Q&A Hero

Q: Leaders are role models in their organizations. Explain how this can be used to build an ethical organization. Provide examples of successful leaders whose organizations are known to be ethically rigorous.

Q: Discuss the differences between integrity-based and compliance-based approaches to organizational ethics.

Q: Explain the following statement and provide examples to support your argument: Merely adhering to the minimum regulatory standards may not be enough to remain competitive in a world that is becoming more socially conscious.

Q: How can developing and maintaining a high ethical standard benefit an organization? Give examples and describe the effects the examples have had on the organization and/or its stakeholders.

Q: How does the ethical orientation of a leader affect the ability to promote ethical behavior in the organization?

Q: What are the five elements of a learning organization? What is the value of a learning organization in the current global marketplace?

Q: What are some of the potential drawbacks of emotional intelligence?

Q: Identify the five components of emotional intelligence (EI). Discuss how each of these factors contributes to the success of a leader or manager.

Q: Discuss the organizational and personal bases of leader power.

Q: Explain how a leader might use informal means to accomplish organizational change. Provide an example.

Q: Briefly discuss the three interdependent activities that are critical for effective leadership.

Q: Which of the following statements would least likely be found in a corporate credo? A. maximize financial benefits for stakeholders at any cost B. provide secure and stable employment for employees C. establish an environment that enhances professional growth D. support community organizations and projects

Q: Proactive measures to prevent organizational ethics problems do not include _____________. A. instituting a reward system which considers outcomes as its primary criterion B. using leaders as role models of ethical behavior C. issuing statements describing organization commitment to certain standards of behavior D. using organization information systems as a control system

Q: Which of the following statements about ethical organizations is not true? A. The potential benefits of an ethical organization are few but direct. B. Ethical values shape the search for opportunities. C. Organizational ethics define what a company is and what it stands for. D. Ethics provide a common frame of reference that serves as a unifying force.

Q: As a manager, when faced with ethical crises you should _____________. A. focus on issues most relevant to stockholders B. wait for the other party to make the first move C. take the initiative to address the problem D. cover up as much as possible

Q: Which of the following statements about ethics is not true? A. Ethics may be defined as a system of right and wrong. B. Ethics assists individuals in deciding when an act is moral or immoral. C. Ethics is not concerned with whether or not an act is socially desirable. D. Business ethics is the application of ethical standards to commercial enterprises.

Q: Companies that cultivate cultures of experimentation and curiosity make sure that ______________ is not, in essence, to be avoided at all costs. A. experimentation B. failure C. authority D. risk taking

Q: Which of the following is not a guideline an organization can use to promote the challenging of the status quo? A. establishing a culture of dissent B. forcefully creating a sense of urgency C. fostering a culture that encourages risk taking D. creating a results-based reward system

Q: Functional benchmarking _____________. A. is not very useful for organizations with a divisional organizational structure B. endeavors to determine best practices regardless of industry C. restricts the search for best practices to competitors D. is useful when researching industry-specific standards

Q: When important decisions need to be made at WBG Construction, CEO Greg Burrill asks all employees with relevant knowledge or a stake in the outcome for their thoughts. This collaborative approach recently led to a decision that not only sold a house but also inspired a new floor plan that appealed to a whole new segment of buyers. This is an example of _____________. A. hierarchical control B. knowledge management C. enabling heroes and drones D. employee empowerment

Q: In order to create an environment where employees can achieve their potential as they move the organization towards its goals, the manager role needs to be that of _____________. A. resource allocator B. resource controller C. a flexible resource D. an advocator of the status quo

Q: Inspiring and motivating people with a mission or purpose is a ______________ for developing an organization that can learn and adapt. A. necessary and sufficient condition B. necessary, but not a sufficient condition C. goal, but not a necessary condition D. goal and a required precondition

Q: Which of the following is not a characteristic of a successful learning organization? A. It creates a proactive, creative approach to the unknown. B. It actively solicits the involvement of employees at all levels. C. It regularly engages in activities to reinforce the status quo. D. It enables everyone to use their intelligence and apply their imagination.

Q: The following two components of emotional intelligence (EI) deal with personal ability to manage relationships with others. A. motivation and self-awareness B. self-regulation and empathy C. empathy and social skill D. motivation and empathy

Q: Which component of emotional intelligence (EI) enables a manager to have a deep understanding of the existence and importance of cultural and ethnic differences? A. self-awareness B. empathy C. social skills D. self-regulation

Q: All of the following are components of emotional intelligence (EI) except _____________. A. self-awareness B. self-regulation C. self-promotion D. empathy

Q: Which of the following is not a part of the three broad sets of capabilities that a leader should possess? A. technical skills B. cognitive abilities C. physical abilities D. emotional intelligence

Q: The source of referent power is _____________. A. subordinate identification with the leader B. leader identification with the subordinates C. derived from the fact that the manager can potentially act as a reference when the employee applies for another job D. derived from manager ability to provide effective incentives to employees

Q: Coercive power is _____________. A. the power exercised by use of fear of punishment for errors of omission or commission by employees B. the power of persuasion exercised by a charismatic leader to get compliance from reluctant subordinates C. the type that arises from manager access, control, and distribution of information that is not freely available to everyone in an organization D. the ability of the leader or manager to confer rewards for positive behaviors or outcomes

Q: Expert power _____________. A. is derived from organizationally conferred decision-making authority B. arises from manager access, control, and distribution of information that is not freely available to everyone in an organization C. is derived from referent power D. is derived from leader capability and knowledge in a particular field

Q: Which of the following does not constitute organizational bases of leader power? A. legitimate power B. reward power C. referent power D. coercive power

Q: When faced with barriers to change, leaders can create a good climate for advancing the aims of the organization and making progress towards its goals by building ______________ and _____________. A. a learning organization; an ethical organization B. a following organization; an ethical organization C. a learning organization; an efficient organization D. an efficient organization; a learning organization

Q: To overcome barriers to organizational change, companies work more collaboratively than in the past. In companies such as Microsoft, an important obstacle to effective collaboration is _____________. A. higher-level political battles B. competition C. effective leadership D. poor organization

Q: Which of the following does not explain why organizations are prone to inertia and slow to change? A. personal time constraints B. political barriers C. vested interests in the status quo D. entry barriers

Q: Refusal to share information, conflicts over resources, conflicts between departments and divisions, and petty interpersonal differences are symptoms of which type of barrier to change? A. systemic barriers B. political barriers C. behavioral barriers D. entry barriers

Q: Barriers associated with a managers tendency to look at issues from a biased or limited perspective are known as _____________. A. systemic barriers B. behavioral barriers C. political barriers D. barriers to exit

Q: Barriers in which the design of organization structure, information processing, and reporting relationships, impede the proper flow and evaluation of information are known as _____________. A. systemic barriers B. behavioral barriers C. political barriers D. barriers to entry

Q: Leaders play a key role in developing and sustaining organization _____________. A. status quo B. culture C. reporting relationships D. rules and regulations

Q: The CEO scraps the company commission-based reward system, because it rewards employees for inappropriate behavior. This is an example of _____________. A. setting a direction B. designing the organization C. unethical behavior D. failure to maintain the status quo

Q: Poor organizational design by leaders can result in all of the following except _____________. A. insufficient mechanisms that integrate and coordinate activities across the firm B. inadequate accountability among managers and employees C. inappropriate budgeting and control systems D. teams, systems, and organizational processes that facilitate implementation

Q: A strategic vision provides many benefits. Which of the following is not one of those benefits: A. a clear future direction B. a framework for their organization mission and goals C. enhanced employee communication and commitment D. diminished employee participation

Q: Effective leadership is like a three-legged stool. Which of the following is not represented by one of the stool legs? A. dedication to maintaining the status quo B. nurturing a culture dedicated to excellence and ethical behavior C. determining a direction D. designing the organization

Q: Which of the following statements about leadership is not true? A. Leadership is focused on the creation and implementation of a creative vision. B. Leadership is the process of transforming organizations from what they are to what the leader would have them become. C. Leaders support the status quo and seek control mechanisms to maintain it. D. Effective implementation of strategy is essential for successful leadership.

Q: Which of the following is an important characteristic of a leader? A. goal-oriented B. satisfied with the status quo C. reactive D. focused on past performance

Q: The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 does not provide legal protection to employee whistleblowers of publicly traded companies.

Q: Policies and procedures guide employee behavior, but are effective only if they are reinforced with specific corporation action such as enforcement and monitoring.

Q: Inappropriate reward systems seldom cause individuals at all levels throughout an organization to commit unethical acts, since people are either unethical or ethical in their behavior.

Q: What are ambidextrous organizations? When should they be used and how can they be made effective?

Q: Successful boundaryless organizations rely heavily on the relational aspects of organizations. Discuss the benefits and costs of what must be considered, when choosing to develop such relationships with internal and external stakeholders.

Q: Describe the virtual organizational form. How and why are organizations choosing to implement this approach to organizing? Provide examples of organizations that have used a virtual organizational structure.

Q: Discuss the uses and limitations of the modular organizational structure. What is the role of outsourcing in the modular organization?

Q: Discuss the uses and limitations of the barrier-free organizational structure. What is the role of teams in the barrier-free organization?

Q: Discuss how changes in the current workforce and the business environment have contributed to growth in the use of boundaryless organizational designs.

Q: Briefly describe global start-ups. What advantages do they have and what challenges do they face?

Q: Describe the attributes of a matrix organizational structure. What are the advantages and disadvantages associated with using the matrix organizational form?

Q: Briefly describe the strategic business unit (SBU) and holding company organizational structures. Under what circumstances do organizations choose these forms of organizing?

Q: Describe the attributes of a divisional organizational structure. What are the advantages and disadvantages associated with using the divisional organizational form?

Q: Describe the attributes of a functional organizational structure. What are the advantages and disadvantages associated with using the functional organizational form?

Q: Describe the attributes of a simple organizational structure. What are the advantages and disadvantages associated with using the simple organizational form?

Q: How do organizational structures change as organizations grow and mature? What are the dominant patterns of growth?

Q: According to the study by OReilly and Tushman, effective ambidextrous structures had all of the following attributes except _____________. A. a clear and compelling vision B. managerial efforts were highly focused on revenue enhancement C. cross-fertilization among business units D. established units were shielded from the distractions of launching new businesses

Q: Effective ambidextrous organizations maintain adaptability, which means that _____________. A. managers are focused on growth opportunities B. there is a clear sense of how value is being created in the short-term and how activities are properly integrated and coordinated C. divisional-goals are consistent with overall corporate goals D. managers must remain proactive in expanding and/or modifying their product-market scope to anticipate and satisfy market conditions

Q: Effective ambidextrous organizations have alignment, which means that _____________. A. employees are rewarded according to both profit and sales growth B. managers are focused on growth opportunities C. there is a clear sense of how value is being created in the short-term and how activities are properly integrated and coordinated D. divisional-level goals are consistent with overall corporate goals

Q: Tools and techniques used to achieve effective coordination and integration of key activities in an organization include all of the following except _____________. A. horizontal organization structures B. horizontal systems and processes C. horizontal diversification D. communications and information technologies

Q: If a firm outsources some parts of its value chain in order to reduce costs and increase quality and at the same time engages in multiple alliances to penetrate new markets, this is a example of a firm using a ______________ of organizational types. A. combination B. boundaryless consortium C. bounded consortium D. barrier free collection

Q: Organizations generally tend to become internally focused when faced with ______________ and _____________. A. resource scarcity; declining performance B. internal pressures; improving performance C. resource abundance; declining performance D. external pressures; resource abundance

Q: Coca-Cola, Ford Motor Company, H. J. Heinz, Nike, and Procter and Gamble are working together to develop plant-based plastics. Each company brings its own competency to the table. This collaboration is an example of a _____________. A. virtual organization B. modular organization C. horizontal organization D. vertical organization

Q: Which of the following is not a disadvantage of virtual structures? A. difficulty in individual and organizational knowledge sharing B. potential loss of operational control among partners C. loss of strategic control over emerging technology D. difficulty in determining where one company ends and another begins due to close interdependencies

Q: Virtual organizations ______________ whereas modular organizations _____________. A. are usually permanent; are usually temporary B. accept interdependent destinies; pursue collective strategies C. pursue collective strategies; forfeit strategic control D. give up part of their strategic control; retain full strategic control

Q: A virtual organization may be most appropriate for firms _____________. A. whose strategies require merging technologies B. whose product life cycles are just beginning C. who have no need to get to market quickly with new offers D. who have no need to meet competitive pressures

Q: The phrase that best defines a virtual organization is _____________. A. a dot-com company B. a type of modular structure C. an organization that uses information technology to integrate different functions D. a continually evolving network of independent companies

Q: Nike is a company that makes use of the concept of product expatriates. Product expatriates are _____________. A. managers from the home country sent abroad to oversee the marketing of company products B. managers from suppliers who come to work at the company headquarters C. managers of the company sent abroad to work at the plants of its suppliers D. local nationals hired by the company in the countries from which it sources products

Q: Which of the following is NOT a strategic risk of outsourcing? A. loss of critical skills B. loss of cross-functional skills C. loss of control over a supplier D. loss of non-vital functions

Q: What advantages does outsourcing not provide an organization? A. accessing best in class goods and services B. enabling rapid expansion with relatively low capital investment C. focusing scarce resources on core competencies D. improved buyer positioning

Q: What is the name of the practice that many modular organization use to grow? A. operational effectiveness B. outsourcing C. strategic leveraging D. strategic enabling

Q: What type of organization is defined as a central hub surrounded by networks of outside suppliers and specialists? A. matrix organization B. virtual organization C. modular organization D. barrier-free organization

Q: Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of the barrier-free form of organization? A. Lack of strong leadership can lead to coordination problems. B. Democratic process can be time-consuming and difficult to manage. C. Additional integration issues result is a slower response to market changes. D. If trust among employees is not sufficiently high, organizational performance may suffer.

Q: Organizations are increasingly using teams for many reasons. The difference between a good team and an outstanding team has been found to be _____________. A. the combined technical skills of the members B. similarities in the way team members solve problems C. the way team members treat each other D. similarities in the age and experience of team member

Q: According to author, Jeffrey Pfeffer, which of the following is not an advantage of teams? A. Teams interact so closely and therefore coordination and integration becomes unnecessary. B. Teams substitute peer-based control for hierarchical control of work. C. Teams often develop more creative solutions, because they share. D. Teams permit the absorption of administrative tasks previously performed by specialists.

Q: Which of the following is not a boundaryless organizational design? A. virtual B. modular C. matrix D. barrier-free