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Management
Q:
Quiet and earnest managers cannot be charismatic.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Transformational managers motivate their subordinates to work for their own personal development and not for the benefit of the organization.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Transformational managers make their subordinates aware of the subordinates' own needs for personal growth, development, and accomplishment.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The leader substitutes model is a contingency model because it suggests that in some situations leadership is unnecessary.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Directive behaviors are beneficial when used on independent-thinking subordinates who work best when left alone.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Path-goal theory focuses on what a leader can do to motivate subordinates to achieve organizational goals.
A. True
B. False
Q:
According to Fiedler, positional power is the amount of legitimate, reward, and coercive power a leader has by virtue of his or her rank in an organization.
A. True
B. False
Q:
According to Fiedler, the situational characteristic which deals with the extent to which subordinates trust and are loyal to a leader is known as task structure.
A. True
B. False
Q:
According to Fiedler, managers can change their leadership style to suit different situations.
A. True
B. False
Q:
According to Fiedler, task-oriented leaders are primarily concerned with ensuring that subordinates perform their work activities at a high quality level.
A. True
B. False
Q:
According to Fiedler's contingency model, relationship-oriented leaders prioritize organizational goals over employee-welfare and focus on task accomplishment.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Fiedler's contingency model of leadership helps explain why a manager may be an effective leader in one type of situation and an ineffective leader in another situation.
A. True
B. False
Q:
According to contingency models of leadership, the behaviors that make a manager effective in one situation will make the manager effective in all situations.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Leaders can be effective even when they do not perform consideration or initiating-structure behaviors.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Initiating structure and consideration are dependent leader behaviors; an increase in one behavior leads to a decrease in the other behavior.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Leaders engage in initiating structure when they take steps to make sure that work gets done.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Josh demonstrates consideration to his subordinates when he shows them respect.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The lack of a consistent relationship between leader traits and leader effectiveness led to the development of the behavior model.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The trait model of leadership takes into account the situation or context within which leadership occurs.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Empowerment often increases workers involvement, motivation, and commitment.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Empowerment is incompatible with effective leadership.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Coercive power is the power that comes from subordinates and coworkers respect, admiration, and loyalty.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Referent power is based on the special knowledge, skills, and expertise that a leader possesses.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Jim has the authority to fire an employee for violating the company's privacy policy. It can be said that Jim has coercive power.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Elmer has the ability to give Jordan an annual raise. Elmer has reward power.
A. True
B. False
Q:
The authority that a manager has based on his position in the organization's hierarchy is known as expert power.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Effective leadership styles are identical across countries and cultures.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Servant leaders share power with followers and strive to ensure that followers' most important needs are met.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Since leading is one of the four principal tasks of managing, there is no distinction made between managers and leaders.
A. True
B. False
Q:
Leadership is the process by which a person exerts influence over other people and directs their activities to help achieve group goals.
A. True
B. False
Q:
When leaders are effective, their subordinates are highly motivated, committed, and high-performing.
A. True
B. False
Q:
What is emotional intelligence? How does it contribute to leader effectiveness?
Q:
Discuss the participation levels of female leaders.
Q:
Differentiate between transformational leadership and transactional leadership.
Q:
Explain the concept of transformational leadership. In what way do transformational leaders affect subordinates?
Q:
Describe the leader substitutes model. Why is it a contingency model?
Q:
Discuss the premise of the path-goal theory briefly. Why is it a contingency model?
Q:
Describe the three situational characteristics in Fiedler's leadership theory that allow a leader to determine the favorableness or unfavorableness of a situation for leading.
Q:
Discuss the two kinds of leader behaviors presented in the behavior model of leadership.
Q:
Differentiate between the five types of power that leaders use.
Q:
Define leadership and differentiate between a leader and a manager.
Q:
Which of the following managers has high emotional intelligence?
A. Judy, who admits to mistakes when she makes them
B. Raymond, who seldom empathizes with his employees
C. Rita, who has poor interpersonal skills
D. Anthony, who cannot motivate his employees to commit to his vision
E. Eunice, who uses coercive power frequently
Q:
Leaders who are high in ______ are more likely to be able to awaken and support the creative pursuits of their followers.
A. ethnocentrism
B. emotional intelligence
C. dominance
D. coercive power
E. conformity
Q:
Which of the following is true of managers with high emotional intelligence?
A. They easily encourage their employees to be creative.
B. They find it hard owning up to their mistakes.
C. They use coercive power frequently.
D. They have a hard time empathizing with subordinates.
E. They have poor interpersonal skills.
Q:
A high level of _____ may help leaders develop a vision for their organizations, motivate their subordinates to commit to this vision, and energize them to enthusiastically work to achieve this vision.
A. emotional intelligence
B. ethnocentrism
C. positivism
D. coercive power
E. rationalism
Q:
Which of the following explains why female managers are more participative than their male counterparts?
A. They face more resistance to influence than men.
B. They engage in more initiating structure than men.
C. They engage in more consideration than men.
D. They tend to be more relationship-oriented as managers.
E. They have poorer interpersonal skills than male managers.
Q:
Which of the following is true of male and female managers?
A. Male and female managers have been found to be equally participative as leaders.
B. Male and female managers differ significantly in their propensities to perform different leader behaviors.
C. Male managers tend to involve subordinates in their decision making more often than female managers.
D. Female managers tend to hand out more lenient punishments than male managers.
E. Male managers have less difficulty managing interpersonal relationships than female managers.
Q:
Women tend to be stereotyped as being ______.
A. supportive
B. domineering
C. controlling
D. autocratic
E. uncommunicative
Q:
How can pay be used as a source of motivation? How do need theories, the expectance theory, and learning theories describe the importance of pay?
Q:
What are the pros and cons of using punishment as a way to eliminate dysfunctional behaviors? How can managers avoid the unintended side effects of punishment?
Q:
Explain the operant conditioning theory briefly.
Q:
Discuss McClelland's theory of needs.
Q:
Discuss Herzberg's motivator-hygiene theory. Differentiate between motivator needs and hygiene needs.
Q:
Discuss Alderfer's ERG theory.
Q:
What are the different types of needs according to Maslow?
Q:
According to the expectancy theory, what are the different factors that determine a person's motivation?
Q:
Define intrinsic, extrinsic, and prosocial motivation. With an example, show how a person can be motivated by all three at the same time.
Q:
Define motivation and describe the psychological factors that contribute to motivation.
Q:
The _____ plan motivates employees to propose and implement cost-cutting strategies because a percentage of the cost savings achieved during the specified time is distributed to the employees.
A. commission
B. equity
C. piece-rate
D. stock-option
E. Scanlon
Q:
When an organization bases employees' pay on the number of units each employee produces, it is using a(n) _____.
A. equity plan
B. Scanlon plan
C. piece-rate plan
D. commission pay plan
E. stock option plan
Q:
Which of the following is true of employee stock options?
A. They are used in lieu of payment for entry-level employees.
B. They are used in lieu of payment for high-level managers.
C. They are used to motivate employees to achieve organizational goals.
D. They are used to attract customers from different market segments.
E. They are used to decrease the value of stock options.
Q:
As a reward for completing his assignment two weeks ahead of schedule, Scott rewarded himself with a long vacation. The reward is a(n) _____.
A. vicarious reinforcer
B. negative reinforcer
C. self-reinforcer
D. relative reinforcer
E. absolute reinforcer
Q:
_____ is a persons belief about his or her ability to perform a behavior successfully.
A. Self-enhancement
B. Self-efficacy
C. Self-actualization
D. Self-awareness
E. Self-respect
Q:
Which of the following theories proposes that motivation results not only from direct experience of rewards and punishments but also from a person's thoughts and beliefs?
A. Needs hierarchy theory
B. ERG theory
C. Equity theory
D. Operant conditioning theory
E. Social learning theory
Q:
Why is organizational behavior modification criticized?
A. It fails to give managers a technique to motivate the performance of organizationally functional behaviors.
B. It has been unsuccessful when used to improve productivity, efficiency, attendance, and punctuality.
C. It can rob people of their individuality, freedom of choice, and creativity if used ineptly.
D. It does not work for behaviors that are specific, objective, and countable.
E. It is highly ineffective in promoting organizational efficiency among employees.
Q:
When John violated the company's code of ethics, he was suspended for eight weeks without pay. This is an example of _____.
A. extinction
B. positive reinforcement
C. negative reinforcement
D. extraction
E. punishment
Q:
_____ reinforcement gives people outcomes they desire when they perform organizationally functional behaviors.
A. Negative
B. Extrinsic
C. Positive
D. Intrinsic
E. Absolute
Q:
One way for managers to curtail the performance of dysfunctional behaviors is to eliminate whatever is reinforcing the behaviors. This process is called _____.
A. extinction
B. punishment
C. extraction
D. instrumentality
E. termination
Q:
When _____ reinforcement is used, people are motivated to perform behaviors because they want to stop receiving or avoid undesired outcomes.
A. positive
B. absolute
C. intrinsic
D. negative
E. extrinsic
Q:
According to _____, employees will be motivated to perform at a high level and attain their work goals to the extent that high performance and goal attainment allow them to obtain outcomes they desire.
A. Clayton Alderfer's ERG theory
B. McClelland's three-needs theory
C. Herzberg's motivator-hygiene theory
D. Victor H. Vroom's expectancy theory
E. B. F. Skinner's operant conditioning theory
Q:
The goal-setting theory:
A. states that to stimulate high motivation and performance, goals must be generic.
B. suggests that underpayment inequity motivates employees to achieve organizational goals.
C. considers how managers can align the input of employees with organizational goals.
D. examines the different types of rewards and punishments that can be used to reinforce goal-oriented behavior.
E. suggests that people are most motivated to achieve organizational goals when they have low levels of job satisfaction.
Q:
_____ considers how managers can ensure that organization members focus their inputs in the direction of high performance and the achievement of organizational targets.
A. Goal-setting theory
B. ERG theory
C. Three-needs theory
D. Operant conditioning theory
E. Motivator-hygiene theory
Q:
Julia perceives that she is working harder than a number of her coworkers and being paid less when compared to them. Julia is likely to be motivated to:
A. improve her work attendance.
B. increase her working hours.
C. lower her work inputs. Author: Answer was incorrect. See feedback
D. ask for more work.
E. decline a promotion.
Q:
Tracy, an employee at Nationwide Cellular, perceives that her outcome-input ratio is higher than that of her coworker Julia. This is an example of:
A. overpayment inequity.
B. underpayment inequity.
C. absolute equity.
D. instrumental equity.
E. terminal equity.
Q:
_____ exists when a person's own outcome-input ratio is perceived to be less than that of a referent.
A. Absolute equity
B. Instrumental equity
C. Terminal equity
D. Underpayment inequity
E. Overpayment inequity
Q:
_____ is a theory of motivation that concentrates on peoples perceptions of the fairness of their work outcomes relative to, or in proportion to, their work inputs.
A. Equity theory
B. Expectancy theory
C. Goal-setting theory
D. ERG theory
E. Three-needs theory
Q:
Carrow is a manager who believes that maintaining control over his employees is more important than maintaining cordial relationships with them. According to McClelland's three-needs theory, Carrow has a:
A. high need for power and low need for affiliation.
B. high need for power and high need for affiliation.
C. low need for power and low need for achievement.
D. low need for achievement and high need for affiliation
E. low need for power and low need for affiliation
Q:
Harry has a strong desire to perform challenging tasks well and to meet personal standards for excellence, even at the expense of maintaining good interpersonal relationships with his employees. According to McClelland's three-needs theory, Harry has a:
A. high need for affiliation and high need for achievement.
B. low need for affiliation and high need for achievement.
C. high need for affiliation and low need for power.
D. high need for power and high need for affiliation
E. low need for achievement and low need for power
Q:
Michelle has a strong desire to perform challenging tasks well and to meet personal standards for excellence. However, she does not wish do to so at the expense of maintaining good interpersonal relationships with her employees. According to McClelland's three-needs theory, Michelle has a:
A. high need for affiliation and high need for achievement.
B. low need for affiliation and low need for power.
C. low need for achievement and low need for affiliation.
D. high need for power and low need for affiliation
E. low need for achievement and high need for power
Q:
According to McClelland, the need for affiliation is the extent to which an individual:
A. desires to perform challenging tasks well.
B. wants to meet personal standards for excellence.
C. is concerned about maintaining good interpersonal relations.
D. desires to control other people.
E. wishes to receive performance feedback.