Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Marketing
Q:
Rather than compete with large greeting card companies for shelf space in supermarkets, several smaller card companies place their cards in pack-and-ship stores where the customer can mail a card on the spur of the moment, or in carwashes where customers are waiting and appreciate having something amusing to read. This would be an example of which type of marketing channel strategy?
a. a strategic channel alliance
b. multichannel distribution
c. parallel distribution
d. dual distribution
e. direct distribution
Q:
Pharmaceutical companies sell some of their products to hospitals and clinics directly. They also market other products to large retail chains like Walgreens that distribute them to their stores across the nation. In addition, they sell products to drug wholesalers that sell to the remaining independent drugstores in the U.S. What method of distribution best describes the method used by pharmaceutical companies in this example?
a. dual distribution
b. vertical distribution
c. horizontal distribution
d. direct distribution
e. exclusive distribution
Q:
In some instances, firms pair multiple channels with a multibrand strategy. The purpose of this strategy would be to __________ of the firm's family brand and differentiate its marketing channels.
a. create greater perceived value
b. maximize channel profits
c. minimize cannibalization
d. generate awareness
e. create a "backup" channel
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding quantity discounts is most accurate?
a. Noncumulative quantity discounts encourage large individual purchase orders, not a series of orders.
b. Noncumulative quantity discounts encourage repeat buying by a single customer to a far greater degree than do cumulative quantity discounts.
c. Quantity discounts are primarily used to undercut competitors' prices.
d. Noncumulative quantity discounts encourage smaller long-term repeat purchases rather than less-frequent, larger short-term purchases.
e. Quantity discounts can basically be used only once with each reseller or the price will increase.
Q:
Noncumulative quantity discounts refer to
a. discounts that are based on a series of orders rather than on the size of an individual order.
b. one-time discounts per customer or household.
c. one-time discounts that must be used within a certain time frame or they become null and void.
d. discounts used to place new products on supermarket shelves.
e. discounts that are based on the size of an individual purchase order, rather than a series of orders.
Q:
A discount that is based on the size of an individual purchase order rather than a series of repeat orders is referred to as a(n)
a. cumulative quantity discount.
b. bundle pricing.
c. economic order discount.
d. noncumulative quantity discount.
e. promotional allowance.
Q:
Mike Morgan, a sales representative for a major food service distributor of General Mill Warm Delights, wanted to encourage repeat purchases by his grocery customers. In order to accomplish this objective, Morgan offered the following discounts to his customers: a 10 percent discount for buying 1-49 cases of Warm Delights within a calendar month; the discount increases to 12 percent if 50-99 cases of Warm Delights are purchased within the same calendar month; and the discount increases to 15 percent if 100 or more cases of Warm Delights are purchased within the same calendar month. What type of discount was Morgan offering his grocery customers?
a. a seasonal discount
b. a quantity discount
c. a cash discount
d. a trade discount
e. a case allowance discount
Q:
Your local instant photocopying service charges 10 cents a copy up to 25 copies, 9 cents a copy for 26 to 99 copies, and 8 cents a copy for 100 copies or more. What kind of adjustment to these list or quoted prices is the photocopying service using?
a. experience curve pricing
b. loss-leader pricing
c. a quantity discount
d. a promotional discount
e. everyday low pricing
Q:
Quantity discounts refer to
a. price reductions in unit costs for placing a larger order.
b. price reductions for placing long-term pre-scheduled orders.
c. price reductions to encourage retailers to stock inventory earlier than their normal demand would require.
d. reductions in unit costs for purchasing items that are nearing their expiration dates.
e. reductions in unit costs for taking merchandise that will soon be replaced by new and improved versions of the original product.
Q:
Reductions in unit costs for a larger order are referred to as
a. promotional allowances.
b. quantity discounts.
c. economic order discounts.
d. penetration pricing.
e. case allowances.
Q:
The four types of discounts are
a. quantity, trade-in, promotional, and cash.
b. quantity, seasonal, trade (functional), and cash.
c. quantity, seasonal, promotional, and FOB.
d. cash, trade-in, seasonal, and promotional.
e. trade-in, promotional, geographic, and functional.
Q:
Discounts refer to reductions from the __________ that a seller gives a buyer as a reward for some activity of the buyer that is favorable to the seller.
a. final price
b. list price
c. manufacturer's suggested retail price
d. manufacturer's cost
e. retailer's cost
Q:
A reduction from the list price that a seller gives a buyer as a reward for some activity of the buyer that is favorable to the seller is called
a. the pretax price.
b. the list price.
c. the manufacturer's suggested retail price (MSRP).
d. a discount.
e. a trade-in allowance.
Q:
Figure 1.
Figure 1. above shows the three types of special adjustments to list or quoted price. "C" represents
a. demand-oriented price adjustments.
b. allowances.
c. discounts.
d. customary pricing adjustments.
e. geographical adjustments.
Q:
Figure 1.
Figure 1. above shows the three types of special adjustments to list or quoted price. "B" represents
a. demand-oriented price adjustments.
b. geographical adjustments.
c. allowances.
d. discounts.
e. customary pricing adjustments.
Q:
Figure 1.
Figure 1. above shows the three types of special adjustments to list or quoted price. "A" represents
a. demand-oriented price adjustments.
b. allowances.
c. geographical adjustments.
d. discounts.
e. customary pricing adjustments.
Q:
The three major types of special adjustments to list or quoted price are
a. demand-oriented, cost-oriented, and profit-oriented adjustments.
b. one price, flexible price, and discounts.
c. discounts, allowances, and marginal adjustments.
d. discounts, allowances, and geographical adjustments.
e. discounts, incremental costs and revenues, and geographical adjustments.
Q:
It is relatively easy to measure the incremental cost of a new advertising campaign; what is not as easy is
a. measuring the extra fixed cost involved.
b. measuring the extra variable cost involved.
c. measuring the incremental revenue generated by the new advertising campaign.
d. determining whether customers who stop buying the product are reacting negatively to the advertisement or to some other aspect of the product itself.
e. determining what percentage of the ad-generated revenue should be reinvested into additional advertisements of the same form.
Q:
Marginal analysis might take the form of such questions as, "Should we extend our hours to include Sundays?" or "What if we put more apples in the pie?" The basic principle is that
a. as long as a marketing action breaks even, the action is worth taking.
b. expected incremental revenues from pricing and other marketing actions must more than offset incremental costs.
c. you "don"t rock the boat" if your program is making a profit; instead, you "leave well enough alone."
d. if you are not willing to take risks, even if the numbers tell you otherwise, your business will ultimately fail.
e. marketing and finance are two different animals: "If it feels right in your gut "u00a6 go for it."
Q:
Marginal analysis refers to
a. a continuing, concise trade-off of incremental costs against incremental revenues.
b. the change in total cost that results from producing and marketing one additional unit of a product.
c. a technique that analyzes the relationship between total revenue and total cost to determine profitability at various levels of output.
d. a continuing concise trade-off of incremental ROI and incremental ROA.
e. a technique that analyzes the relationship between revenues, profit, and market share relative to changes in market growth rates.
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding price cutting is most accurate?
a. Marketers should only consider price cutting if primary demand for a product class will remain stable.
b. Marketers should only consider price cutting if the price cut can be made across all items in a product line and all product lines in a product mix.
c. Marketers should only consider price cutting if the price cut is confined to customers within specific target market segments.
d. Marketers should only consider price cutting if the firm also increases advertising.
e. Marketers should never consider price cutting unless a product is in the introductory stage of its product life cycle.
Q:
A price war refers to
a. competition between sellers and resellers to maintain or attain the largest market share of potential customers.
b. conflicts between manufacturers and distributors regarding acceptable percentages they each may charge relative to one another.
c. when one channel member believes another channel member is engaged in pricing behavior that prevents it from achieving its profitability goals.
d. the successive price cutting by competitors to increase or maintain their unit sales or market share.
e. the practice of replacing promotional allowances with lower manufacturer list prices.
Q:
The successive price cutting by competitors to increase or maintain their unit sales or market share is referred to as
a. everyday low pricing.
b. a price war.
c. fair trade pricing.
d. a market war.
e. a price reduction.
Q:
The Hummer was an attention-getting SUV that sold for $80,000 in a limited number of dealerships. Then, General Motors developed a smaller version for $50,000 that could be sold in many more outlets. To cover costs and reach the market faster, the Hummer H2 shared some parts with other GM cars. To which customer effects did Hummer marketing managers need to pay particular attention?
a. The price of Hummer H2 should make sense to customers and reflect differences in the perceived value of the H2 relative to the original Hummer.
b. Elements such as gas mileage, color, and interior fabrics will be important for H2 customers.
c. The most important element of the H2 is its versatility as a family vehicle.
d. Comfort and fuel efficiency will be more important than price for H2 customers.
e. GM used a penetration pricing strategy for the original Hummer; the H2 continues this pricing strategy to maximize profit.
Q:
Toro decided to augment its traditional hardware retail distribution channel by also selling through mass merchandisers, such as Walmart and Target, and set prices for its products substantially below those for its traditional hardware outlets. As a result, many hardware stores abandoned Toro products in favor of other manufacturers. This is an example of a firm failing to consider __________ effects when setting its final list or quoted price.
a. company
b. social responsibility
c. regulatory
d. competitive
e. customer
Q:
Tostitos Photo
Consider the Tostitos products photo above. Frito-Lay recognizes that its tortilla chip products are partial substitutes for one another. The company's bean and cheese dips and salsa sauces complement its tortilla chips. Frito-Lay uses this knowledge to set prices for each item, which is known as
a. bundle pricing.
b. price lining.
c. customary pricing.
d. product-line pricing.
e. loss-leader pricing.
Q:
The price for Nintendo's Wii video game console was likely insufficient to cover its fixed and variable costs. However, the price of its video games was set high enough to cover the video game console loss and deliver a handsome profit for the entire Nintendo product line. This example illustrates Nintendo's use of
a. bundle pricing.
b. product-line pricing.
c. price lining.
d. customary pricing.
e. loss-leader pricing.
Q:
Different brands within a company's product line generally have different profit margins; for example, items with higher price lines have higher profit margins. Nike Variety tennis shoes have variable costs of $6 and sell for $24, whereas Nike Wimbledon tennis shoes have variable costs of $38 and sell for $48, but when fixed overhead is added, the shoe is unprofitable by $2 per pair. Which statement is most accurate regarding Nike's pricing approach with these two product lines?
a. Demand for each shoe line is unrelated to price.
b. Nike is using a cost-plus percentage-of-cost pricing strategy.
c. Nike is using a product-line pricing strategy.
d. Demand for each shoe line is unrelated to product quality.
e. Consumers do not use price as an indication of quality.
Q:
When establishing product-line pricing, the price differentials between items in the line should make sense to customers and reflect differences in terms of the
a. perceived value of the products offered.
b. actual costs in terms of the features offered.
c. perceived risk.
d. quantity discounts and price allowances offered.
e. market segments targeted.
Q:
When establishing product line pricing, the lowest-priced item is typically positioned as
a. the youngest product item in the line.
b. the smallest-selling product item in the line.
c. the lost-cost item in the line in terms of quality and features.
d. the profit leader for the rest of the product line.
e. the traffic builder designed to capture the attention of hesitant or first-time buyers.
Q:
When establishing product line pricing, the highest priced item is typically positioned as
a. the oldest product item in the line.
b. the best-selling product item in the line.
c. the premium item in terms of quality and features.
d. the loss leader item for the rest of the product line.
e. the most price insensitive product item in the line.
Q:
Product-line pricing involves determining: (1) the lowest-priced product and price; (2) the highest-priced product and price; and (3) __________.
a. the single most popular item in the line
b. the least vulnerable product in the line
c. the most frequently sold product in the line
d. the most price insensitive product in the line
e. the price differentials for all other products in the line
Q:
Product-line pricing involves determining: (1) the lowest-priced product and price; (2) __________; and (3) the price differentials for all other products in the line.
a. the single most popular item in the line
b. the least vulnerable product in the line
c. the highest-priced product and price
d. the most frequently sold product in the line
e. the most price insensitive product in the line
Q:
Product-line pricing refers to
a. setting the price of a line of products at a number of different specific pricing points.
b. deliberately selling a product below its customary price, not to increase sales, but to attract customers' attention in hopes that they will buy other products as well.
c. adding a fixed percentage to the cost of all items in a specific product class.
d. setting of prices for all items in a product line to cover the total cost and produce a profit for the complete line, not necessarily for each item.
e. the marketing of two or more products in a single package.
Q:
The setting of prices for all items in a product line to cover the total cost and produce a profit for the complete line, not necessarily for each item, is referred to as
a. line item pricing.
b. product-line pricing.
c. price lining.
d. customary pricing.
e. discretionary pricing.
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding new car purchases in the U.S. is most accurate?
a. While men of all races pay basically the same price, women, regardless of race, pay considerably less.
b. Seventy-nine percent of all men purchasing cars cite haggling over price as the most exciting aspect of the purchase.
c. A one-price policy is now the standard in the automobile industry due to violations of the Robinson-Patman Act.
d. Female automobile salespeople rarely, if ever, offer flexible pricing to female customers.
e. African Americans, women, and Hispanics pay higher than the average price for a new car.
Q:
Consider the flexible pricing chart above, which shows the results of a National Bureau of Economic Research study of 750,000 car purchases. The data indicate that some groups of car buyers, on average, paid roughly $105, $423, and $483 more, respectively, for a new car in the $21,000 range than the typical purchaser. Who are the car buyers in "C?"
a. women
b. the elderly
c. Hispanics
d. African Americans
e. Asian Anericans
Q:
Flexible Pricing Chart
Consider the flexible pricing chart above, which shows the results of a National Bureau of Economic Research study of 750,000 car purchases. The data indicate that some groups of car buyers, on average, paid roughly $105, $423, and $483 more, respectively, for a new car in the $21,000 range than the typical purchaser. Who are the car buyers in "B?"
a. women
b. the elderly
c. Hispanics
d. African Americans
e. Asian Anericans
Q:
Flexible Pricing Chart
Consider the flexible pricing chart above, which shows the results of a National Bureau of Economic Research study of 750,000 car purchases. The data indicate that some groups of car buyers, on average, paid roughly $105, $423, and $483 more, respectively, for a new car in the $21,000 range than the typical purchaser. Who are the car buyers in "A?"
a. women
b. the elderly
c. Hispanics
d. AfricanAmericans
e. Asian Anericans
Q:
When buying a car, __________ may result in discriminatory practices.
a. fixed pricing
b. a one-price policy
c. a flexible-price policy
d. target return-on-sales pricing
e. "no haggle" pricing
Q:
What do 60 percent of prospective buyers dread about looking for a new car?
a. selecting the preferred brand
b. negotiating the price
c. taking a test drive
d. experiencing postpurchase dissonance
e. searching for cars on the Internet
Q:
Which of the following statements about a flexible-price policy is most accurate?
a. A flexible-price policy is especially suited to low cost items where profit margins are slim.
b. A flexible-price policy should not be used with large ticket items such as cars or real estate.
c. When using a flexible-price policy, the seller may risk violating the Robinson-Patman Act.
d. Flexible pricing is not a form of yield management pricing.
e. Flexible pricing is rarely used for online purchases because of the high cost to develop information technology and data warehouses.
Q:
The way that a person navigates through an online marketer's website is called
a. surf-shopping behavior.
b. cross-channel shopping.
c. the clickstream.
d. 1-click shopping.
e. the shopper pathway.
Q:
Yield management pricing is a form of
a. target pricing.
b. loss-leader pricing.
c. dynamic pricing.
d. customary pricing.
e. price lining.
Q:
Which of the following is a form of flexible pricing?
a. odd-even pricing
b. yield management pricing
c. above-, at-, or below-market pricing
d. target pricing
e. cost-plus pricing
Q:
A flexible-price policy gives marketers __________ in setting the final price in light of demand, cost, and competitive factors.
a. no leeway
b. total freedom
c. little discretion
d. considerable discretion
e. limited competitive authority
Q:
Another name for flexible-price policy is __________.
a. target pricing
b. fluid pricing
c. price lining
d. market-based pricing
e. dynamic pricing
Q:
A flexible-price policy refers to
a. setting the price of a line of products at a number of different specific pricing points.
b. setting the prices for all items in a product line to cover the total cost and produce a profit for the complete line, not necessarily for each item.
c. deliberately selling a product below its customary price, not to increase sales, but to attract customers' attention in hopes that they will buy other products as well.
d. setting different prices for products and services depending on individual buyers and purchase situations.
e. Adding a fixed percentage to the cost of all items in a specific product class.
Q:
Setting different prices for products and services depending on individual buyers and purchase situations is referred to as
a. price lining.
b. a flexible-price policy.
c. customary pricing.
d. price fixing.
e. discretionary pricing.
Q:
Family Dollar Stores Photo
Tendollars.com offers thousands of gifts, all priced at $10. This is an example of two pricing methods working in tandem. The firm is MOST LIKELY using a(n) __________ and a(n) __________.
a. customary pricing approach; skimming pricing approach
b. odd-even pricing approach; loss-leader pricing approach
c. below-market pricing approach; one-price policy
d. penetration pricing approach; loss-leader pricing approach
e. everyday low pricing approach; flexible-price policy
Q:
Family Dollar Stores Photo
Consider the photo above. Family Dollar Stores, like 99 Stores, use what type of pricing policy?
a. target
b. customary
c. flexible
d. one
e. below-market
Q:
When you buy a used car from a CarMax dealership, you are offered the car at a "no haggle" price. You can buy it or not, but there is no negotiating the published price because of the seller's
a. customary pricing strategy.
b. one-price policy.
c. uniform pricing policy.
d. flexible-price policy.
e. dynamic pricing strategy.
Q:
Another name for a one-price policy is
a. customary pricing.
b. fixed pricing.
c. flexible pricing.
d. standard markup pricing.
e. uniform pricing.
Q:
A one-price policy refers to
a. setting different prices for products and services depending on individual buyers and purchase situations.
b. setting the price of a line of products at a number of different specific pricing points.
c. setting prices for all items in a product line to cover the total cost and produce a profit for the complete line, not necessarily for each item.
d. adding a fixed percentage to the cost of all items in a specific product class.
e. setting one price for all buyers of a product or service.
Q:
Setting one price for all buyers of a product or service is referred to as __________.
a. customary pricing
b. one-price policy
c. flexible-price policy
d. standard markup pricing
e. uniform pricing
Q:
When Kroger, a national supermarket chain, uses a special promotion to price a six-pack of soda at $2.09 (which is below its customary price level), it is attempting to
a. drive its competition out of business.
b. attract customers in hopes they will buy other products as well.
c. fill its parking lot so its store will look successful.
d. work with the local bottler to move products that are close to their expiration dates.
e. help stimulate the local economy and generate good will with its customers.
Q:
Using __________, many retailers deliberately sell products below their normal prices (and sometimes below cost) to attract attention and additional store traffic.
a. customary pricing
b. below-market pricing
c. prestige pricing
d. penetration pricing
e. loss-leader pricing
Q:
Deliberately selling a product below its customary price, not to increase sales, but to attract customers' attention in hopes that they will buy other products as well, is referred to as
a. loss-leader pricing.
b. bundle pricing.
c. magnet pricing.
d. predatory pricing.
e. below-market pricing.
Q:
Loss-leader pricing refers to
a. a pricing method where the price the seller charges is below the actual cost to make the product.
b. setting a low initial price and gradually but consistently increasing that price so as not to antagonize the consumer.
c. deliberately selling a product below its customary price, not to increase sales, but to attract customers' attention in hopes that they will buy other products as well.
d. a method of pricing based on a product's tradition, standardized channel of distribution, or other competitive factors.
e. pricing a product between 8 and 10 percent lower than nationally branded competitive products.
Q:
Figure 14-AFrito-Lay is considering whether to buy the Cracker Jack brand of caramel popcorn from Borden, Inc. Frito-Lay research shows that Cracker Jack has a strong brand equity. But Cracker Jack's dollar sales market share and pound (a surrogate for unit) volume market share have declined recently and trailed the Crunch "u02dcn Munch brand as shown in the Figure 14-A marketing dashboard above. Borden's management used an above-market, premium pricing strategy for Cracker Jack. As a Frito-Lay marketer studying Cracker Jack, calculate Cracker Jack's price premium. What position in Figure 14-A above represents the price premium of Cracker Jack?a. "A"b. "B"c. "C"d. "D"e. "E"
Q:
As the brand manager for Red Bull, what information does the Price Premium Marketing Dashboard above give you?
a. Red Bull has a price premium relative to Monster.
b. Rockstar has a price premium relative to Monster.
c. Red Bull engaged in price discounting relative to both Monster and Rockstar from 2009 to 2010.
d. Rockstar sold more product than Monster in 2010.
e. In terms of dollar market share, Red Bull has a lower share than the "Other Brands" category.
Q:
The Price Premium Marketing Dashboard above shows the dollar and unit market shares for selected energy drinks. What is the price premium for Monster in 2009?a. 12.1%b. 0%c. -5.0%d. -5.6%e. -11.%
Q:
Price Premium Marketing DashboardThe Price Premium Marketing Dashboard above shows the dollar and unit market shares for selected energy drinks. What is the price premium for Red Bull in 2010?a. -12.5%b. -7.5%c. -5.3%d. 0%e. 15.2%
Q:
Companies use a "price premium" to assess whether their products and brands are priced above, at, or below the market. More specifically, a price premium is the percentage by which the actual price charged for a specific brand exceeds or falls short of a benchmark established for a similar product or basket of products. This price premium equals:
a. unit volume market share for a brand divided by dollar sales market share for a brand, minus 1.
b. dollar sales market share for a brand divided by unit volume market share for a brand, plus 1.
c. dollar sales market share for a brand divided by unit volume market share for a brand, minus 1.
d. dollar sales market share for a brand, divided by unit volume market share for a brand, plus 1.
e. dollar sales market share for a brand, divided by unit volume market share for a brand, minus the number of competitors against which a brand is being measured.
Q:
An ad campaign by Suave shampoo asked television viewers to identify the heads of hair of women who used Suave shampoo and conditioner and those that used the much more expensive salon hair-care products. The idea of the ad was that no one could tell which woman used the much cheaper Suave brand. By making price its selling point, Suave is most likely using __________.
a. above-market pricing
b. loss-leader pricing
c. prestige pricing
d. skimming pricing
e. below-market pricing
Q:
Manufacturers of generic brands use which method of competition-oriented pricing?
a. penetration pricing
b. below-market pricing
c. loss-leader pricing
d. prestige pricing
e. skimming pricing
Q:
Slotting fees are often referred to as which of the following in Europe?
a. placement
b. intermediary
c. listing
d. shelving
e. promotional
Q:
A payment that is made by an international marketer in order to secure shelf space in a store is referred to as which of the following?
a. bill-back fee
b. shelving fee
c. promotional fee
d. slotting fee
e. placement fee
Q:
Large international beverage marketers including Pepsi and Coca-Cola utilize which kind of allowance for retailers that perform important marketing functions?
a. off invoice
b. bill back
c. display
d. slotting
e. market-based promotions
Q:
Which type of allowance takes the form of a monetary allowance presented to a retailer or intermediary at the end of a promotional period?
a. off invoice
b. bill back
c. display
d. slotting
e. market-based promotions
Q:
When Samsung offers a price break to wholesalers who distribute a certain volume of products, it is which form of promotion?
a. off invoice
b. bill back
c. display
d. slotting
e. market-based promotions
Q:
What term describes a price reduction or other consideration paid to an intermediary as an incentive to promote a specific product?
a. trade coupon
b. trade allowance
c. bill-back allowance
d. slotting fee
e. market-based promotions
Q:
The most direct interaction with potential customers takes place with this promotion: ______.
a. trade contests
b. channel discounts
c. slotting fees
d. trade shows
e. display allowances
Q:
When two organizations pay for a commercial because it mentions both products, it is ______.
a. a consumer promotion
b. a trade show
c. creative advertising
d. cooperative advertising
e. a multimedia advertising program
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a major form of international trade promotion?
a. trade shows
b. trade allowances
c. cooperative advertising
d. couponing
e. point-of-purchase materials
Q:
Which type of consumer purchases only a favored brand and does not look for, nor do they often buy, substitutes?
a. promotion prone
b. price sensitive
c. brand loyal
d. preferred brand
e. deal prone
Q:
Which type of consumer uses price as the only purchase criterion?
a. promotion prone
b. price sensitive
c. brand loyal
d. preferred brand
e. deal prone
Q:
Which type of consumer takes advantage of coupons, price-off programs, and premiums?
a. promotion prone
b. price sensitive
c. brand loyal
d. preferred brand
e. deal prone
Q:
Which of the following types of promotional tools signals to a consumer that a company is adapting to the changing times?
a. couponing
b. contests and sweepstakes
c. social media
d. push promotions
e. pull promotions
Q:
What type of manager now plays an important role in international marketing sales promotions?
a. search engine optimization
b. search engine operator
c. search engine mediator
d. search engine facilitation
e. search engine moderator