Q&A Hero

Q: Standard management of chemical burn caused by a terrorist incident includes: A) rinsing the area with ice water. B) using a neutralizing agent. C) leaving any corrosive materials on the skin. D) irrigating vigorously with cool water.

Q: Which of the following methods of decontamination is NOT usually a prehospital activity during a terrorism incident? A) Dilution B) Absorption C) Neutralization D) Isolation

Q: Which of the following is NOT traditionally a responsibility of an EMT on the scene of a hazardous materials incident caused by terrorism? A) Scene size-up B) Containment and control C) Assessment of the toxicological risk D) Activation of the incident management system (IMS)

Q: Tertiary injuries from a blast include: A) extremity fractures. B) bowel perforations. C) lung injuries. D) impaled objects.

Q: Secondary injuries from a blast include: A) extremity fractures. B) liver lacerations. C) lung injuries. D) impaled objects.

Q: Primary injuries from a blast include: A) extremity fractures. B) liver lacerations. C) lung injuries. D) impaled objects.

Q: Concerning the threat of nuclear devices used in terrorist attacks, which of the following is MOST likely to be used in such an attack? A) Military nuclear device B) Improvised nuclear weapon C) Radiological dispersal device D) Sabotage of facilities for nuclear research

Q: Biological warfare is MOST effective when the agent can gain access through which of the following routes? A) Blood B) Gastrointestinal tract C) Respiratory tract D) Skin

Q: Which of the following does NOT have an impact on the behavior of a chemical in a mass-casualty incident? A) Physical state of the agent B) Route of entry into the body C) Whether it was an intentional or accidental exposure D) Volatility of the agent

Q: An outbreak of which of the following illnesses would be LEAST likely to occur naturally? A) Anthrax B) Venezuelan encephalitis C) Smallpox D) Botulism

Q: Which of the following chemical agents prohibits the use of oxygen in the cells? A) Nerve agents B) Blister agents C) Cyanide D) All of the above

Q: The best way for a terrorist to weaponize and disseminate a chemical nerve agent exposing a large number of people would be to: A) put it in a paper bag in a crowded mall and puncture the bag with a stick. B) throw a paper bag loaded with nerve agent onto a busy subway train. C) steal a truck that sprays for mosquitos and aerosolize the nerve agent into a crowded subdivision. D) throw a Molotov cocktail loaded with nerve agent into a windshield of a passenger bus.

Q: Which of the following animals is the direct source of exposure of the bacterium that causes the plague to humans? A) Fleas B) Squirrels C) Rats D) Bees

Q: Which of the following features increases the appeal of an infectious agent for use in terrorist attacks? A) Low virulence B) Instability C) High infectivity D) Low potency

Q: Anthrax can infect an individual through which of the following routes of exposure? A) Inhalation B) Skin C) Ingestion D) All of the above

Q: Someone who has more hair than average on his body is at a higher risk than someone with less hair to be exposed to a toxin by which of the following routes? A) Ingestion B) Injection C) Inhalation D) Absorption

Q: Terrorist incidents typically involve all of the following agents except: A) explosives. B) biological agents. C) allergens. D) nuclear agents.

Q: Which of the following types of radiation emits the most powerful rays? A) Alpha B) Beta C) Delta D) Gamma

Q: The formula dose multiplied by time represents which of the following? A) Lethal dose B) Concentration C) Exposure D) Critical level

Q: Three methods for minimizing exposure to harmful incidents are: A) time, decontamination, and shielding. B) technique, distance, and serum. C) time, distance, and shielding. D) time, decontamination, and serum.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a consideration in the general protection against agents used in terrorist attacks? A) Immunization B) Distance from event C) Shielding from the agent D) Duration of exposure

Q: The extent of radiation depends on which of the following factors? A) Duration of exposure B) Distance from the source C) Shielding from the source D) All of the above

Q: The type of radiation that requires lead shielding for your protection is: A) alpha. B) beta. C) delta. D) gamma.

Q: You are on an ambulance responding to a mass-casualty incident at a shopping mall on a warm Saturday afternoon. En route, you listen to the incident commander broadcast information to dispatch and all inbound units about 20 patients complaining of respiratory difficulty and a burning sensation in their eyes. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result of: A) the location of the call. B) the type of event. C) the timing of the event. D) on-scene warning signs.

Q: An oxygen level of ________ is required for normal breathing. A) 10.5% B) 16.5% C) 25.5% D) 19.5%

Q: A terrorist incident may have features in common with which of the following types of incidents? A) Infectious disease B) Mass casualty C) Hazardous materials D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following may be a clue that an incident is the result of terrorist violence? A) Function of the target B) Number of people present C) Occurrence on the anniversary of a significant or symbolic historical event D) All of the above

Q: The current trend in international terrorism is that it tends to be motivated by which of the following? A) Ethics B) Politics C) Religion D) Environmental issues

Q: You are on the scene of a probable terrorist attack with several other agencies, both local and federal. In order to operate in an efficient manner, all agencies should follow the: A) Incident Control System. B) Interagency Command System. C) Incident Command System. D) Interagency Communication System.

Q: A type of harm that you may be exposed to as an EMT responding to a terrorist incident that is characterized by a resulting post-traumatic stress disorder (PSTD) is typically called a(n): A) etiological harm. B) radiological harm. C) psychological harm. D) thermal harm.

Q: You arrive on the scene of an unknown emergency. As you scan the surrounding area, you notice a large number of people wearing unique armbands and shouting anti-government comments though you are not aware of any public gathering scheduled for today. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result of: A) the location of the call. B) the type of event. C) the timing of the event. D) on-scene warning signs.

Q: Which of the following is a consideration when responding to a terrorist incident? A) Presence of mass casualties B) Crime scene considerations C) Presence of booby traps such as secondary explosive devices D) All of the above

Q: Dangerous organisms that can grow in a variety of environments and are capable of producing toxic substances are known as: A) viruses. B) bacteria. C) toxins. D) biologicals.

Q: Dangerous organisms that grow inside of living cells and reproduce are known as: A) viruses. B) bacteria. C) toxins. D) biologicals.

Q: Which of the following is a type of chemical weapon? A) Bacterial toxin B) Bomb containing radioactive material C) Vesicants D) Plastic explosives

Q: Which of the following is NOT generally recognized as a form of terrorist incident? A) Harassment B) Explosion C) Industrial sabotage D) Biological weapons

Q: Two elements that differentiate a hazardous materials incident from a terrorist incident are: A) targeting responders and weapons of mass destruction (WMD). B) weapons of mass destruction and a political agenda. C) targeting responders and a political agenda. D) crime scene considerations and targeting responders.

Q: Which two types of terrorism does the Federal Bureau of Investigation define as occurring in the United States? A) Psychological and economic B) Chemical and biological C) Domestic and international D) Violent and intimidation

Q: Which of the following BEST defines domestic terrorism? A) Interpersonal violence between family members B) Politically motivated act of violence that occurs within the United States C) Small group of people directing violent acts at the population or government without foreign influence D) Acts of violence perpetrated by American citizens against the government of another country

Q: When attempting to extinguish a fire inside the passenger compartment, it is important to: A) use the extinguishing agent sparingly to avoid creating a cloud of powder. B) apply the extinguishing agent liberally to speed up the extinguishing process. C) aim the nozzle of the extinguisher away from the patient to avoid hitting the patient. D) resist the urge to extinguish the fire and focus on extricating any patients.

Q: On arrival at a vehicle collision, you observe a small fire in the engine compartment. A bystander is attempting to smother the fire with a jacket as you approach with an A-B-C extinguisher from your ambulance. Which of the following is the BEST method of extinguishing the fire? A) Sweep the nozzle of the extinguisher left and right using short bursts until you are out of extinguishing agent. B) Aim at the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire is out. C) Close the hood to contain the fire within the engine compartment. D) Aim the nozzle to the side of the fire and, with a sweeping motion, push the fire at its base.

Q: Which of the following describes vehicle glass that is designed to break into small pieces rather than shattering into sharp fragments? A) Tempered glass B) Plexiglas C) Leaded glass D) Alloy glass

Q: Which of the following methods should the EMT use first to attempt to access a patient in a vehicle while awaiting arrival of a rescue crew? A) Use a pry-bar to release the Nader pin in the door latch. B) Try all of the vehicle's doors to see if they will open. C) Use a heavy tool to break the window closest to the patient. D) Use a spring-loaded punch to break the rear window.

Q: Which of the following is the rule of thumb for determining the stability of a vehicle that has been involved in a collision? A) It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel. B) It is stable if the transmission is in "Park" or the parking brake is on. C) It is stable if it is upright on all four wheels. D) It is stable if the ignition is turned off.

Q: Upon arrival at the scene of a motor vehicle collision, you find a vehicle that is on fire. The fire is confined to the engine compartment and the hood is tightly closed. Of the following, which is the BEST course of action? A) Use a long-handled pry-bar to open the hood and put out the fire with a fire extinguisher. B) Let the fire burn and concentrate on extricating the patient. C) Wet the interior of the vehicle to keep the fire from spreading. D) Discharge a dry chemical fire extinguisher onto the patient's clothing to protect him from the fire.

Q: Which of the following is the EMT's key role at the scene of an auto extrication? A) Rescue technician B) Patient advocate C) Safety officer D) Incident commander

Q: Once access to the patient is gained, which of the following is the next goal during an auto extrication? A) Disentanglement of the patient B) Primary assessment and rapid trauma exam C) Stabilization of the vehicle D) Extrication of the patient from the vehicle

Q: Which of the following is an advantage of removing the roof of a vehicle that has sustained major damage in a collision? A) It makes the entire interior of the vehicle accessible. B) The EMT can better access the patients. C) It creates a large exit through which to remove the patient. D) All of the above

Q: An unresponsive patient is found sitting in the front seat of a vehicle with his legs pinned under the dash. Once his legs have been freed, which of the following methods should be used for removal of the patient? A) Rapid take-down B) Rapid extrication technique C) Scoop stretcher D) Quick extraction

Q: Which of the following is a reason that the vehicle doors are removed to extricate the patient rather than pulling the patient through an open window? A) To avoid criticism from bystanders B) To avoid being cut by glass C) To allow for proper spinal immobilization D) To make the interior of the vehicle less accessible

Q: You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision involving a small pickup truck that struck the rear of a moving tractor-trailer. The driver of the tractor-trailer is walking around and complains of neck pain. The driver of the pickup truck is conscious, but cannot exit the vehicle because the door is stuck and the steering wheel is displaced onto his lap. The passenger of the pickup truck is sitting upright in the passenger seat, is unconscious, but has radial pulses. Access to the passenger is not obstructed. A fourth patient, who was sitting in the pickup truck bed, is found about 10 feet away and responds to commands appropriately. Assuming your ambulance is the only emergency vehicle on the scene currently, which of the following patients should be packaged for transport first by the next arriving ambulance? A) Tractor trailer driver B) Pickup truck driver C) Passenger in the pickup truck's front seat D) Passenger ejected from the pickup truck bed

Q: Stabilizing a vehicle is unnecessary when a vehicle is on its roof with: A) all roof supports collapsed. B) the trunk lid in contact with the ground. C) the front edge of the hood in contact with the ground. D) the vehicle horizontal and resting entirely on the roof.

Q: You are assessing a patient in the front seat of a vehicle that was involved in a head-on collision. As you examine the interior of the vehicle, you notice the air bags have not deployed. What action should you take in order to render the scene safe to work? A) Disconnect the battery and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle. B) Disconnect the battery and continue assessing the patient. C) Turn the ignition to the "off" position and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle. D) Use a long spine board to shield yourself from the undeployed air bag.

Q: You are managing a patient who is being extricated from a vehicle by a rescue crew using hydraulic tools. Which of the following items should you use in order to protect your patient during the extrication process? A) Short spine board to prevent debris from contacting the patient B) Wool blanket to protect the patient from broken glass C) Oxygen mask to prevent inhalation of noxious fumes D) Aluminized rescue blanket to protect the patient from sharp edges

Q: Which safety device prevents car doors from opening during a collision? A) Safety lock B) Nader jam C) Nader pin D) Safety pin

Q: When extrication will involve cutting the roof off a vehicle, stabilization of the vehicle should include: A) placing chocks on both sides of at least two wheels. B) placing wheel chocks on both sides of all wheels. C) deflating all tires by slashing them. D) deflating all tires by pulling the valve stems.

Q: When disconnecting a battery cable to disrupt a vehicle's electrical system, the EMT should disconnect the: A) positive cable from the battery. B) negative cable from the battery. C) positive cable from the alternator. D) negative cable from the alternator.

Q: You are on the scene of a vehicle collision involving a downed power line. You are walking in an area you feel is a safe distance from the line and begin to feel a tingling sensation in your feet. Which of the following would be a proper method of ensuring your safety while exiting the area? A) Turn 90 degrees to the direction you are walking and hop to a safe place on one foot. B) Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and quickly run to a safe location. C) Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area. D) Turn 90 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area.

Q: If you are first on scene, what should you do first in determining where and how should you park your apparatus? A) Establish Command and confirm the exact location of the incident with the dispatch center before parking. B) Use apparatus to institute "downstream blocking" of the scene to protect the work area. C) Immediately park in the same direction and in single file. D) Provide downstream blocking if you are driving one of the larger units.

Q: If the steering wheel must be displaced during extrication and the air bag has not deployed, which of the following actions is recommended by air bag manufacturers? A) Firmly strike the hub of the steering wheel with a mallet to deactivate the air bag before displacing the steering wheel. B) No action is required; only frontal impact will deploy air bags. C) Disconnect the battery cables. D) Secure a long backboard across the steering wheel to deflect the air bag from the patient should it deploy.

Q: Which of the following should be used to protect a patient during extrication? A) Plastic blanket B) Netting C) Goggles D) None of the above

Q: Which of the following should the EMT consider when protecting a patient during extrication? A) Noise B) Weather C) Debris D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is a good choice for preventing further injury to a patient during auto extrication? A) Disposable blanket B) Sheet C) Placing your body over the top of the patient D) None of the above

Q: Which of the following measures can the EMT take to create a safer extrication scene? A) Setting up road flares every 10 feet for a safe distance to divert traffic away from the collision B) Setting up road flares around hazards such as spilled fuel C) Dropping road flares from the ambulance as you are approaching the scene D) Both B and C

Q: Which of the following is an important reason for controlling spectators at the scene of an extrication incident? A) Spectators may get injured. B) It ensures respect for the patient's privacy. C) Spectators may interfere with rescue efforts. D) All of the above

Q: Under which of the following conditions are safety vests with reflective trim effective in increasing the visibility of the EMT? A) On sunny days B) On cloudy days C) At night D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is adequate protection for the EMT's head while at the scene of an auto extrication? A) Firefighting helmet B) Watch cap C) Standard construction hardhat D) Nomex hood

Q: Which of the following provides the BEST protection for the EMT's hands during a vehicle rescue operation? A) Leather gloves B) Double-thickness latex gloves C) Fabric work gloves with non-slip palms D) Elbow-length chemical-proof gloves

Q: You are at the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a single vehicle has collided with a tree. You note that the driver's side air bag has deployed. Which of the following is recommended by air bag manufacturers? A) Cut away the fabric portion of the air bag to get it out of the way. B) Lift the air bag and inspect the steering wheel for damage. C) Use a portable fan to ventilate the car to remove the powder from the air bag. D) Sharply strike the front bumper to make sure the second air bag has deployed.

Q: Which of the following is an unsafe behavior that contributes to most injuries at the scene of vehicle collisions? A) Unknowingly walking into hazardous materials situations B) Antagonizing bystanders C) Not wearing proper protective gear D) Using improvised tools

Q: Which of the following is the first concern when you are caring for a patient who has been in a vehicle collision? A) Preserving evidence, such as alcohol beverage bottles and vehicle positioning B) Helping law enforcement get the driver's name and insurance information C) Your own safety D) Treating life-threatening injuries

Q: You have arrived at the scene of a motor vehicle collision to find that there are several critically injured patients. Which of the following should you do first? A) Begin triage of all patients before deciding on additional resources. B) Call for additional rescue units and transporting ambulances. C) Begin extrication of the most critically injured patient. D) Begin to care for the patient closest to your vehicle.

Q: Which of the following BEST describes why it is important for the EMT to understand the extrication process? A) To anticipate any dangerous steps in the extrication process B) To provide direction to the rescue technicians if they appear to be making errors C) To take over the extrication process if requested by the rescue technicians D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following activities should NOT occur during the scene size-up? A) Providing airway management B) Determining the mechanism of injury C) Determining the extent of the patient's entrapment D) Determining the need for additional resources

Q: Which of the following phases of extrication follows the other three phases? A) Recognizing and managing hazards B) Immobilizing and extricating the patient C) Stabilizing the vehicle D) Gaining access to the patient

Q: Which of the following is the highest priority during extrication? A) Controlling major bleeding B) Maintaining the patient's airway C) Ensuring your personal safety D) Gaining access to the patient

Q: Which of the following is NOT a phase of the extrication process? A) Disentanglement B) Gaining access to the patient C) Simplification D) Terminating the rescue

Q: When working at a nighttime emergency on a roadway, which of the following safety considerations should the prudent EMS provider do to increase safety? A) Keep all available response lights on to warn oncoming traffic. B) Switch the headlights to the "high beam" position for maximum lighting. C) Operate amber warning lights only, if the option is available. D) Keep only the fog lights on to keep the light out of drivers' vision.

Q: While performing night operations, which of the following combinations of lights provide maximum visibility? A) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights ON, fog lights ON, and traffic directional boards ON B) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights OFF, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards ON C) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights ON, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards ON D) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights OFF, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards OFF

Q: The safest way to extinguish a road flare is to: A) let it burn out. B) pick it up and snuff it out with a gloved hand. C) douse it with a fire hose. D) pick it up and rub it onto the ground.