Q&A Hero

Q: If the population of a city is 230,000 and its annual per person expenditure on athletic shoes is $45, if there are 64,688 square feet of retail space used to sell athletic shoes in this city, its index of retail saturation is _____. a. 3.56 b. 12.65 c. 159.99 d. 330.06

Q: Which of the following is a calculation that describes the relationship between retail demand and supply? a. index of retail sales b. index of retail utilization c. index of retail saturation d. index of retail sites

Q: When Subway Sandwiches uses secondary data to determine the best location for its franchise outlets, this is an example of _____. a. site analysis b. model building c. database marketing d. market tracking

Q: Which of the following is FALSE regarding sales forecasting? a. The moving average forecasting is best suited to a dynamic competitive environment. b. Accurate sales forecasts frequently come from secondary data research. c. Simple moving averages are often applied in practice. d. Marketing researchers often use internal company sales records to project sales.

Q: Kyle is conducting a sales forecast by adding up his company's sales over the past five years and then dividing that by five (the number of years). The forecasting technique he is using is called _____. a. moving average forecasting b. dynamic forecasting c. static forecasting d. indexing

Q: Every year, Westview Marble goes through the process of estimating sales for the upcoming year by looking at the company's previous years' sales and market sales along with economic trends and predictions by experts. This process of predicting sales totals over a specific time period is called ____. a. model building b. trend analysis c. sales forecasting d. market potential estimation

Q: The process of predicting sales totals over a specific time period is called _____. a. sales forecasting b. market potential estimation c. sales analysis d. market tracking

Q: Lance has noticed that companies that advertise a lot seem to have higher sales than those that do not. His use of secondary data to help specify this relationship is an example of _____. a. data conversion b. validation c. reliability d. model building

Q: _____ involves specifying relationships between two or more variables, perhaps extending to the development of descriptive or predictive equations. a. Data transformation b. Data analysis c. Model building d. Fact-finding

Q: When a marketing manager reads publications like The Wall Street Journal and BloombergBusinessweek to try to determine changes in consumer behavior, this is a form of _____, a. environmental scanning b. model building c. database marketing d. data mining

Q: The observation and analysis of trends in industry volume and brand share over time is called _____. a. market tracking b. model building c. data mining d. database marketing

Q: Tracking monthly sales trends over the past year is an example of which objective for secondary data analysis? a. model building b. fact-finding c. database marketing d. environmental scanning

Q: Purchasing data from a company such as NPD Group, Inc. on consumption of soft drinks in the U.S. is an example of which objective for secondary data analysis? a. model building b. database marketing c. data mining d. fact-finding

Q: The simplest form of secondary-data research is _____. a. fact-finding b. model building c. forecasting sales d. database marketing

Q: A typical objective for secondary-data research design is _____. a. model building b. fact-finding c. database marketing d. all of these choices

Q: A researcher is interested in knowing the median income of residents in the state of Ohio and has found several sources with this information. He is comparing the information from each source to verify the information. This researcher is performing a _____. a. reliability assessment b. data conversion c. cross-check d. data transformation

Q: What is it called when a researcher compares secondary data from one source with data from another? a. data conversion b. cross-check c. data mining d. data enhancement

Q: Which of the following is a disadvantage of secondary data? a. user has no control over their reliability and validity b. inability to convert the data c. typically require additional access to research respondents d. all of these choices

Q: Sherrie is interested in average monthly sales for smartphones in the United States. She found information on the Internet that gives annual sales, so she took the annual sales and divided it by twelve to get a monthly average. This is an example of _____. a. data mining b. data division c. data transformation d. data validation

Q: The process of changing the original form of data to a format more suitable for achieving a stated research objective is called _____. a. data transformation b. reliability assessment c. cross-checking d. data mining

Q: All of the following are common reasons why secondary data do not adequately satisfy research needs EXCEPT _____. a. outdated information b. too expensive c. variation in definition of terms d. different units of measurement

Q: A researcher who is interested in new car sales but who discovers that the secondary data from the U.S. government are in the form of statistics that include both car and light truck sales combined in the data has discovered that the data fail to meet which criterion? a. Are the data in the correct unit of measurement? b. Do the data apply to the time period of interest? c. Are the data supplied by a reputable source? d. Do the data show evidence of reliability and validity?

Q: Obtaining secondary data is typically ______ and ______ expensive than obtaining primary data. a. faster; more b. slower; more c. faster; less d. slower; less

Q: It is safe to assume that secondary data from governments around the world are accurate.

Q: The marketing research industry uses the term multiple-source data for diverse types of data offered by a single company.

Q: Diary panel data are data gathered by households that have agreed to record their consumption behavior over an extended period of time.

Q: Trade associations gather data to help the organizations in a specific industry.

Q: Secondary data can be bought and sold like other products.

Q: An enterprise search is like an Internet search but focuses on data within the organization.

Q: Secondary data are always data that are external to the organization.

Q: Single-source analysis is a form of data mining that analyzes anonymous point-of-sale transactions databases to identify coinciding purchases or relationships between products purchased and other retail shopping information.

Q: Neural networks are a form of artificial intelligence in which a computer is programmed to mimic the way that human brains process information.

Q: Data mining techniques can help to define the underlying meaning of data.

Q: The index of retail saturation is the ratio of local market potential (demand) to local population density.

Q: A moving average sales forecast works best in a dynamic competitive environment.

Q: Marketing researchers frequently use external accounting data to generate sales forecasts.

Q: Market potential is frequently estimated through the use of secondary data.

Q: Model building involves specifying relationships between two or more variables, which is more complicated that simple fact-finding.

Q: Market tracking is the observation and analysis of trends in industry volume and brand share over time.

Q: Fact-finding is the simplest form of secondary data research.

Q: A reliability analysis is done by comparing data from one source with data from another source.

Q: A researcher should always evaluate the professional reputation of the organization that has gathered secondary data in terms of evaluating the quality of the data.

Q: One disadvantage of secondary data is that it cannot be converted to conform to a researcher's needs.

Q: It's usually safe to assume that secondary information is relevant, useful, and reliable.

Q: A disadvantage to secondary data is that they were not designed specifically to meet the objectives of the current project.

Q: The primary advantage of secondary data is their availability.

Q: Secondary data require current access to respondents who provided the data.

Q: Secondary data are typically historical data that have already been collected.

Q: The term used to describe a researcher blending in as part of a virtual community to gain access to the myriad of comments consumers leave behind is _____.

Q: A focus group session that is conducted over the Internet is called a(n) ______ focus group session.

Q: A written set of guidelines prepared by a moderator that outlines the topics to be discussed in a focus group session is called a(n) ______.

Q: An indirect method of questioning that allows a respondent to project his feelings onto a third-party is an example of a(n) ______ technique.

Q: When an interviewer reads a list of words and asks the respondent to "say the first thing that comes to mind after I say each word," this is an example of a(n) _____ technique.

Q: A one-on-one interview between a professional researcher and a research respondent about why she purchases a specific cosmetic brand is an example of a(n) ______.

Q: The person who leads a focus group discussion is called a(n) ______.

Q: In a focus group, when the comments of one member stimulate another member to say what she is thinking, this is called ________.

Q: An unstructured, free-flowing discussion with a small group of consumers in a session that is conducted by a moderator is called a(n) ______.

Q: An in-depth study of a major competitor in order to determine how to improve your organization's product line offerings is an example of a(n) _____.

Q: The typical ethnographic approach requires the use of _____.

Q: When focus group participants are shown a drawing of a new type of car and are asked for their reactions, this is called a(n) ______ .

Q: When research is conducted to clarify the nature of a problem, it is called ______ research.

Q: Research that addresses marketing objectives through techniques that allow the researcher to provide elaborate interpretations of marketing phenomena without depending on numerical measurement is referred to as _____ marketing research.

Q: Which of the following means the same conclusion would be reached based on another researcher's interpretation of the research? a. validity b. replicable c. homogeneity d. scrutiny

Q: The application of ethnography to comments made in online communities is called _____. a. net-demographics b. netnography c. hermeneutics d. focus blog

Q: A type of informal, "continuous" focus group established as an Internet blog for the purpose of collecting qualitative data from participants is referred to as a _____. a. net group b. market blog c. focus blog d. focus unit

Q: Which of the following is a disadvantage of focus groups? a. requires objective, sensitive, and effective moderators b. may not be useful for discussing sensitive topics c. high cost d. all of these choices

Q: The written set of guidelines that describes an outline of topics to be covered by a focus group moderator is called a _____. a. discussion guide b. TAT test c. concept test d. case study

Q: When a respondent is asked to project her feelings onto a third party (e.g. "your neighbor down the street"), this is called a(n) _____. a. case study b. experience survey c. word association test d. projective technique

Q: A version of the TAT that uses a cartoon drawing in which the respondent suggests a dialog in which the characters might engage is called _____. a. picture completion b. picture frustration c. scenario test d. projective picture

Q: Stephanie was asked to look at a picture of a woman sitting on a deserted beach and to describe what was happening in the picture. She was then asked to tell what might happen next. Stephanie was participating in a(n) _____. a. aptitude test b. focus interview c. thematic apperception test d. focus blog

Q: _____ are the researcher's descriptions of what actually happens in the field and are the text from which meaning is extracted. a. Hermeneutics b. Field notes c. Discussion guides d. Verbatims

Q: When the respondent is presented with: "People who watch football on television are ________," and asked to fill in the blank, this is an example of a _____. a. word association test b. concept test c. case study d. sentence completion test

Q: Which qualitative tool simply records a respondent's first cognitive reaction (top-of-mind) to some stimulus? a. phenomenology b. conversations c. probing d. free-association techniques

Q: All of the following are advantages of semi-structured interviews EXCEPT _____. a. ability to address more specific issues b. responses are usually easier to interpret than other qualitative approaches c. questions are administered without the presence of an interviewer d. high degree of scrutiny

Q: Hank is a researcher who is discussing football fan behavior with a respondent. His approach is almost completely unstructured, and he enters into a discussion with few expectations. What he wants is for a respondent to tell him about his or her experience as a football fan. Hank will then try to derive meaning from the resulting dialog. Which qualitative research technique is Hank using? a. conversation b. focus group c. depth interview d. case study

Q: Which type of qualitative tool is an informal and almost completely unstructured approach in which the researcher engages a respondent in a discussion of the relevant subject matter? a. depth interview b. conversation c. focus group d. free-association

Q: Which of the following is a particular approach to probing that asks respondents to compare differences between brands at different levels? a. interrogating b. immersion c. linking d. laddering

Q: When a professional interviewer holds a 90-minute discussion with one member of the target market to find out why that respondent purchases a particular brand of clothing, this is an example of a _____. a. depth interview b. concept test c. focus interview d. hermeneutic analysis

Q: Which of the following is a good characteristic for a focus group moderator to possess? a. good listener b. ability to make people feel comfortable so that they will talk in the group c. ability to control discussion without being overbearing d. all of these choices

Q: The person who leads a focus group interview and ensures that everyone gets a chance to speak and facilitates discussion is called a(n) _____. a. moderator b. interviewer c. facilitator d. leader