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Management
Q:
Dan and Scott head the production and marketing departments, respectively, at KYP Solutions Inc. Dan wants to extend the roll-out date of a new product by two months in order to cash in on an impending decrease in the prices of raw materials. Scott, on the other hand, fears losing out to competition and wants Dan to start production immediately. In an attempt to resolve their conflict, Dan and Scott decide to produce a smaller number of units initially and scale up production once the prices of raw materials have decreased. This method of conflict resolution is known as _____.
A. accommodation
B. distributive negotiation
C. avoidance
D. competition
E. compromise
Q:
When differences are resolved by compromise or collaboration between the parties in disagreement, it is known as _____.
A. functional conflict resolution
B. top-down change
C. status inconsistency
D. retributive justice
E. distributive negotiation
Q:
The production manager at JPC Inc. faces difficulty in meeting the quarterly production target, as 10 of the production staff report in sick. Based on this scenario, which of the following sources of conflict is likely to cause conflict?
A. Different time horizons
B. Overlapping authority
C. Task interdependency
D. Different reward system
E. Scarce resources
Q:
The marketing department needs the production department to manufacture the goods it attempts to sell, while the production department needs the marketing department to find customers for the goods it produces. Which of the following is a source of conflict between the marketing and the production departments?
A. Scarce resources
B. Status inconsistency
C. Different evaluation system
D. Overlapping authority
E. Task interdependence
Q:
When two or more managers claim responsibility for the same activities or tasks, the source of conflict is _____.
A. task interdependence
B. different reward systems
C. scarce resources
D. overlapping authority
E. status inconsistency
Q:
Both the marketing division and the corporate communications department of Value Homes, a real estate company, claim responsibility for developing corporate marketing strategies. Which of the following could be a potential source of conflict between the two divisions?
A. Scarce resources
B. Overlapping authority
C. Different reward systems
D. Status inconsistency
E. Different time horizons
Q:
Kevin, the production manager at Hexavex Systems, prefers long production runs of thousands of units in order to drive the cost per unit down. However, Andrea, the marketing manager, prefers shorter production runs of a few hundred units in order to deliver the product more quickly to a key customer. Which of the following is the source of conflict between the two managers?
A. Different goals
B. Overlapping authority
C. Scarce resources
D. Different reward systems
E. Status inconsistencies
Q:
Managers at Delaware Appliances feel that an advertisement of one of their major competitors is false and tarnishes the reputation of Delaware Appliances. This can lead to which of the following types of conflict?
A. Intragroup conflict
B. Intrapersonal conflict
C. Intergroup conflict
D. Interorganizational conflict
E. Horizontal conflict
Q:
Conflict that takes place across different companies is known as:
A. interorganizational conflict.
B. interpersonal conflict.
C. top-down conflict.
D. intragroup conflict.
E. intergroup conflict.
Q:
Jim, the dean of student services, and Paula, the dean of academic affairs, disagree about how to handle the misconduct of a student. Their disagreement with each other signifies _____ conflict.
A. interpersonal
B. bottom-up
C. interorganizational
D. horizontal
E. top-down
Q:
Conflict that takes place between different departments of the same organization is known as:
A. intradepartmental conflict.
B. bottom-up conflict.
C. interorganizational conflict.
D. intragroup conflict.
E. intergroup conflict.
Q:
Two managers in the marketing department of SGR Inc. disagree on whether their organization should spend the bulk of its advertising budget on print advertising or Internet marketing. This is an example of _____ conflict.
A. intergroup
B. interdepartmental
C. intragroup
D. interorganizational
E. top-down
Q:
Conflict that takes place between members of the same department is known as:
A. interorganizational conflict.
B. top-down conflict.
C. interdepartmental conflict.
D. intragroup conflict.
E. intergroup conflict.
Q:
Michelle, the manager of human resources at KLP Consulting, and Carrie, the vice president of operations of the same organization, are in disagreement about their company's diversity policy. This is an example of _____ conflict.
A. intragroup
B. intradepartmental
C. interpersonal
D. interorganizational
E. horizontal
Q:
Which of the following is true of the impact of conflict on organizational performance?
A. Lack of conflict increases organizational performance.
B. Organizational performance is at its peak when an organization has dysfunctionally high levels of conflict.
C. Organizational performance is at its peak when there is an optimum level of conflict.
D. Organizational conflict must be avoided in order to achieve peak organizational performance.
E. Organizational performance suffers when there is an optimum level of conflict.
Q:
Mary and John are business partners, but they have frequent arguments at work due to the differences in their values and interests. This is an example of _____.
A. distributive justice
B. equity conflict
C. organizational conflict
D. workplace bullying
E. directive behavior
Q:
Discord arising from the incompatibility of goals of different individuals and their attempts to thwart each other's pursuit of objectives is known as:
A. workplace bullying.
B. social loafing.
C. organizational conflict.
D. participative behavior.
E. workplace harassment.
Q:
By making everyone a winner, a manager risks being perceived as a person who pursues his own interests.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Controlling the agenda is an obtrusive strategy for exercising power.
A. True
B. False
Q:
By controlling the agenda, managers influence which alternatives are considered or even whether a decision is made.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Bringing in an outside expert to support a proposal or decision reduces the credibility of a manager's initiatives.
A. True
B. False
Q:
By relying on objective information, politically skilled managers unobtrusively exercise their power to influence others.
A. True
B. False
Q:
When managers exercise power unobtrusively, other members of an organization are completely aware that the managers are using their power to influence them.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Managers who use political strategies to increase and maintain their power are better able to influence others to work toward the achievement of group and organizational goals.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Effective managers engage in politics to gain support for and implement needed changes.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Organizational politics always has a negative effect on organizational effectiveness.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Managers often engage in organizational politics to resolve conflicts in their favor.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The activities that managers engage in to increase their power and use power effectively to achieve their goals are known as organizational politics.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Focusing on what is fair is consistent with the principle of distributive negotiation.
A. True
B. False
Q:
While demands are why a person wants something, interests are what the person wants.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Focusing on people and not the problem is consistent with integrative bargaining.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Superordinate goals are goals that all parties involved in a conflict agree to support.
A. True
B. False
Q:
In integrative bargaining, the parties in conflict perceive that they can increase the resource pie by finding a creative solution to the conflict.
A. True
B. False
Q:
In distributive negotiation, the parties in conflict believe that they have a fixed pie of resources that they need to divide.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Arbitrators cannot force the parties involved in a conflict to make concessions, nor can they force an agreement to resolve a conflict.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Norms and values in an organizational culture might inadvertently promote dysfunctionally high levels of conflict that are difficult to resolve.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Managers can effectively resolve conflicts by decreasing levels of integration in an organization.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The structure of an organization should not be changed to resolve conflicts.
A. True
B. False
Q:
By increasing peoples awareness of the source of conflict, managers can help resolve conflict functionally.
A. True
B. False
Q:
How can managers become better listeners?
Q:
What are the communication skills that managers must possess as receivers of messages?
Q:
How can managers be effective as senders of messages?
Q:
When would managers most likely be able to successfully use groupware as a communication medium in their organizations?
Q:
What are communication networks? What are the different types of communication networks?
Q:
What is the importance of impersonal written communication?
Q:
What are the different types of communication media?
Q:
Define information richness. What are the factors that managers must consider before selecting a communication medium?
Q:
Define verbal and nonverbal communication. How does nonverbal communication reinforce verbal communication?
Q:
Discuss the importance of good communication and its relationship to an organization's competitive advantage.
Q:
The ways in which men communicate emphasize _____.
A. similarities
B. status differences
C. comradeship
D. team spirit
E. companionship
Q:
Which of the following is an element of linguistic style?
A. Body language
B. Facial expression
C. Postures
D. Gestures
E. Tone of voice
Q:
Eric has a unique way of speaking. He pauses a lot and speaks in a slow monotone. This characteristic way of speaking is known as _____.
A. information distortion
B. linguistic style
C. filtering
D. vocal pitch
E. information richness
Q:
A person's characteristic way of speaking is known as _____.
A. empathy
B. linguistic style
C. managerial skill
D. vocal pitch
E. jargon
Q:
Joe is listening to Mat and trying to understand Mat's point of view. Joe is being:
A. sympathetic.
B. empathetic.
C. aesthetic.
D. a good sender.
E. optimistic.
Q:
To be a good listener, a manager should:
A. interrupt the sender when he or she is being unclear.
B. avoid looking directly at the sender to keep from embarrassing him or her.
C. paraphrase what the sender has said.
D. not ask questions.
E. repeat exactly what the sender said.
Q:
Unofficial information that is of interest to the receivers within an organization but does not have an identifiable source is known as _____.
A. jargon
B. rumor
C. noise
D. information enrichment
E. bias
Q:
_____ occurs when the meaning of a message changes as the message passes through a series of senders and receivers.
A. Information enrichment
B. Noise
C. Information overload
D. Information distortion
E. Information collaboration
Q:
_____ occurs when senders withhold part of the message because they think the receiver does not need the information.
A. Noise
B. Information enrichment
C. Filtering
D. Information overload
E. Information crash
Q:
_____ is the specialized language that members of an occupation, group, or organization develop to facilitate communication among themselves that should never be used when communicating with people outside the occupation, group, or organization.
A. Code
B. Grapevine
C. Rumor
D. Groupware
E. Jargon
Q:
Which of the following must managers do as senders of messages?
A. They must filter the information before sending.
B. They must encode messages in symbols that only they understand to maintain confidentiality.
C. They must select a medium which they are comfortable using irrespective of its appropriateness for the message.
D. They must select a medium that the receiver does not monitor.
E. They must ensure that a feedback mechanism is built into messages.
Q:
Managers are most likely to successfully use groupware as a communication medium when:
A. the work is individual-based.
B. the organization has a flexible culture.
C. groupware has little support from the top management.
D. the organization rewards employees for individual performance.
E. the organization has a rigid hierarchy.
Q:
Computer software that enables teams to share information with each other is called _____.
A. wheel network
B. groupware
C. all-channel network
D. grapevine
E. chain network
Q:
An internal, company-wide system of computer networks is called a(n) _____.
A. Internet
B. intranet
C. grapevine
D. all-channel network
E. matrix network
Q:
A global system of computer networks that is easy to join and is used by employees of organizations around the world to communicate inside and outside their companies is referred to as _____.
A. the Internet
B. the intranet
C. the grapevine
D. the all-channel network
E. the feedback network
Q:
The informal organizational network through which unofficial information flows is called _____.
A. the grapevine
B. the all-channel network
C. the wheel network
D. the circle network
E. the chain network
Q:
Which of the following types of communication networks do self-managed teams within an organization typically have?
A. Chain network
B. Cubic network
C. Circle network
D. All-channel network
E. Wheel network
Q:
In which of the following communication networks do group members communicate with every other group member?
A. Circle network
B. Wheel network
C. All-channel network
D. Cubic network
E. Chain network
Q:
The idea that managers tend to communicate more with other managers who share similar beliefs and experiences is represented by which type of communication network?
A. Chain network
B. Wheel network
C. Circle network
D. Groupware network
E. All-channel network
Q:
Which of the following is true of a chain network?
A. It enables flow of information to and from one central member of the group.
B. It usually does not to exist in teams.
C. It is found in groups with pooled task interdependence.
D. It does not require group members to communicate with each other.
E. It allows group members to only communicate with people who are similar to them in experiences.
Q:
In which of the following communication networks do members communicate with one another in a predetermined sequence?
A. Chain network
B. Wheel network
C. All-channel network
D. Circle network
E. Grapevine network
Q:
Which of the following is true of a wheel network?
A. In a wheel network, members communicate with one another in a predetermined sequence.
B. In a wheel network, all the members of a group need to communicate with one another to perform at a high level.
C. In a wheel network, a group accomplishes its goals by directing communication to and from a central member.
D. In a wheel network operating in command groups, the efficiency of communication is low.
E. In a wheel network operating in command groups, performance is compromised.
Q:
Which of the following communication networks is often found in command groups with pooled task interdependence?
A. Circle network
B. All-channel network
C. Chain network
D. Wheel network
E. Cubic network
Q:
Information flows to and from one central member of the group in a _____ network.
A. circle
B. all-channel
C. chain
D. wheel
E. cubic
Q:
The pathway along which information flows throughout an organization is called _____.
A. organizational structure
B. communication network
C. organizational culture
D. organizational design
E. cross-functional link
Q:
Which of the following is true of impersonal written communication?
A. It is highest in information richness.
B. It is addressed to particular receivers.
C. It does not allow documentation of the messages exchanged.
D. It generally does not result in feedback.
E. It cannot be retrieved electronically.
Q:
Douglas put together a company newsletter to talk about general topics about the company to all of the employees. This is an example of _____.
A. personal written communication
B. impersonal written communication
C. formal written communication
D. face-to-face communication
E. electronic verbal communication
Q:
The potential for important information to be ignored or overlooked (even that which is personally addressed) while tangential information receives attention is referred to as _____.
A. noise
B. information richness
C. information overload
D. information distortion
E. information circle
Q:
Which of the following forms of communication is lowest in information richness?
A. E-mail
B. Video conference
C. Management by wandering around
D. Voice mail
E. Impersonal written communication
Q:
Telecommuters are:
A. people who are employed by an organization but are permanently placed in a client location.
B. people who are employed by an organization but work out of offices in their own homes.
C. people who are employed by one organization but work for another client organization.
D. people who are always on the move, traveling back and forth to the office, attending one client meeting after another.
E. people who are self-employed.
Q:
_____ refer(s) to company-wide systems that allow managers to send and receive verbal electronic messages over telephone lines even when they are hundreds of miles away from the office.
A. Grapevine system
B. Voice-mail system
C. Blog
D. Instant-messaging system
E. Groupware collaborative system