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Q:
Graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute data between a system and its environment and among components within a system refers to:
A) data modeling.
B) structure modeling.
C) process modeling.
D) transition modeling.
E) logic modeling.
Q:
Since data-flow diagrams concentrate on the movement of data between processes, these diagrams are often referred to as:
A) process models.
B) data models.
C) flow models.
D) flow charts.
E) logic models.
Q:
Data-flow diagrams allow you to:
A) show the timing of data flows.
B) model how data flow through an information system.
C) demonstrate the sequencing of activities.
D) show the relationship among entities.
E) represent the internal structure and functionality of processes.
Q:
To date, data-flow diagrams have not been useful tools for modeling processes in business process reengineering.
Q:
Structured analysis is the process of discovering discrepancies between two or more sets of data-flow diagrams or discrepancies within a single DFD.
Q:
One of the primary purposes of a DFD is to represent time, giving a good indication of whether data flows occur constantly in real time, once a day, or once a year.
Q:
A gross violation of DFD consistency would be a level-1 diagram with no level-0 diagram.
Q:
A data flow repository entry would include the composition or list of data elements contained in the data flow.
Q:
DFD cohesion means your DFDs include all of the necessary components for the system you are modeling.
Q:
Completeness, consistency, timing, iterative development, and primitive DFDs are guidelines for drawing DFDs.
Q:
A composite data flow on one level can be split into component data flows at the next level, but no new data can be added and all data in the composite must be accounted for in one or more subflows.
Q:
Coupling is the conservation of inputs and outputs to a data-flow diagram process when that process is decomposed to a lower level.
Q:
As a rule of thumb, no data-flow diagram should have more than about seven processes on it.
Q:
The decomposition of Process 2.4.3.4 would be shown on a level-4 diagram.
Q:
The decomposition of Process 1.1 would be shown on a level-1 diagram.
Q:
The lowest-level data-flow diagrams are called level-0 diagrams.
Q:
Functional decomposition is a repetitive process of breaking the description or perspective of a system down into finer and finer detail.
Q:
Because a data flow name represents a specific set of data, another data flow that has even one more or one less piece of data must be given a different, unique name.
Q:
To keep a data-flow diagram uncluttered, you may repeat data stores, sinks/sources, and processes.
Q:
Double-ended arrows are used to represent data flowing in both directions.
Q:
A process has a verb label.
Q:
More than one data flow noun phrase can appear on a single arrow as long as all of the flows on the same arrow move together as one package.
Q:
A data flow to a data store means update.
Q:
Data cannot move directly from a source to a sink.
Q:
A fork in a data flow means that exactly the same data go from a common location to two or more different processes, data stores, or sources/sinks.
Q:
A data flow can go directly back to the same process it leaves.
Q:
Assume we have placed a data store between Process 5.1 and Process 5.5; we would say that these processes are decoupled.
Q:
Assume Process 7.4 produces a data flow and that Process 7.2 must be ready to accept it; we would say that these processes are physically linked to each other.
Q:
A level-0 diagram is a data-flow diagram that represents a system's major processes, data flows, and data stores at a high level of detail.
Q:
No data stores appear on a context diagram.
Q:
Context diagrams have only one process labeled "P-1."
Q:
A context diagram shows the scope of the organizational system, system boundaries, external entities that interact with the system, and the major information flows between entities and the system.
Q:
On a data-flow diagram, a rectangle with the right vertical line missing represents a data store.
Q:
On a data-flow diagram, a diamond represents a process.
Q:
On a data-flow diagram, an arrow represents an action, such as calculating an employee's pay.
Q:
A Web site's customer is represented as a source on a data-flow diagram.
Q:
The data a sink receives and often what data a source provides are fixed.
Q:
When constructing data-flow diagrams, you should show the interactions that occur between sources and sinks.
Q:
Sources and sinks are internal to the system.
Q:
The determination of which items are low in stock is represented on a data-flow diagram as a process.
Q:
Briefly identify and describe the participants of a JAD session.
Q:
Briefly identify and discuss four types of documents that would be helpful in determining future system requirements.
Q:
Briefly identify and describe the modern methods for determining requirements.
Q:
Briefly identify the traditional methods for determining requirements.
Q:
Briefly identify several characteristics for a good systems analyst to have during requirements determination.
Q:
Disruptive technologies include:
A) cash.
B) accounts receivable.
C) a calculator.
D) high-performance computing.
E) systems analysis.
Q:
Which of the following technologies disrupted the business rule of you having to find out where things are?
A) Distributed databases
B) Expert systems
C) Advanced telecommunications networks
D) Automatic identification and tracking technology
E) Interactive communications technologies
Q:
Which of the following technologies disrupted the business rule that information can appear only in one place at a time?
A) High-performance computing
B) Distributed databases
C) Expert systems
D) Advanced telecommunications networks
E) Decision support tools
Q:
Technologies that enable the breaking of long-held business rules that inhibit organizations from making radical business changes best defines:
A) technology barrier breakers.
B) reengineered technologies.
C) disruptive technologies.
D) state-of-the-art technologies.
E) innovative technologies.
Q:
Which of the following system requirement determination techniques can be applied to discovering and understanding key business processes?
A) JAD
B) Tacit Knowledge
C) Internal Processes
D) Non-measurable data
E) Internal Interpretation
Q:
The structured, measured set of activities designed to produce a specific output for a particular customer or market best defines:
A) formal systems.
B) key business processes.
C) secondary activities.
D) production systems.
E) primary processes.
Q:
The search for, and implementation of, radical change in business processes to achieve breakthrough improvements in products and services best defines:
A) joint application design.
B) rapid application development.
C) structured programming.
D) business process reengineering.
E) disruptive design.
Q:
Prototyping is most useful for requirements determination when:
A) user requirements are well understood.
B) communication problems have existed in the past between users and analysts.
C) possible designs are simple and require an abstract form to fully evaluate.
D) multiple stakeholders are involved with the system.
E) data are not readily available.
Q:
Drawbacks to prototyping include:
A) a tendency to create formal documentation of systems requirements which can then make the system more difficult to develop into a fully working system.
B) using when requirements are not clear.
C) creating when tools and data are readily available.
D) checks in the SDLC are bypassed so that some more subtle, but still important, system requirements might be forgotten.
E) support from management.
Q:
The person who makes detailed notes of the happenings at a joint application design session is referred to as the:
A) JAD analyst.
B) scribe.
C) JAD manager.
D) JAD session leader.
E) JAD oracle.
Q:
Which of the following JAD participants use the system in question and provide insight into new organizational directions?
A) Managers
B) Sponsors
C) Session leaders
D) Users
E) Scribes
Q:
The trained individual who plans and leads joint application design sessions is referred to as the:
A) scribe.
B) session leader.
C) manager.
D) analyst.
E) sponsor.
Q:
The typical participants in a JAD include:
A) the CEO.
B) a city official.
C) a systems analyst.
D) a customer.
E) academic faculty.
Q:
When comparing observations and document analysis:
A) the time required to conduct observations compared to document analysis is low.
B) the expense of the observation method is quite low.
C) the potential audience of the observation method is limited.
D) a clear commitment is discernible.
E) the chances of probing and clarification are good with document analysis.
Q:
Which of the following is a true statement regarding JAD?
A) A working system is the end result of a JAD.
B) JAD sessions are usually conducted in the organization's conference room.
C) The primary purpose of using JAD in the analysis phase is to collect systems requirements simultaneously from the key people involved with the system.
D) A JAD session is inexpensive to conduct.
E) JADs benefit greatly from computer support.
Q:
Which of the following is a modern method for collecting system requirements?
A) Interviewing
B) Questionnaires
C) Observations
D) Joint application design
E) Document analysis
Q:
When reviewing job procedures, you may find:
A) data definition conflicts.
B) duplicate CEOs.
C) data manipulation conflicts.
D) a contradiction between a formal procedure and interview or observation results.
E) competitors mission statements.
Q:
A report:
A) indicates the inputs required for the new system.
B) describes how a particular job or task is performed, including data and information that are used and created in the process of performing the job.
C) indicates what data flow in or out of a system and which are necessary for the system to function.
D) enables you to work backward from the information on the document and identify the data that must have been necessary to generate it.
E) does none of the above.
Q:
Forms are most useful:
A) when they do not contain any data.
B) during the initial planning stages.
C) when they contain actual organizational data.
D) during the design stage.
E) during the requirements structuring stage.
Q:
Forms are important for understanding a business because they:
A) indicate the correct sequencing of tasks.
B) describe how particular tasks are performed.
C) indicate what data flow in or out of a system and which are necessary for the system to function.
D) enable you to work backwards from the information on a report to the necessary data that must have been necessary to generate them.
E) identify duplicate efforts within a system.
Q:
The way a system actually works is referred to as a(n):
A) unofficial system.
B) informal system.
C) actual system.
D) formal system.
E) secondary system.
Q:
The official way a system works as described in organizational documentation is referred to as a(n):
A) formal system.
B) informal system.
C) official system.
D) desired system.
E) primary system.
Q:
If your analysis of several written procedures reveals a duplication of effort in two jobs, you should:
A) indicate that one job be deleted from the new system.
B) call the duplication to the attention of management as an issue to be resolved before system design can proceed.
C) justify the duplication of effort.
D) restructure the tasks so that the duplication is removed.
E) not mention the duplication of effort to management.
Q:
A written work procedure:
A) indicates the job an analyst will need to perform on a given project.
B) describes how a particular job or task is performed.
C) indicates what data flow in or out of a system and which are necessary for the system to function.
D) enables you to work backwards from the information on a report to the data that must have been necessary to generate it.
E) determines if the information makes sense for the organization from an economic and operational standpoint.
Q:
The analysis of documents can help you identify:
A) problems with unknown systems.
B) special information processing circumstances that occur frequently.
C) the reason why current systems are designed the way they are.
D) the organizational stock price.
E) the steering committee.
Q:
Which of the following is a reason for directly observing end users?
A) The analyst gets a snapshot image of the person or task being observed.
B) Observations are not very time consuming.
C) People often do not have a completely accurate appreciation of what they do or how they do it.
D) Employees will alter their performance if they know that they are being observed.
E) Interviewing is less rich, passive, and often provides ambiguous data.
Q:
Good interview guidelines consist of:
A) phrasing the question to illicit the correct response.
B) typing your notes within two weeks of the interview.
C) establishing expectation levels about the new system.
D) seeking a variety of perspectives from the interviews.
E) using as much time as you need.
Q:
Rating a response or idea on some scale, say from strongly agree to strongly disagree, would be classified as a(n):
A) open-ended question.
B) stratified question.
C) closed-ended question.
D) contemporary question.
E) structured question.
Q:
Which of the following is an advantage of closed-ended questions?
A) Interviews based on closed-ended questions do not necessarily require a large time commitment, so more topics can be covered.
B) Closed-ended questions enable the analysts to explore information that does not quite fit defined answers.
C) The analyst can obtain previously unknown information.
D) Closed-ended questions often put the interviewee at ease.
E) The interviewee has a sense of involvement and control in the interview.
Q:
Which of the following can be considered an advantage of closed-ended questions?
A) The interviewer can explore unexpected lines of inquiry.
B) Closed-ended questions work well when the major answers to the questions are well known.
C) The interviewee has a sense of involvement and control in the interview.
D) Closed-ended questions often put the interviewee at ease.
E) Previously unknown information may surface.
Q:
Questions in interviews and on questionnaires asking those responding to choose from a set of specified responses are:
A) specific questions.
B) closed-ended questions.
C) open-ended questions.
D) structured questions.
E) stratified questions.
Q:
Which of the following can be considered an advantage of open-ended questions?
A) The interviewer cannot explore unexpected lines of inquiry.
B) Open-ended questions often make the interviewee scared.
C) The interviewee has a sense of involvement and control in the interview.
D) Interviewees can respond by selecting true or false.
E) Data cannot be collected over the phone.
Q:
One advantage of open-ended questions in an interview is:
A) a significant amount of time can be devoted to each interviewee.
B) the interviewee is restricted to providing just a few answers.
C) previously unknown information can result.
D) they work well when the answers to the questions are well known.
E) they are not biased.
Q:
Questions in interviews and on questionnaires that have no pre-specified answers are:
A) nonspecific questions.
B) closed-ended questions.
C) open-ended questions.
D) investigative questions.
E) exploratory questions.
Q:
Which of the following is a traditional method of collecting systems requirements?
A) Business process reengineering
B) Observations
C) Joint application design
D) Rapid application development
E) Prototyping