis-Bacon Act D) Taft-Hartley Act

Q: Prior to 1930, employers attempted to limit the influence of unions using all of the following methods EXCEPT ________. A) spying on workers B) firing union agitators C) requiring yellow dog contracts D) engaging in collective bargaining

Q: Which of the following best describes a "yellow dog" contract? A) As a condition of employment, an employee agrees not to picket. B) Employers agree to give union members preference in hiring. C) As a condition of employment, an employee agrees to not join a union. D) Employers agree to abide by the guidelines of the local labor unions.

Q: Which of the following best describes the AFL-CIO? A) voluntary federation of national and international labor unions B) local union for automobile workers in Detroit, Michigan C) federation of firms that fight unionization in their plants D) regional branch of the National Labor Relations Board

Q: In which human resource activity does a typical labor agreement NOT give the union a role? A) recruitment B) selection C) dismissal D) appraisals

Q: Right to work laws inhibit union formation by ________. A) banning any form of union security B) making union membership a requirement C) leaving the question of union affiliation up to each company D) leaving the question of union security up to each company

Q: The term ________ describes statutory or constitutional provisions banning the requirement of union membership as a condition of employment. A) termination at will B) right to work C) open shop D) free labor

Q: With the maintenance of membership arrangement of union security, how long must union members employed by a firm maintain union membership? A) until the union disbands B) until negotiations are over C) for the contract period D) for at least one year

Q: Which of the following best defines the preferential shop form of union security? A) A company can hire nonunion people, but they must then join the union. B) Union members must maintain membership for the contract period. C) Employees who do not belong to the union must still pay dues. D) A company gives hiring advantages to union members.

Q: Which form of union security requires employees who do not belong to the union to pay union dues on the assumption that the union's efforts benefit all workers? A) union shop B) agency shop C) open shop D) maintenance of agreement

Q: The ________ form of union security means that the company can hire nonunion people, but those people must join the union within a prescribed period of time and pay dues. A) closed shop B) union shop C) agency shop D) open shop

Q: Which type of union security accounts for almost three-fourths of union contracts? A) maintenance of membership B) closed shop C) union shop D) agency shop

Q: Which type of union security was outlawed by Congress? A) agency shop B) closed shop C) union shop D) maintenance of membership

Q: The ________ form of union security means that the company can hire only union members. A) closed shop B) union shop C) agency shop D) preferential shop

Q: Which of the following best describes the closed shop form of union security? A) A company can hire nonunion people if they agree to join the union. B) Union members receive higher wages than nonunion employees. C) Union members receive preferential treatment in hiring. D) A company can hire only union members.

Q: Which of the following is most likely a false statement about union membership? A) Union members work in both blue-collar and white-collar industries. B) Insurance plan benefits are better for union workers than for nonunion workers. C) Union workers receive more holidays and unpaid leave than nonunion workers do. D) Employers prefer nonunion workers, so they pay them higher wages than union members.

Q: Which of the following best explains why union membership has fallen since the 1970s? A) Legislation provides workers with protections that were once exclusive to unions. B) Union members earn less on average compared to non-union members. C) Union membership is too expensive for most blue-collar workers. D) Foreign-owned manufacturers will not hire union members. E) Unions are considered largely ineffectual.

Q: Costco is primarily known as "the anti-Walmart" because the firm ________. A) negotiates contracts with unions B) pays above the minimum wage C) offers employees health benefits D) refuses to accept union contracts

Q: About ________% of people working in the United States belong to unions. A) 5 B) 12 C) 20 D) 34

Q: What can you do as an HR manager to ensure that you hire ethical employees?

Q: What is an ethics code? What methods do firms use to monitor employees and ensure their compliance with ethics codes?

Q: What is organizational culture? How can managers influence the ethical nature of a firm's culture?

Q: What is organizational justice? How can firms ensure organizational justice in performance appraisals?

Q: What is morality? How does an employee's morality relate to making ethical decisions in the workplace?

Q: Firms considered high performance work systems should strive to cut costs rather than downsize because employee morale is especially important to the firm's productivity and profitability.

Q: Studies indicate that some people's traits and behaviors make them more susceptible to bullying.

Q: Research indicates that individuals are more likely to make unethical choices when faced with minor dilemmas than with major problems.

Q: Most legal rights in American society derive from local, state, and federal laws.

Q: A small sample of employees who express their opinions and attitudes on an issue is a focus group.

Q: Shared perceptions organizational members have about their organization and work environment is known as organizational climate.

Q: Exit interviews are conducted to inform an employee of the fact that he or she has been dismissed.

Q: In the absence of a contract, the employer and/or the employee can terminate the employer-employee relation which is known as dismissal.

Q: Employers should avoid providing dismissed employees with full explanations of why and how termination decisions were made because such details typically lead the former employees to file wrongful discharge lawsuits.

Q: Wrongful discharge occurs when an employee's dismissal does not comply with the law or with the contractual agreement stated or implied by the firm through its employment application forms and employee manuals.

Q: If an employee conducts a personal phone call at work, the employer can legally eavesdrop and monitor the phone call.

Q: The four main types of privacy upheld by courts are intrusion, publication of private matters, disclosure of medical records, and appropriation of an employee's name or likeness for commercial purposes.

Q: Nonpunitive discipline attempts to gain short-term compliance from employees, while traditional discipline seeks long-term cooperation.

Q: Nonpunitive discipline is discipline involving oral warnings and paid "decision-making leaves of absence."

Q: With a system of progressive penalties, the severity of the penalty depends on the offense and the employee's seniority level.

Q: Most people view invasion of their privacy by employers as fair and ethical.

Q: The fair treatment of job applicants by HR managers leads to applicants having favorable opinions about the selection procedure and the organization.

Q: When firms do not deal swiftly and fairly with the unethical behavior of employees, ethical employees feel penalized.

Q: A firm's ethics code outlines its mission, vision, appraisal system, and hiring policies.

Q: Unfortunately, employers have no tools for measuring the ethics of an individual during the applicant screening process, so employers do not realize they have hired an unethical person until it is too late.

Q: The principal cause of ethical compromises is based on organizational pressure to meet a schedule or some other objective.

Q: The president of University National Bank in Palo Alto, California has his office on the main floor of the bank just off the lobby, and his door is always open unless he is in a private meeting. This represents a physical manifestation of the company's culture.

Q: The ethical or unethical influence of a manager on a subordinate tends to occur through both verbal and non-verbal communication.

Q: The standards an individual uses to decide what his or her conduct should be are known as common law.

Q: Many people in the new business development group at GRS&M feel that Blaine was promoted due to her personal friendship with the supervisor rather than a fair review of the qualified employees in the group. This attitude is the result of the employees' perceived procedural justice relative to the decision.

Q: Two components of organizational justice are distributive justice and procedural justice.

Q: Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the process by which a decision is made.

Q: Distributive justice refers to the manner in which managers conduct their interpersonal dealings with employees.

Q: A good predictor of ethical conduct is measured by the degree to which employees are not discussing ethics.

Q: Ethics suffer when people undergo moral disengagement.

Q: All of the following are typical results of fair disciplinary procedures EXCEPT ________, A) improved employee commitment B) increased organizational support C) improved arbitration scheduling D) enhanced organizational satisfaction

Q: The first step in ethical behavior is ________. A) moral awareness B) positive rewards C) legal assessment D) moral disengagement

Q: All of the following would most likely be addressed in an ethics audit EXCEPT ________. A) employee discrimination B) conflicts of interest C) intranet usage D) gift giving

Q: Which type of bullying involves spreading rumors and purposely breaking up friendships in the workplace? A) physical bullying B) cyber bullying C) verbal bullying D) social bullying

Q: All of the following are common elements of bullying EXCEPT ________. A) power imbalance B) harmful intentions C) verbal name-calling D) repetitive incidents

Q: Carlos, a marketing manager at Devon Consulting, is attending an ethics training program at his workplace. During the training, Carlos is LEAST likely to learn how to ________. A) identify ethical dilemmas B) role play employee dismissals C) use disciplinary practices ethically D) use codes of conduct to resolve problems

Q: According to the text, what are the two main forces that lead to the development of employment laws? A) unalienable rights and public policy B) historic precedence and judges C) federal governments and voters D) social morality and human rights

Q: What tool does society use to ensure that employers act fairly and morally? A) non-punitive discipline B) social media outlets C) public forums D) legislation

Q: Raj is a manager at a firm that has recently acquired another firm. As a result, numerous employees will be dismissed. In order to ensure that surviving employees at the firm remain productive, Raj should most likely ________. A) contact EEO representatives B) treat dismissed employees with fairness C) conduct exit interviews with dismissed workers D) establish new departmental policies and procedures

Q: ________ refer to people who are inclined to make unethical choices. A) Bad people B) Bad cases C) Bad apples D) Bad barrels

Q: ________ are actions not done by accident but with a goal to cause harm. A) Repetition B) Imbalance of power C) Intent to cause harm D) Merit

Q: Which element of bullying involves the use of power to control or harm and the people being bullied may have a hard time defending themselves? A) repetition B) imbalance of power C) name-calling D) intent to cause harm

Q: Which type of bullying involves using the Internet, mobile phones, or other digital technologies to harm others? A) verbal B) social C) cyber bullying D) physical

Q: Which type of bullying involves name-calling and teasing? A) verbal B) social C) cyber bullying D) physical

Q: Which type of bullying involves hitting, punching, and shoving? A) verbal B) social C) cyber bullying D) physical

Q: Which of the following terms refers to permanently dismissing a relatively large proportion of employees in an attempt to improve productivity and competitiveness? A) bumping B) outsourcing C) downsizing D) contracting

Q: Which of the following is conducted with employees who are leaving a firm for the purpose of eliciting information about what is right or wrong with the job and the firm? A) termination interview B) screening interview C) mass interview D) exit interview

Q: Which of the following terms refers to a systematic process by which a terminated employee is trained and counseled in how to perform a self-appraisal and secure a new position? A) exit interview B) outplacement counseling C) job counseling fair D) outsourcing

Q: During which of the following is an employee informed of the fact that he or she has been dismissed? A) exit interview B) screening interview C) termination interview D) outplacement interview

Q: All of the following are examples of insubordination EXCEPT ________. A) publicly criticizing a supervisor B) disregarding the chain of command C) repeatedly failing to perform tasks D) deliberately defying company rules

Q: Which of the following terms refers to the willful disregard or disobedience of a supervisor's authority? A) disobedience B) insubordination C) harassment D) mutiny