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Q:
Indicating when and how written and oral reports will be provided by the team, how team members will coordinate work, what messages will be sent to announce the project to interested parties, and what kinds of information will be shared with vendors and external contractors involved with the project describes:
A) determining project standards and procedures.
B) developing a project scope statement.
C) developing a communication plan.
D) setting a baseline project plan.
E) establishing the project initiation team.
Q:
During which of the following project planning activities do you use the information regarding tasks and resource availability to assign time estimates to each activity in the work breakdown structure?
A) Dividing the project into manageable tasks
B) Describing project scope, alternatives, and feasibility
C) Setting a baseline project plan
D) Developing a preliminary schedule
E) Developing a project scope statement
Q:
Which of the following is a true statement regarding project time estimates?
A) Project time estimates for task completion and overall system quality are significantly influenced by the assignment of people to tasks.
B) Resource estimates should not be revised based upon the skills of the actual person assigned to a particular activity.
C) Staff learning can be enhanced by assigning individuals to tasks which are "over their heads."
D) Project time estimates are always on target.
E) Hardware and software are the most important, and expensive, part of project resource planning.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a task characteristic?
A) A task should have well-accepted predecessor and successor steps.
B) A task should have a single and identifiable deliverable.
C) A task should have a known method or technique.
D) A task should be completed by only one person.
E) A task is measurable so that percent completed can be determined.
Q:
The process of dividing the project into manageable tasks and logically ordering them to ensure a smooth evolution between tasks defines:
A) task division.
B) work breakdown structure.
C) work structuring.
D) project division.
E) critical path scheduling.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a project planning activity?
A) Setting a baseline project plan
B) Identifying and assessing risk
C) Determining project standards and procedures
D) Establishing management procedures
E) Developing a project charter
Q:
Developing an understanding of the content and complexity of the project is the purpose of:
A) developing a project charter activity of the project planning phase.
B) setting a baseline project plan activity of the project planning phase.
C) determining project standards and procedures activity of the project planning phase.
D) describing the project scope, alternatives, and feasibility activity of the project planning phase.
E) closing down the project activity of the project planning phase.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding project planning?
A) Project planning often requires that you make numerous assumptions about resource availability and potential problems.
B) Project planning is the second phase of the project management process.
C) Project planning focuses on defining clear, discrete activities and the work needed to complete each activity within a single project.
D) The repetitive nature of the project management process requires that plans be constantly monitored throughout the project and periodically updated.
E) Monitoring project progress against the baseline project plan is the first project planning activity.
Q:
An online or hard-copy repository for all project correspondence, inputs, outputs, deliverables, procedures, and standards that is used for performing project audits, orientation of new team members, communicating with management and customers, identifying future projects, and performing post project reviews is called:
A) a project workbook.
B) a schedule book.
C) a project planner.
D) project management software.
E) an electronic calendar.
Q:
Defining the necessary activities required to organize the initiation team while they are working to define the scope of the project is the focus of which of the following activities?
A) Establishing the project initiation team
B) Establishing management procedures
C) Establishing the project management environment and project workbook
D) Dividing the project into manageable tasks
E) Establishing the project initiation plan
Q:
Which of the following project management activities is associated with project initiation?
A) Estimating resources and creating a detailed resource plan
B) Describing project scope, alternatives, and feasibility
C) Establishing a relationship with the customer
D) Identifying and assessing risks
E) Closing down the project
Q:
The phase of the project management process in which activities are performed to assess the size, scope, and complexity of the project and to establish procedures to support later project activities best defines:
A) project initiation.
B) scope development.
C) project planning.
D) project assessment.
E) project design.
Q:
What are the three basic steps involved in software reuse?
Q:
Explain why reuse is not always valuable to all developers in an organization.
Q:
What are the four approaches to reuse?
Q:
What is reuse and why is it increasing in popularity?
Q:
Identify the most common criteria for choosing off-the-shelf software. Which two criteria would be among the most important?
Q:
Identify four ways that purchased software information can be validated.
Q:
Discuss the future market for cloud computing.
Q:
Discuss cloud computing and how it can benefit an organization.
Q:
Identify and discuss the six sources of software.
Q:
Symantec is a leading software firm that specializes in:
A) cloud computing.
B) IT services.
C) packaged software.
D) enterprise software.
E) open-source software.
Q:
Which type of project team is more likely to practice code reuse?
A) permanent
B) large
C) agile
D) transient
E) translucent
Q:
More experienced developers are less likely to reuse code because:
A) they think that it is less cost effective.
B) they don't understand other programmer's code.
C) they trust their own code more than someone else's.
D) management would not allow them.
E) they believe that reuse does not fit into the corporate culture.
Q:
The one type of reuse that is mandated is called:
A) ad hoc reuse.
B) facilitated reuse.
C) managed reuse.
D) designed reuse.
E) designated reuse.
Q:
A key part of reuse strategy is:
A) expending capital on equipment.
B) hiring the right staff.
C) establishing standards and guidelines for reuse.
D) establishing rewards, incentives and organizational support.
E) buying the right software.
Q:
Making assets available for others involves:
A) sorting.
B) shelf-life.
C) storage.
D) cataloging.
E) cloud computing.
Q:
As a company gains more experience with reuse, the firm gains more benefits. However, the firm also has to take into account:
A) that cost will grow as well.
B) that there will be a need for less staff.
C) that the defect rate will increase.
D) that the software may need to be completely rewritten.
E) its business processes.
Q:
An organization's approach to reuse must be matched to its:
A) business process.
B) strategic business goals.
C) objectives.
D) staffing.
E) budget.
Q:
Reusing software results in a higher quality application because:
A) the software has been tested more when used previously.
B) the cost is lower.
C) there is less staff time needed to complete the project.
D) the code is better written.
E) the software is more efficient.
Q:
Besides response time, another measure of time would be:
A) release time.
B) how long it takes software to complete a running job.
C) how long it takes software to produce output.
D) turnaround time.
E) resource usage time.
Q:
How long it takes for a software package to respond to user's requests is called:
A) recurrent time.
B) response time.
C) activation time.
D) lag time.
E) run time.
Q:
Open source software requires internal staff to:
A) write the software.
B) define requirements and evaluate software.
C) debug the software.
D) write more reports.
E) contribute to the code base.
Q:
An enterprise solutions vendor is best used for:
A) ill-defined systems.
B) complete systems that cross functional boundaries.
C) tasks which require custom support.
D) applications that require instant access.
E) generic tasks where cost is not an issue.
Q:
The best organization to go to when a supported task is generic is a(n):
A) open-source software provider.
B) cloud computing service provider.
C) in-house development group.
D) packaged software producer.
E) IT service firm.
Q:
A software solution involving both in-house and purchased software is called:
A) a mingled solution.
B) a hybrid solution.
C) an open-source solution.
D) a proprietary solution.
E) slackware.
Q:
Open-source software has enjoyed its success due to:
A) the price.
B) large software companies.
C) the Internet.
D) the SDLC.
E) volume discounts.
Q:
One major concern that IT managers have about cloud computing is:
A) security.
B) redundancy.
C) ease of use.
D) backward compatibility.
E) overuse.
Q:
When working with ERP systems, a ________ ensures more accurate and consistent data.
A) software vendor
B) depository
C) single repository
D) sentinel
E) data guardian
Q:
Which of the following is a disadvantage of Enterprise Resource Planning Systems?
A) The systems are too simple
B) Lack of in-house expertise
C) Always requires new hardware
D) Become outdated quickly
E) ERP systems are not secure
Q:
Which of the following companies is the top software producer?
A) Microsoft
B) IBM
C) Apple
D) Hewlett-Packard
E) Oracle
Q:
By 2017 the outsourcing market is projected to be worth:
A) $1.2 million.
B) $178 billion.
C) $1.2 billion.
D) $178,000.
E) $9 million.
Q:
One reason that an organization would totally outsource its information systems is:
A) to ensure a quality system.
B) because of organizational problems.
C) to maintain more local control.
D) to avoid a hostile takeover.
E) to keep the organization running smoothly.
Q:
The first administrative information developed in the United States was:
A) Digital Equipment Company's VAX minicomputer.
B) a system developed by J. Lyons and Sons.
C) the General Electric payroll system.
D) the Internal Revenue Service's tax compliance system.
E) Amazon.com's inventory management system.
Q:
With managed reuse, the development, sharing, and adoption of reusable assets is:
A) encouraged.
B) mandated.
C) discouraged.
D) minimal.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q:
When an organization encourages and supports use with limited resources, infrastructure, and policies to make reuse easier, they are said to be engaged in:
A) ad hoc reuse.
B) managed reuse.
C) ex ante reuse.
D) facilitated reuse.
E) designed reuse.
Q:
When an organization invests in carefully designing assets for reuse, choosing assets for domain or product line, they are said to be engaged in:
A) ad hoc reuse.
B) facilitated reuse.
C) designed reuse.
D) managed reuse.
E) ex ante reuse.
Q:
The relative cost of ad hoc reuse is:
A) low.
B) none.
C) moderate.
D) high.
E) extremely high.
Q:
The typical reuse level of designed reuse:
A) varies.
B) is low.
C) is moderate.
D) is high.
E) is none to low.
Q:
The typical reuse level of facilitated reuse:
A) varies.
B) is low.
C) is high.
D) is very high.
E) is moderate.
Q:
The four approaches to reuse include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) ad hoc.
B) facilitated.
C) managed.
D) designed.
E) ex ante.
Q:
Technical issues related to reuse include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) the over-reliance on class libraries.
B) lack of a methodology for creating reusable components.
C) lack of a methodology for clearly defining reusable components.
D) the small number of reusable resources available.
E) the small number of reliable resources available.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a result of reuse?
A) Higher-quality software
B) Lower defect rates
C) Decreased maintenance costs
D) Higher defect rates
E) Increased maintenance costs
Q:
Reusing software can:
A) increase the cost of software development.
B) decrease development time.
C) increase development time.
D) increase schedule overruns.
E) decrease programmer productivity.
Q:
Which of the following are the basic steps in software reuse?
A) Abstraction, storage, and recontextualization
B) Overloading and overriding
C) Developing a business plan and an implementation plan
D) Contextualization and generalization
E) Purchasing new software and integrating it into existing systems
Q:
Reuse typically refers to using previously written:
A) objects and components.
B) use cases.
C) documentation.
D) business cases.
E) requests for proposals.
Q:
The use of previously written software resources is also referred to as:
A) reuse.
B) reengineering.
C) reprocessing.
D) re-analysis.
E) restructuring.
Q:
The document sent to vendors asking them to propose hardware and software that will meet the requirements of your new system is called a:
A) requirements statement.
B) request for proposal (RFP).
C) baseline project plan.
D) business case.
E) systems service request.
Q:
Which of the following is not a way of validating purchased software information?
A) Reviewing software documentation and technical marketing literature
B) Sending prospective vendors a questionnaire asking specific questions about their packages
C) Using the software yourself and running it through a series of tests based on the criteria for selecting software
D) Obtaining feedback from other users of the software
E) Purchasing the software first and then testing
Q:
In terms of criteria to consider when choosing off-the-shelf software, documentation refers to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) user's manuals.
B) technical documentation.
C) the cost for multiple copies.
D) the baseline project plan.
E) how understandable the documentation is.
Q:
Software that cannot be modified to meet the particular needs of an organization is called a(n):
A) Vanilla System.
B) ERP system.
C) Turnkey system.
D) Software as a Service System.
E) Turnbuckle System.
Q:
In terms of criteria to consider when choosing off-the-shelf software, ease of customization is also referred to as:
A) response time.
B) documentation.
C) functionality.
D) flexibility.
E) development time
Q:
Two criteria that are always among the most important when choosing software are:
A) ease of installation and flexibility.
B) response time and vendor support.
C) vendor support and vendor viability.
D) cost and functionality.
E) functionality and documentation.
Q:
All of the following are common criteria to consider when selecting off-the-shelf software EXCEPT:
A) flexibility.
B) vendor viability.
C) functionality.
D) cost.
E) needs of staff.
Q:
Which of the following describes the internal staffing requirements when software components are acquired from enterprise-wide solutions providers?
A) Some internal staff are necessary, but mostly consultants are needed.
B) Some IS and user staff to define requirements and evaluate packages are needed.
C) Internal staff may be needed, depending on the application.
D) Internal staff are necessary, though staff size may vary.
E) None of the above are correct.
Q:
Which of the following describes the internal staffing requirements when software components are acquired from packaged software producers?
A) Some internal staff are necessary, but mostly consultants are needed.
B) Some information systems (IS) and user staff to define requirements and evaluate packages are needed.
C) Internal staff may be needed, depending on the application.
D) Internal staff are necessary, though staff size may vary.
E) None of the above are correct.
Q:
One possible source of software which involves in-house development with purchased solutions is called a(n):
A) generic solution.
B) hybrid solution.
C) mid-point solution.
D) composite solution.
E) amalgamated solution.
Q:
An organization should acquire software from in-house developers when:
A) the supported task is generic.
B) complete systems that cross functional boundaries are needed.
C) the task requires custom support and the system cannot be built internally.
D) the resources and staff are available and the system must be built from scratch.
E) there is a pre-built option
Q:
In addition to operating systems, e-mail, databases and Web browsers, open source software also includes:
A) hardware.
B) machine code.
C) software components and objects.
D) firmware.
E) proprietary software.
Q:
Money can be made from open source software by:
A) selling source code.
B) providing maintenance and other services.
C) communities of interested people.
D) adding to the code base.
E) selling documentation to the open-source community.
Q:
Open-source software is developed by:
A) in-house developers.
B) employees of a particular company.
C) communities of interested people.
D) consultants.
E) application service providers.
Q:
One type of cloud computing service that allows companies to run applications on servers maintained by a service provider is called:
A) software as a service.
B) leased computing.
C) hardware as a service.
D) storage on demand.
E) middleware as a service.
Q:
One type of cloud computing service that allows companies to order server capacity and storage on demand is called:
A) software as a service.
B) leased computing.
C) hardware as a service.
D) storage on demand.
E) middleware as a service.
Q:
The primary concern about cloud computing is:
A) cost.
B) reliability.
C) compliance with standards.
D) dependability.
E) sustainability.
Q:
All of the following are reasons to go with cloud computing EXCEPT:
A) freeing internal IT staff.
B) gaining access to applications faster.
C) reduced development time.
D) achieving lower cost access to corporate-quality applications.
E) access to large and complex applications without having to implement the system in-house.
Q:
The provision of computing resources over the Internet so that customers do not need to invest in infrastructure is called:
A) cloud computing.
B) raindrop computing.
C) leased computing.
D) centralized computing.
E) backbone computing.
Q:
All of the following are benefits of enterprise solutions, EXCEPT:
A) a single repository of data for all business processes.
B) module flexibility.
C) immediate integration of new modules.
D) shifting toward enterprise solutions means changing business processes.
E) shifting from separate systems to a seamless, integrated system.
Q:
A system that integrates individual traditional business functions into a series of modules so that a single transaction occurs seamlessly within a single information system rather than several separate systems best describes:
A) enterprise resource planning (ERP).
B) application service.
C) storage area network.
D) packaged software.
E) system integration software.
Q:
In many instances, off-the-shelf software can meet up to ________ percent of an organization's needs.
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 90
E) 100
Q:
Packaged software producers create software such as:
A) R/3.
B) Excel.
C) Linux.
D) Firefox.