Q&A Hero

Q: The most frequently used type of compensation plan for salespeople is a __________. A. straight salary compensation plan B. straight commission compensation plan C. combination compensation plan D. weighted compensation plan E. market share compensation plan

Q: With a __________, a salesperson is paid a specified salary plus a commission on sales or profits generated. A. sales response compensation plan B. combination compensation plan C. straight sales compensation plan D. straight commission compensation plan E. market share compensation plan

Q: After completing an 18-week sales training program, Joshua was told, "You will be paid 4 percent on net dollar volume up to $10 million. Sales in excess of $10 million command a rate of 6 percent." The company Joshua works for is using a __________ for him after completing the sales training program. A. sales response compensation plan B. combination compensation plan C. straight sales compensation plan D. straight commission compensation plan E. market share compensation plan

Q: A straight commission compensation plan is well-suited to sales positions where A. nonselling activities are minimal. B. there is lively competition in the industry. C. no technological background is necessary. D. most salespeople are working towards management positions. E. extensive nonselling activities are essential for closing a sale.

Q: A disadvantage of a straight commission compensation plan is that A. it provides incentive to expand sales volume. B. it can discourage salespeople from providing customer service. C. it includes nonselling activities that take time away from selling. D. the overall compensation is usually lower than a straight salary compensation plan. E. it is difficult to administer.

Q: With a __________, a salesperson's earnings are directly tied to sales or profits generated. A. sales response compensation plan B. combination compensation plan C. straight sales compensation plan D. straight commission compensation plan E. market share compensation plan

Q: A straight commission compensation plan is one A. that assigns the same commission percentage regardless of a product's value, number sold, or difficulty level of the sales effort. B. in which a salesperson is paid a specified salary plus a commission and/or bonus on sales generated. C. that determines fair and equitable compensation that includes a weighted system for different types of items or different sized territories. D. in which the salesperson is paid a fixed amount per week, month, or year. E. in which a salesperson's earnings are directly tied to the sales or profits he or she generates.

Q: When Daniel was hired to work for Bush Refrigeration Company, he was told, "The sales training program is 18 weeks, and we'll pay you $750 per week during that time." While in training, the company used a __________ to compensate Daniel for his time and effort. A. sales response compensation plan B. combination compensation plan C. straight salary compensation plan D. straight commission compensation plan E. market share compensation plan

Q: An advantage of the straight salary compensation plan is that it A. provides an incentive to expand sales volume. B. can be easily adapted to changes in the economy. C. doesn't include nonselling activities that take time away from selling. D. allows salaries to be lower. E. is easy to administer.

Q: With a __________, a salesperson is paid a fixed fee per week, month, or year. A. sales response compensation plan B. combination compensation plan C. straight salary compensation plan D. straight commission compensation plan E. market share compensation plan

Q: The three commonly used compensation plans are: A. incremental salary, input-based commission, and output-based commission. B. straight salary, straight commission, and graded-scale competitive pay. C. percentage of sales, percentage of profits, and straight salary. D. straight salary, straight commission, and a combination of salary and commission. E. straight commission, percentage of market share, and a combination of salary and commission.

Q: Research indicates that there are four key factors involved with salesforce motivation: (1) a clear job description; (2) effective management practices; (3) __________; and (4) proper compensation, incentives, or rewards. A. an opportunity for professional growth B. a personal need for achievement C. constructive criticism D. adequate time for bookkeeping and paperwork E. a moderate degree of competitive spirit within a team

Q: Research indicates that there are four key factors involved with salesforce motivation: (1) a clear job description; (2) __________; (3) a personal need for achievement; and (4) proper compensation, incentives, or rewards. A. an opportunity for professional growth B. a moderate degree of competitive spirit within a team C. effective sales management practices D. constructive criticism E. adequate time for bookkeeping and paperwork

Q: Research indicates that there are four key factors involved with salesforce motivation: (1) __________; (2) effective sales management practices; (3) a personal need for achievement; and (4) proper compensation, incentives, or rewards. A. a clear job description B. constructive criticism C. an opportunity for professional growth D. a moderate degree of competitive spirit within a team E. adequate time for bookkeeping and paperwork

Q: Which type of salesforce training is the most popular type of training? A. individual instruction B. on-the-job training C. formal classes D. seminars taught by sales trainers E. computer-based training

Q: Which of the following statements about salesforce training is most accurate?A. The training of sales managers is both expensive and extensive, unlike the training of salespeople, which is relatively inexpensive.B. A major flaw in the sales industry is a lack of employer-sponsored training.C. Sales ability is instinctive; it cannot be taught.D. Whereas recruitment and selection of salespeople is a onetime event, salesforce training is an ongoing process that affects both new and seasoned salespeople.E. A limitation of sales training is that it is too narrowly focused on "making the sale" rather than learning new business skills.

Q: All of the following are dimensions of emotional intelligence EXCEPT: A. the ability to manage one's emotions and impulses. B. social skills. C. the cognitive and behavioral skills that result from repeated experience and reasoning. D. self-motivation skills. E. empathy.

Q: There are five dimensions to emotional intelligence: self-motivation; self-awareness; the ability to manage one's emotions and impulses; __________; and social skills. A. empathy B. sense of humor C. the ability to read body language D. the ability to be positive E. a need to be in control

Q: There are five dimensions to emotional intelligence: self-motivation; self-awareness; __________: empathy; and social skills. A. the ability to read body language B. sense of humor C. the ability to be positive D. the ability to manage one's emotions and impulses E. a need to be in control

Q: There are five dimensions to emotional intelligence: self-motivation; __________; the ability to manage one's emotions and impulses; empathy; and social skills. A. the ability to read body language B. sense of humor C. the ability to be positive D. self-awareness E. a need to be in control

Q: There are five dimensions to emotional intelligence: __________; self-awareness; the ability to manage one's emotions and impulses; empathy; and social skills. A. the ability to read body language B. sense of humor C. self-motivation D. the ability to be positive E. a need to be in control

Q: Emotional intelligence refers to __________. A. the ability to anticipate and overcome a potential customer's objections B. a method of measuring the potential of people who have not had formal schooling C. a measurement to determine a person's patience in stressful selling situations D. the ability to pick up personal cues, ticks, or tells, that help salespeople read their customers in order to make a sale E. the ability to understand one's own emotions and the emotions of people with whom one interacts on a daily basis

Q: The ability to understand one's own emotions and the emotions of people with whom one interacts on a daily basis is referred to as __________. A. empathetic intelligence B. emotional empathy C. emotional intelligence D. subliminal intelligence E. cognitive empathy

Q: All of the following are elements in a statement of job qualifications for an for order-getting salesperson EXCEPT: A. the physical and mental demands of the job. B. the customers to be called on. C. the types of products and services to be sold. D. to whom a salesperson reports. E. effective communication and listening skills.

Q: Attributes such as imagination and problem-solving ability, strong work ethic, honesty, intimate product knowledge, effective communication and listening skills, and attentiveness reflected in responsiveness to buyer needs, customer loyalty, and follow-up are found in the A. job analysis. B. job description. C. statement of job credentials. D. statement of job qualifications. E. statement of job experience.

Q: The aptitudes, knowledge, skills, and a variety of behavioral characteristics considered necessary to perform a job successfully are contained in a __________. A. statement of job credentials B. statement of job training C. statement of job education D. statement of job experience E. statement of job qualifications

Q: A job description is a written document that describes job relationships and requirements that characterize each sales position. Once established, the job description is then translated into a __________. A. statement of job credentials B. statement of emotional intelligence C. statement of job qualifications D. statement of job requirements E. statement of job education

Q: All of the following are aspects of a job description for a salesperson EXCEPT: A. the physical and mental demands of the job. B. the customers to be called on. C. the types of products and services to be sold. D. to whom a salesperson reports. E. effective communication and listening skills.

Q: A __________ explains: (1) to whom a salesperson reports; (2) how a salesperson interacts with other company personnel; (3) the customers to be called on; (4) the specific activities to be carried out; (5) the physical and mental demands of the job; and (6) the types of products and services to be sold. A. sales plan B. job analysis C. sales performance audit D. job description E. personal performance plan

Q: Applied to recruiting and selecting salespeople, a __________ explains to whom a salesperson reports and how a salesperson interacts with other company personnel. A. job description B. sales plan C. job analysis D. sales performance audit E. personal performance plan

Q: A __________ is a written document that describes job relationships and requirements that characterize each sales position. A. sales plan B. job analysis C. employee contract D. job description E. personal performance plan

Q: Information from a __________ is used to write a job description. A. job analysis B. salesforce compensation plan C. sales plan D. sales performance audit E. personal performance plan

Q: A job analysis refers to A. a thorough evaluation of a salesperson's performance based upon both input and output objectives. B. a detailed assessment to determine what occurred at which stage in the selling process that prevented a qualified lead from being converted into a sale. C. a study of a particular sales position, including how the job is to be performed and the tasks that make up the job. D. a protocol used to assign relative weights to various aspects of the selling process to create an individualized compensation plan. E. a written document that describes the job relationships and requirements that characterize each sales position.

Q: One of the most crucial tasks of sales management is __________; it begins with a carefully crafted job analysis. A. salesforce evaluation B. setting sales objectives C. developing account management policies D. salesforce motivation and compensation E. effective recruitment and selection of salespeople

Q: The three major tasks involved in the implementation stage of the sales management process are: salesforce recruitment and selection; salesforce training; and __________. A. setting sales objectives B. developing account management policies C. salesforce motivation and compensation D. salesforce evaluation E. assignment of territories and/or accounts

Q: There are three major tasks involved in the implementation stage of the sales management process: salesforce recruitment and selection; __________; and salesforce motivation and compensation. A. setting sales objectives B. salesforce training C. salesforce evaluation D. assignment of territories and/or accounts E. developing account management policies

Q: There are three major tasks involved in the implementation stage of the sales management process: salesforce motivation and compensation, salesforce training, and __________. A. salesforce recruitment and selection B. developing account management policies C. assignment of territories and/or accounts D. setting sales objectives E. salesforce evaluation

Q: Figure 17-4When using an account management policy grid, an account would receive a high level of sales calls if the account opportunity level assessment isA. high, and the sales organization has a weak competitive position.B. low, and the sales organization has a strong competitive position.C. high, and there is a likelihood that a strong competitive position can be achieved.D. low, and the sales organization has a low competitive position.E. high, and the sales organization has strong competitive position.

Q: Figure 17-4When using an account management policy grid, an account would replace personal calls with telemarketing or direct mail if the account opportunity level assessment isA. high, and the sales organization has a strong competitive position.B. low, and the sales organization has a strong competitive position.C. high, and there is a likelihood that a strong competitive position can be achieved.D. low, and the sales organization has a low competitive position.E. high, and the sales organization has strong competitive position.

Q: Figure 17-4Consider Figure 17-4 above, which is an account management policy grid that groups customers according to the level of opportunity and the firm's competitive sales position. D represents which account management policy?A. accounts that should emphasize a heavy sales organization position or shift resources to other accounts if a stronger sales organization position is impossibleB. accounts that the firm should consider replacing personal calls with telephone sales or direct mail to service accountsC. accounts offer little opportunity and the sales organization position is weakD. accounts that should receive a high level of sales calls and service to retain and possibly build accountsE. accounts that should receive moderate level of sales and service to maintain current position of sales organization

Q: Figure 17-4Aspects of __________ policies might include which individuals in a buying organization should be contacted, the amount of sales and service effort that different customers should receive, and the kinds of information salespeople should collect before or during a sales call.A. sales response managementB. account managementC. key account managementD. customer managementE. prospect management

Q: Account management policies refer to policies that A. specify how salespeople will be compensated and how sales performance will be evaluated. B. specify which products or services will be offered to which consumers, through which outlets, and at what price. C. specify the organizational structure of the salesforce and set the sales goals for both individual sales representatives and the salesforce as a whole. D. specify whom salespeople should contact, what kinds of selling and customer service activities should be engaged in, and how these activities should be carried out. E. determine the sales quotas for the upcoming year based upon past sales performance and current estimates of demand.

Q: A policy that specifies whom salespeople should contact, what kinds of selling and customer service activities should be engaged in, and how these activities should be carried out are referred to as A. sales response management policies. B. key account management policies. C. account management policies. D. customer management policies. E. salesforce management policies.

Q: ABB is a Swiss-based manufacturer of industrial equipment with annual sales of $30 billion. At one time, ABB had a salesforce that sold only generators, one that only sold boilers, another that only sold transformers, and so forth. Each of its salespeople was an expert on the items he or she sold. Its salesforce was organized by __________. A. workload B. customer C. geography D. product E. size

Q: The disadvantage of product sales organization is A. it increases the number of salespersons in the salesforce since most product sales organizations are based around standard rebuys. B. there is a larger cost for sales since this method is chosen for products that inherently have little or no product variation. C. significantly maximizes travel time, expenses, and duplication of selling effort from one territory to another. D. increases the requirement for more sales managers since the salesforce is paid strictly on commission, which acts as a significant self-motivator. E. produces high administration costs and duplication of selling effort because two company salespeople may call on the same customer.

Q: The advantage of a product sales organization is that A. salespeople can develop expertise with technical characteristics, applications, and selling methods associated with a particular product or family of products. B. the number of salespersons in the salesforce can be reduced. C. there is a lower cost for sales calls since this method is chosen for products that inherently have little or no product variation. D. it significantly minimizes travel time, expenses, and duplication of selling effort from one territory to another. E. fewer sales managers are required since the salesforce is paid strictly on commission.

Q: When specific knowledge is required to sell certain types of products or services, then a __________ is used. A. territorial organization B. customer organization C. product organization D. geographical organization E. multi-level marketing organization

Q: An example of the ideal performance measure for social media advertising is one that __________. A. attracts unique visitors B. adds registered users C. builds awareness D. ties actual sales revenues to the cost of the ad E. generates brand buzz

Q: Performance measures for social media are divided into two types: __________ and __________. A. number of photos uploaded; number of characters typed (comments, tweets, etc.) B. purchases made online; purchases made in a store as a result of a link from a social media website C. traditional media costs; social media costs D. number of "Views" of a YouTube video; number of "Likes" on Facebook E. those linked to inputs or costs; those tied to the outputs or revenues

Q: Which of the following statements about the role of social media for PepsiCo's "Test Drive" YouTube video/ad is most accurate? A. The purpose of the video was to reinvigorate sales of the Pepsi Next brand. B. For Pepsi, advertising the "Test Drive" video on Facebook was much more expensive from a CPM standpoint than two 30-second TV spots placed on Fox's American Idol. C. Pepsi created a new social-media driven website called Pepsi MAX NASCAR with Danica Patrick as the spokesperson following the success of the "Test Drive" video. D. The Pepsi MAX "Test Drive" video followed the successful "Uncle Drew" TV ads. E. Pepsi MAX is a new, great-tasting energy drink in the introduction stage of its product life cycle that has "all the sugar and twice the caffeine" as regular Pepsi.

Q: What is a typical marketing goal for advertising on social networking sites?A. Developing cost-effective ads with a CPM of less than 50"u00b2 for every 1,000 hits.B. Creating ads that have an immediate impact on sales.C. Having viewers go to the advertiser's website and post it on their Facebook pages.D. Using the cost per click performance metric to assess how many times a unique visitor purchases a product that originated from an ad on the firm's website.E. Creating ads that appeal to all demographic groupsregardless of age, gender, ethnicity, education, or incometo maximize cost efficiency.

Q: What is the challenge presented to brand managers by social media advertising? A. Brand managers need to realize that social media are less likely to have a marketing objective of immediate sales than traditional media. B. Brand managers need to convince social networks to post their ads free of charge. C. Brand managers need to create "universally appealing" ads since they cannot target specific demographics on social networks. D. Brand managers have difficulty estimating how many users have clicked on their ads, which leads to problems in assessing an ad's effectiveness. E. Brand managers need to realize that there are only a few social networks to advertise on.

Q: All of the following are roles that brand managers assume when using social media to produce sales and profits for their offerings or brands EXCEPT:A. defines the characteristics of the one or more market segments she wants to reach.B. buys placement for an ad on a specific section on a social networking site.C. composes title and copy for the social network ad.D. decides on the images (photos and videos) used to promote the brand.E. specifies the web address(es) to which its ad should link based on the brand's social media marketing goals.

Q: Figure 16-4According to Figure 16-4 above, the correct rank order of social network sites from MOST to LEAST popular as measured by the number of unique U.S. visitors as of mid-2014 isA. Facebook, LinkedIn, YouTube, and Twitter.B. Facebook, Twitter, YouTube, and LinkedIn.C. YouTube, Facebook, Twitter, and LinkedIn.D. Facebook, YouTube, Twitter, and LinkedIn.E. Twitter, Facebook, YouTube, and LinkedIn.

Q: Figure 16-4According to Figure 16-4 above, which social network was closest to Facebook terms of unique U.S. visitors as of mid-2014?A. LinkedInB. YouTubeC. TwitterD. Angry BirdsE. Plants vs. Zombies

Q: Figure 16-4According to Figure 16-4 above, Facebook had about __________ unique U.S. visitors as of mid-2014.A. 139 millionB. 168 millionC. 500 millionD. 1 billionE. 2.54 billion

Q: Figure 16-4According to Figure 16-4 above, Facebook had about __________ visits as of mid-2014.A. 139 millionB. 168 millionC. 500 millionD. 1 billionE. 2.54 billion

Q: Figure 16-4In using social media, a brand manager tries to select and use one or more social networks from the hundreds that exist. This often entails assessing (1) the number of users or unique visitors to the website and (2) __________.A. the characteristics of these visitorsB. the availability of social network to run appsC. the ability of the site to be measured in terms of its sales, profitability, distribution density, and other performance metricsD. the ability of the social network to pull controversial contentE. the site's ability to present the results of key word searches to improve the odds of a firm's products showing up in user searches

Q: In using social media, a brand manager tries to select and use one or more social networks from the hundreds that exist. This often entails assessing (1) __________ and (2) the characteristics of these visitors. A. the availability of social network to run apps B. the ability of the site to be measured in terms of its sales, profitability, distribution density, and other performance metrics C. the number of users or unique visitors to the website D. the ability of the social network to pull controversial content E. the site's ability to present the results of key word searches to improve the odds of a firm's products showing up in user searches

Q: Marketers can use one of two strategies: the first strategy uses Facebook Pages and YouTube Channels, and the second strategy uses ads in newspapers, magazines, and on TV. The difference between these two types of marketing strategies is that the first one targets consumers who are __________ and the second one targets consumers who are __________. A. "passive receivers"; "active receivers" B. an older demographic; a younger demographic C. wealthy; disadvantaged D. "active receivers"; "passive receivers" E. "evangelists"; "brand ambassadors"

Q: Within the context of social media, an "evangelist" is an online user who A. is "delighted" about the brand advertised and sends messages to his/her online friends and then back to the advertiser about the joys of using the brand. B. tries to promote an anti-consumerist agenda to other online users, hindering the effectiveness of online advertisements. C. is a paid "brand ambassador" by the advertisers to promote the brand's positive qualities by sending messages to his/her online friends. D. is indifferent or "agnostic" to advertisements on social media networks. E. is an "apostle" who develops his/her own Facebook, Twitter, and/or YouTube following and therefore should be contacted by advertisers about placing an ad on his/her website.

Q: An "active receiver" who is "delighted" with the brand advertised and sends messages to her online friends about the brand is referred to as a(n) __________. A. "expert" B. "follower" C. "end-receiver" D. "traditional consumer" E. "evangelist"

Q: Social media deliberately seek to ensure that the message does not end with an individual receiver. Social media first seek to reach __________. A. "two-way receivers" B. "end-receivers" C. "active receivers" D. "followers" E. "connections"

Q: Social media advertising is helpful to brand managers because consumers are __________. A. captive receivers who buy products online B. end-receivers who buy products online C. traditional consumers who buy products in retail stores D. active receivers who send user generated content to both friends and advertisers E. traditional receivers who browse products online

Q: Traditional media (the sender) use one-way communication directly to the ultimate consumer to advertise marketers' products. These consumers are therefore referred to as __________. A. one-way consumers B. passive receivers C. active-receivers D. traditional consumers E. traditional receivers

Q: If a brand manager for Honda creates an offbeat and funny video featuring its latest model, the best social networking site to publish the video for marketing purposes would be __________. A. Pinterest B. LinkedIn C. Twitter D. YouTube E. the Honda website

Q: The three guidelines on marketing and promoting a brand using YouTube include: (1) exploit visual aspects of your message, perhaps sacrificing product messages to tell a more entertaining story; (2) create a branded channel rich in key words to improve the odds of the video showing up in user searches; and (3) __________. A. use an expert to inform the audience about product features and benefits B. tie the product to a current political or news event C. target viewers by using YouTube's insights and analytics research to reveal the number of views, where they originate within YouTube, and what key words are driving user visits D. include humorous content to attract as many viewers as possible E. limit the video to one minute or less, the same as a TV or radio ad time limit

Q: The three guidelines on marketing and promoting a brand using YouTube include: (1) exploit visual aspects of your message, perhaps sacrificing product messages to tell a more entertaining story; (2) __________; and (3) target viewers by using YouTube's insights and analytics research to reveal the number of views, where they originate within YouTube, and what key words are driving user visits. A. use an expert to inform the audience about product features and benefits B. create a channel rich in key words to improve the odds of the video showing up in user searches C. tie the product to a current political or news event D. include humorous content to attract as many viewers as possible E. limit the video to one minute or less, the same as a TV or radio ad time limit

Q: The three guidelines on marketing and promoting a brand using YouTube include: (1) __________; (2) create a branded channel rich in key words to improve the odds of the video showing up in user searches; and (3) target viewers by using YouTube's insights and analytics research to reveal the number of views, where they originate within YouTube, and what key words are driving user visits. A. use an expert to inform the audience about product features and benefits B. tie the product to a current political or news event C. include humorous content to attract as many viewers as possible D. exploit visual aspects of your message, perhaps sacrificing product messages to tell a more entertaining story E. limit the video to one minute or less, the same as a TV or radio ad time limit

Q: __________ users simply snap a photo, choose a specialized filter to alter the look and feel of the image, and share the image with family and friends. A. Tumblr B. Flickr C. Vimeo D. Instagram E. StumbleUpon

Q: A feature-rich, micro-blogging platform that allows users to share text, photos, music, links, videos, and more is A. Tumblr. B. Flickr. C. Vimeo. D. Pinterest. E. StumbleUpon.

Q: __________ is a content sharing network where members affix images, videos, and more to "boards" they create, which are categorized into different themes. A. Tumblr B. Flickr C. Vimeo D. Pinterest E. StumbleUpon

Q: A popular social network used by college students to find and share the best content on the Web is A. Tumblr. B. Flickr. C. Vimeo. D. Pinterest. E. StumbleUpon.

Q: If a brand manager wants to explain the benefits of using a complex product to consumers, the best social network to use is A. YouTube. B. LinkedIn. C. Facebook. D. Twitter. E. Google Chrome.

Q: The social network that is used solely for sharing videos is A. Google. B. Facebook. C. YouTube. D. Twitter. E. LinkedIn.

Q: YouTube is A. a website where users may create a personal profile, add other users as friends, and exchange comments, photos, videos, and "likes" with them. B. a website that enables users to send and receive short messages up to 140 characters long. C. a business-oriented website that lets users post their professional profiles to connect to a network of businesspeople. D. a video-sharing website in which users can upload, distribute, view, and comment on videos. E. a website enables online customers to use their collective buying power to take advantage of deeply discounted prices for a product or service each day.

Q: Pop singer Rebecca Black used __________ to post her video "Friday," which went viral and earned her many fans. She now has her own channel on the same platform. A. YouTube B. Pinterest C. Twitter D. Facebook E. LinkedIn

Q: In a recent survey of business owners, 41 percent saw __________ as potentially beneficial to their company - more than twice that for the other major social networks discussed in the textbook. A. Facebook B. Groupon C. YouTube D. Twitter E. LinkedIn

Q: If a brand manager wanted to use LinkedIn to promote her brand, the best way would be to A. use profiles of company employees for business-to-business image building and networking with industry-related groups. B. monitor profiles for negative mentions of their brand. C. create a profile for her brand. D. try to accumulate online followers for the business. E. buy ad space on the LinkedIn website.

Q: All of the following are tips experts recommend to student job seekers using LinkedIn EXCEPT: A. write an informative, short, memorable profile headline. B. include an appropriate photo of yourself. C. include as many recommendations as you can get. D. fill in the Skills & Expertise section with keywords that recruiters use in their searches. E. set your profile to "public" and include its URL on your resume.