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Q:
Identifying mandatory features by surveying users and other stakeholders who have been involved in requirements determination would occur:
A) near the end of the analysis phase, after all requirements have been structured and analyzed.
B) near the end of the project identification and selection phase, after a formal request to conduct a project to design and develop an information systems solution has been approved.
C) during the logical design phase, while detailed function specifications of all data, forms, reports, screens, and processing rules for all aspects of the system are prepared.
D) during systems planning and selection.
E) during systems implementation and operation.
Q:
Features that everyone agrees are necessary to solve the problem or meet the opportunity are called:
A) desired features.
B) essential features.
C) mandatory features.
D) minimum features.
E) requested features.
Q:
The minimum requirements for the new system are called:
A) essential features.
B) desired features.
C) minimum features.
D) mandatory features.
E) designated features.
Q:
Which of the following types of alternatives represent compromise solutions?
A) Low-end alternatives
B) High-end alternatives
C) Midrange alternatives
D) Requirements-dependent alternatives
E) Constraints-dependent alternatives
Q:
The alternative that goes beyond simply solving the problem in question and focuses instead on systems that contain many extra features users may desire is referred to as a:
A) low-end alternative.
B) high-end alternative.
C) quality-focused alternative.
D) requirements-dependent alternative.
E) constraints-dependent alternative.
Q:
The most conservative solutions in terms of the effort, cost, and technology involved in developing a new system are the:
A) low-end solutions.
B) high-end solutions.
C) mid-range solutions.
D) constraint-dependent solutions.
E) requirements-dependent solutions.
Q:
An ideal number of alternatives to generate is:
A) 3.
B) 2.
C) 4.
D) 5.
E) 7.
Q:
Which of the following is a true statement regarding high-end alternatives?
A) High-end alternative design strategies often do not involve computer technology; instead they focus on making paper flows more efficient or reducing redundancies in current processes.
B) High-end alternative design strategies represent compromise solutions.
C) Functionality is the primary focus of high-end alternative design strategies.
D) High-end alternative design strategies provide all the required functionality users demand with a system that is minimally different from the current system.
E) None of the above are correct.
Q:
Which of the following is a true statement regarding midrange alternatives?
A) Midrange alternative design strategies often do not involve computer technology; instead they focus on making paper flows more efficient or reducing redundancies in current processes.
B) Midrange alternative design strategies represent compromise solutions.
C) Functionality is the primary focus of midrange alternative design strategies.
D) Midrange alternative design strategies provide all the required functionality users demand with a system that is minimally different from the current system.
E) Midrange alternative design strategies provide all the desired features using advanced technologies that often allow the system to expand to meet future requirements.
Q:
In theory, if there are four sources of application software, two implementation environments, and three sets of requirements, how many design strategies are possible?
A) 4
B) 24
C) 9
D) 2
E) 27
Q:
Enumerating different potential implementation environments that could be used to deliver the different sets of capabilities occurs during the:
A) requirements structuring step of the analysis phase.
B) shaping alternative system design strategies phase.
C) testing step of the implementation and operation phase.
D) project initiation and planning step of the planning and selection phase.
E) designing the human interface step of the design phase.
Q:
A particular approach to developing an information system best describes:
A) design strategy.
B) problem statement.
C) requirements statement.
D) scope.
E) systems service request.
Q:
During which of the following steps will you bring the current phase to a close, prepare a report and presentation to management concerning continuation of the project, and get ready to move the project into design?
A) Designing the human interface
B) Requirements determination
C) Project initiation and planning
D) Alternative generation and selection
E) Requirements structuring
Q:
A "many" maximum cardinality is noted on the E-R diagram by:
A) placing a crow's foot notation near the entity.
B) placing a zero through the line near the entity.
C) using a double ellipse near the entity.
D) placing two slash marks near the entity.
E) using brackets.
Q:
If entity B is a mandatory participant, then:
A) the minimum cardinality of the relationship is two.
B) the minimum cardinality of the relationship cannot be defined.
C) the minimum cardinality of the relationship is one.
D) the minimum cardinality of the relationship is optional.
E) the join level is not null.
Q:
The minimum number of instances of entity B that may be associated with each instance of entity A defines the:
A) degree of the relationship.
B) minimum cardinality of the relationship.
C) maximum cardinality of the relationship.
D) domain of the relationship.
E) join level.
Q:
The number of instances of entity B that can (or must) be associated with each instance of entity A refers to:
A) cardinality.
B) domain.
C) ternary occurrence.
D) participation level.
E) join level.
Q:
A relationship between instances of two entity types is a:
A) unary relationship.
B) binary relationship.
C) ternary relationship.
D) multiple occurrence.
E) partnership occurrence.
Q:
A ternary relationship occurs when a simultaneous relationship exists among instances of:
A) the same entity.
B) two entity types.
C) three entity types.
D) four entity types.
E) nine entity types.
Q:
If STUDENT and COURSE participate in a relationship, this is an example of a(n):
A) unary relationship.
B) coupled relationship.
C) binary relationship.
D) ternary relationship.
E) extraordinary relationship.
Q:
The number of entity types that participate in a relationship refers to:
A) cardinality.
B) association.
C) count.
D) degree.
E) normalization.
Q:
A relationship between the instances of one entity type is a:
A) unary relationship.
B) binary relationship.
C) ternary relationship.
D) singular occurrence.
E) partnership occurrence.
Q:
An association between the instances of one or more entity types that is of interest to the organization best defines:
A) occurrence.
B) relationship.
C) natural connection.
D) cardinality.
E) entity link.
Q:
A set of two or more multivalued attributes that are logically related defines:
A) relationship.
B) associative entity.
C) repeating group.
D) class.
E) repeating entity.
Q:
If each employee can have more than one skill, then skill is referred to as a:
A) gerund.
B) multivalued attribute.
C) nonexclusive attribute.
D) repeating attribute.
E) data replica.
Q:
An attribute that can have more than one value for each entity instance is referred to as:
A) a gerund.
B) a multivalued attribute.
C) a nonexclusive attribute.
D) a data replica.
E) composite attribute
Q:
On an entity-relationship diagram, the entity's identifier is:
A) identified by using a double-lined ellipse.
B) underlined on an E-R diagram.
C) bold on an E-R diagram.
D) written in all capital letters on an E-R diagram.
E) placed in italics.
Q:
A candidate key that has been selected as the unique, identifying characteristic for an entity type is called a(n):
A) attribute.
B) identifier.
C) secondary key.
D) gerund.
E) index.
Q:
When selecting an identifier, one should:
A) use intelligent keys.
B) use large composite keys instead of single-attribute surrogate keys.
C) choose a candidate key that will not change its value over the life of each instance of the entity type.
D) choose a candidate key such that for each instance of the entity, the attribute is guaranteed to have valid values or is null.
E) choose a candidate key that allows for duplicate values.
Q:
An attribute (or combination of attributes) that uniquely identifies each instance of an entity type defines:
A) data element occurrence.
B) trigger.
C) candidate key.
D) associative entity.
E) data marker.
Q:
Vehicle identification number, color, weight, and horsepower best exemplify:
A) entities.
B) entity types.
C) data markers.
D) identifiers.
E) attributes.
Q:
A named property or characteristic of an entity that is of interest to the organization defines:
A) attribute.
B) relationship.
C) instance.
D) associative entity.
E) data flow.
Q:
A single occurrence of an entity type defines:
A) entity instance.
B) entity appearance.
C) attribute.
D) data element.
E) multivalued attribute.
Q:
A collection of entities that share common properties or characteristics best defines:
A) entity type.
B) entity instance.
C) entity occurrence.
D) entity collection.
E) data set.
Q:
A renewal is an example of a(n):
A) data element.
B) attribute.
C) entity.
D) relationship.
E) action stub.
Q:
A product is an example of a(n):
A) data element.
B) attribute.
C) entity.
D) relationship.
E) process.
Q:
A person, place, object, event, or concept in the user environment about which the organization wishes to maintain data refers to a(n):
A) attribute.
B) data element.
C) relationship.
D) entity.
E) process.
Q:
On an entity-relationship diagram, a rectangle represents a(n):
A) data flow.
B) entity.
C) multivalued attribute.
D) repeating group.
E) relationship.
Q:
Asking system users and managers, "Who is responsible for establishing legitimate values for these data?" helps determine:
A) the candidate key.
B) security controls and understanding who really knows the meaning of data.
C) relationships and their cardinality and degrees.
D) attributes and secondary keys.
E) integrity rules, minimum and maximum cardinality, and time dimensions of data.
Q:
Asking system users and business managers, "What are the subjects of the business?" would help determine:
A) the data entities and their descriptions.
B) the candidate key.
C) attributes and secondary keys.
D) relationships and their cardinality and degrees.
E) integrity rules, minimum and maximum cardinality, and time dimensions of data.
Q:
Reviewing computer screens, reports, and business forms for the purpose of gaining an understanding of data is indicative of the:
A) investigative approach.
B) business approach.
C) bottom-up approach.
D) top-down approach.
E) conceptual approach.
Q:
Gathering the information you need for data modeling by reviewing specific business documents handled within the system describes the:
A) bottom-up approach.
B) conceptual approach.
C) top-down approach.
D) investigative approach.
E) business approach.
Q:
The data modeling perspective that derives the business rules for a data model from an intimate understanding of the nature of the business, rather than from any specific information requirements in screens, reports, or business forms, is referred to as the:
A) top-down approach.
B) bottom-up approach.
C) overview approach.
D) business approach.
E) conceptual approach.
Q:
Which of the following is a true statement?
A) A data model explains what the organization does and what rules govern how work is done in the organization.
B) To construct a data model, you need to know how data are processed.
C) To construct a data model, you need to know when data are processed.
D) A data flow diagram graphically illustrates the structure and relationships among data items.
E) During conceptual data modeling, the preparation of a Network diagram is necessary.
Q:
The primary deliverable from the conceptual data-modeling step within the analysis phase is:
A) a state-transition diagram.
B) an entity-relationship diagram.
C) a context data flow diagram.
D) a decision table.
E) Structured English.
Q:
During systems analysis:
A) a conceptual data model (E-R with attributes) is prepared.
B) a logical model (relational) is prepared.
C) physical files and database designs are prepared.
D) an enterprise-wide data model is prepared.
E) database and file definitions are prepared.
Q:
The most common format used for data modeling is:
A) state-transition diagramming.
B) entity-relationship diagramming.
C) process modeling.
D) logic modeling.
E) a flowchart.
Q:
Conceptual data modeling is typically done in parallel with other requirements analysis and structuring steps during:
A) systems planning and selection.
B) systems design.
C) systems analysis.
D) systems implementation and operation.
E) systems evaluation.
Q:
Essential features are those that everyone agrees are necessary to solve the problem or meet the opportunity.
Q:
The minimum requirements for a new system are also its mandatory features.
Q:
Cost is the primary focus of high-end alternatives.
Q:
A good number of alternatives to generate is five.
Q:
In theory, if there are six sets of requirements, four implementation environments, and five sources of application software, then there would be one hundred twenty possible design strategies.
Q:
In theory, if there are four sets of requirements, three implementation environments, and four sources of application software, then there would be thirty-six possible design strategies.
Q:
During the designing the human interface step of the design phase, you would enumerate different potential implementation environments that could be used to deliver the different sets of capabilities.
Q:
Conceptual data modeling for an Internet-based electronic commerce application differs significantly from the process followed when analyzing the data needs for other types of applications.
Q:
Ideally, each data store on a primitive data-flow diagram will be an individual attribute.
Q:
A relationship must be turned into an associative entity when the associative entity has other relationships with entities besides the relationship that caused its creation.
Q:
A plural relationship is a relationship that the data modeler chooses to model as entity type.
Q:
The minimum cardinality of a relationship is the minimum number of instances of entity B that may be associated with each instance of entity A.
Q:
Cardinality is the number of instances of entity B that can (or must) be associated with each instance of entity A.
Q:
A ternary relationship is the equivalent of three binary relationships.
Q:
A unary relationship is the most common type of relationship encountered in data modeling.
Q:
A ternary relationship is a relationship between instances of one entity type.
Q:
The goal of conceptual data modeling is to capture as much of the meaning of data as possible.
Q:
Relationships are labeled with verb phrases.
Q:
A join is an association between the instances of one or more entity types that is of interest to the organization.
Q:
A repeating group is a set of two or more multivalued attributes that are logically related.
Q:
A multivalued attribute is an attribute that may take on more than one value for each entity instance.
Q:
One way to handle repeating data within an entity is to separate the repeating data into another entity, called a weak entity.
Q:
When referencing an employee entity, an employee's skills are an example of a multivalued attribute.
Q:
Analysts should consider substituting single-attribute surrogate keys for large composite keys.
Q:
Analysts should use intelligent keys as identifiers.
Q:
When selecting an identifier, one should choose a candidate key that will not change its value over the life of each instance of the entity type.
Q:
An identifier is a candidate key that has been selected as the unique, identifying characteristic for an entity type.
Q:
A primary key should be null.
Q:
A faculty identification number could be used as an identifier.
Q:
An order number is a good example of a candidate key.
Q:
Employee identification number, name, address, and skill are examples of attributes.
Q:
An entity instance is a single occurrence of an entity type.