Q&A Hero

Q: You arrive on the scene of an unknown emergency. As you scan the surrounding area, you notice a large number of people wearing unique armbands and shouting anti-government comments though you are not aware of any public gathering scheduled for today. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result of: A) the location of the call. B) the type of event. C) the timing of the event. D) on-scene warning signs.

Q: Which of the following is a consideration when responding to a terrorist incident? A) Presence of mass casualties B) Crime scene considerations C) Presence of booby traps such as secondary explosive devices D) All of the above

Q: Dangerous organisms that can grow in a variety of environments and are capable of producing toxic substances are known as: A) viruses. B) bacteria. C) toxins. D) biologicals.

Q: Dangerous organisms that grow inside of living cells and reproduce are known as: A) viruses. B) bacteria. C) toxins. D) biologicals.

Q: Which of the following is a type of chemical weapon? A) Bacterial toxin B) Bomb containing radioactive material C) Vesicants D) Plastic explosives

Q: Which of the following is NOT generally recognized as a form of terrorist incident? A) Harassment B) Explosion C) Industrial sabotage D) Biological weapons

Q: Two elements that differentiate a hazardous materials incident from a terrorist incident are: A) targeting responders and weapons of mass destruction (WMD). B) weapons of mass destruction and a political agenda. C) targeting responders and a political agenda. D) crime scene considerations and targeting responders.

Q: Which two types of terrorism does the Federal Bureau of Investigation define as occurring in the United States? A) Psychological and economic B) Chemical and biological C) Domestic and international D) Violent and intimidation

Q: Which of the following BEST defines domestic terrorism? A) Interpersonal violence between family members B) Politically motivated act of violence that occurs within the United States C) Small group of people directing violent acts at the population or government without foreign influence D) Acts of violence perpetrated by American citizens against the government of another country

Q: When attempting to extinguish a fire inside the passenger compartment, it is important to: A) use the extinguishing agent sparingly to avoid creating a cloud of powder. B) apply the extinguishing agent liberally to speed up the extinguishing process. C) aim the nozzle of the extinguisher away from the patient to avoid hitting the patient. D) resist the urge to extinguish the fire and focus on extricating any patients.

Q: On arrival at a vehicle collision, you observe a small fire in the engine compartment. A bystander is attempting to smother the fire with a jacket as you approach with an A-B-C extinguisher from your ambulance. Which of the following is the BEST method of extinguishing the fire? A) Sweep the nozzle of the extinguisher left and right using short bursts until you are out of extinguishing agent. B) Aim at the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire is out. C) Close the hood to contain the fire within the engine compartment. D) Aim the nozzle to the side of the fire and, with a sweeping motion, push the fire at its base.

Q: Which of the following describes vehicle glass that is designed to break into small pieces rather than shattering into sharp fragments? A) Tempered glass B) Plexiglas C) Leaded glass D) Alloy glass

Q: Which of the following methods should the EMT use first to attempt to access a patient in a vehicle while awaiting arrival of a rescue crew? A) Use a pry-bar to release the Nader pin in the door latch. B) Try all of the vehicle's doors to see if they will open. C) Use a heavy tool to break the window closest to the patient. D) Use a spring-loaded punch to break the rear window.

Q: Which of the following is the rule of thumb for determining the stability of a vehicle that has been involved in a collision? A) It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel. B) It is stable if the transmission is in "Park" or the parking brake is on. C) It is stable if it is upright on all four wheels. D) It is stable if the ignition is turned off.

Q: Upon arrival at the scene of a motor vehicle collision, you find a vehicle that is on fire. The fire is confined to the engine compartment and the hood is tightly closed. Of the following, which is the BEST course of action? A) Use a long-handled pry-bar to open the hood and put out the fire with a fire extinguisher. B) Let the fire burn and concentrate on extricating the patient. C) Wet the interior of the vehicle to keep the fire from spreading. D) Discharge a dry chemical fire extinguisher onto the patient's clothing to protect him from the fire.

Q: Which of the following is the EMT's key role at the scene of an auto extrication? A) Rescue technician B) Patient advocate C) Safety officer D) Incident commander

Q: Once access to the patient is gained, which of the following is the next goal during an auto extrication? A) Disentanglement of the patient B) Primary assessment and rapid trauma exam C) Stabilization of the vehicle D) Extrication of the patient from the vehicle

Q: Which of the following is an advantage of removing the roof of a vehicle that has sustained major damage in a collision? A) It makes the entire interior of the vehicle accessible. B) The EMT can better access the patients. C) It creates a large exit through which to remove the patient. D) All of the above

Q: An unresponsive patient is found sitting in the front seat of a vehicle with his legs pinned under the dash. Once his legs have been freed, which of the following methods should be used for removal of the patient? A) Rapid take-down B) Rapid extrication technique C) Scoop stretcher D) Quick extraction

Q: Which of the following is a reason that the vehicle doors are removed to extricate the patient rather than pulling the patient through an open window? A) To avoid criticism from bystanders B) To avoid being cut by glass C) To allow for proper spinal immobilization D) To make the interior of the vehicle less accessible

Q: You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision involving a small pickup truck that struck the rear of a moving tractor-trailer. The driver of the tractor-trailer is walking around and complains of neck pain. The driver of the pickup truck is conscious, but cannot exit the vehicle because the door is stuck and the steering wheel is displaced onto his lap. The passenger of the pickup truck is sitting upright in the passenger seat, is unconscious, but has radial pulses. Access to the passenger is not obstructed. A fourth patient, who was sitting in the pickup truck bed, is found about 10 feet away and responds to commands appropriately. Assuming your ambulance is the only emergency vehicle on the scene currently, which of the following patients should be packaged for transport first by the next arriving ambulance? A) Tractor trailer driver B) Pickup truck driver C) Passenger in the pickup truck's front seat D) Passenger ejected from the pickup truck bed

Q: Stabilizing a vehicle is unnecessary when a vehicle is on its roof with: A) all roof supports collapsed. B) the trunk lid in contact with the ground. C) the front edge of the hood in contact with the ground. D) the vehicle horizontal and resting entirely on the roof.

Q: You are assessing a patient in the front seat of a vehicle that was involved in a head-on collision. As you examine the interior of the vehicle, you notice the air bags have not deployed. What action should you take in order to render the scene safe to work? A) Disconnect the battery and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle. B) Disconnect the battery and continue assessing the patient. C) Turn the ignition to the "off" position and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle. D) Use a long spine board to shield yourself from the undeployed air bag.

Q: You are managing a patient who is being extricated from a vehicle by a rescue crew using hydraulic tools. Which of the following items should you use in order to protect your patient during the extrication process? A) Short spine board to prevent debris from contacting the patient B) Wool blanket to protect the patient from broken glass C) Oxygen mask to prevent inhalation of noxious fumes D) Aluminized rescue blanket to protect the patient from sharp edges

Q: Which safety device prevents car doors from opening during a collision? A) Safety lock B) Nader jam C) Nader pin D) Safety pin

Q: When extrication will involve cutting the roof off a vehicle, stabilization of the vehicle should include: A) placing chocks on both sides of at least two wheels. B) placing wheel chocks on both sides of all wheels. C) deflating all tires by slashing them. D) deflating all tires by pulling the valve stems.

Q: When disconnecting a battery cable to disrupt a vehicle's electrical system, the EMT should disconnect the: A) positive cable from the battery. B) negative cable from the battery. C) positive cable from the alternator. D) negative cable from the alternator.

Q: You are on the scene of a vehicle collision involving a downed power line. You are walking in an area you feel is a safe distance from the line and begin to feel a tingling sensation in your feet. Which of the following would be a proper method of ensuring your safety while exiting the area? A) Turn 90 degrees to the direction you are walking and hop to a safe place on one foot. B) Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and quickly run to a safe location. C) Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area. D) Turn 90 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area.

Q: If you are first on scene, what should you do first in determining where and how should you park your apparatus? A) Establish Command and confirm the exact location of the incident with the dispatch center before parking. B) Use apparatus to institute "downstream blocking" of the scene to protect the work area. C) Immediately park in the same direction and in single file. D) Provide downstream blocking if you are driving one of the larger units.

Q: If the steering wheel must be displaced during extrication and the air bag has not deployed, which of the following actions is recommended by air bag manufacturers? A) Firmly strike the hub of the steering wheel with a mallet to deactivate the air bag before displacing the steering wheel. B) No action is required; only frontal impact will deploy air bags. C) Disconnect the battery cables. D) Secure a long backboard across the steering wheel to deflect the air bag from the patient should it deploy.

Q: Which of the following should be used to protect a patient during extrication? A) Plastic blanket B) Netting C) Goggles D) None of the above

Q: Which of the following should the EMT consider when protecting a patient during extrication? A) Noise B) Weather C) Debris D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is a good choice for preventing further injury to a patient during auto extrication? A) Disposable blanket B) Sheet C) Placing your body over the top of the patient D) None of the above

Q: Which of the following measures can the EMT take to create a safer extrication scene? A) Setting up road flares every 10 feet for a safe distance to divert traffic away from the collision B) Setting up road flares around hazards such as spilled fuel C) Dropping road flares from the ambulance as you are approaching the scene D) Both B and C

Q: Which of the following is an important reason for controlling spectators at the scene of an extrication incident? A) Spectators may get injured. B) It ensures respect for the patient's privacy. C) Spectators may interfere with rescue efforts. D) All of the above

Q: Under which of the following conditions are safety vests with reflective trim effective in increasing the visibility of the EMT? A) On sunny days B) On cloudy days C) At night D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is adequate protection for the EMT's head while at the scene of an auto extrication? A) Firefighting helmet B) Watch cap C) Standard construction hardhat D) Nomex hood

Q: Which of the following provides the BEST protection for the EMT's hands during a vehicle rescue operation? A) Leather gloves B) Double-thickness latex gloves C) Fabric work gloves with non-slip palms D) Elbow-length chemical-proof gloves

Q: You are at the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a single vehicle has collided with a tree. You note that the driver's side air bag has deployed. Which of the following is recommended by air bag manufacturers? A) Cut away the fabric portion of the air bag to get it out of the way. B) Lift the air bag and inspect the steering wheel for damage. C) Use a portable fan to ventilate the car to remove the powder from the air bag. D) Sharply strike the front bumper to make sure the second air bag has deployed.

Q: Which of the following is an unsafe behavior that contributes to most injuries at the scene of vehicle collisions? A) Unknowingly walking into hazardous materials situations B) Antagonizing bystanders C) Not wearing proper protective gear D) Using improvised tools

Q: Which of the following is the first concern when you are caring for a patient who has been in a vehicle collision? A) Preserving evidence, such as alcohol beverage bottles and vehicle positioning B) Helping law enforcement get the driver's name and insurance information C) Your own safety D) Treating life-threatening injuries

Q: You have arrived at the scene of a motor vehicle collision to find that there are several critically injured patients. Which of the following should you do first? A) Begin triage of all patients before deciding on additional resources. B) Call for additional rescue units and transporting ambulances. C) Begin extrication of the most critically injured patient. D) Begin to care for the patient closest to your vehicle.

Q: Which of the following BEST describes why it is important for the EMT to understand the extrication process? A) To anticipate any dangerous steps in the extrication process B) To provide direction to the rescue technicians if they appear to be making errors C) To take over the extrication process if requested by the rescue technicians D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following activities should NOT occur during the scene size-up? A) Providing airway management B) Determining the mechanism of injury C) Determining the extent of the patient's entrapment D) Determining the need for additional resources

Q: Which of the following phases of extrication follows the other three phases? A) Recognizing and managing hazards B) Immobilizing and extricating the patient C) Stabilizing the vehicle D) Gaining access to the patient

Q: Which of the following is the highest priority during extrication? A) Controlling major bleeding B) Maintaining the patient's airway C) Ensuring your personal safety D) Gaining access to the patient

Q: Which of the following is NOT a phase of the extrication process? A) Disentanglement B) Gaining access to the patient C) Simplification D) Terminating the rescue

Q: When working at a nighttime emergency on a roadway, which of the following safety considerations should the prudent EMS provider do to increase safety? A) Keep all available response lights on to warn oncoming traffic. B) Switch the headlights to the "high beam" position for maximum lighting. C) Operate amber warning lights only, if the option is available. D) Keep only the fog lights on to keep the light out of drivers' vision.

Q: While performing night operations, which of the following combinations of lights provide maximum visibility? A) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights ON, fog lights ON, and traffic directional boards ON B) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights OFF, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards ON C) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights ON, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards ON D) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights OFF, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards OFF

Q: The safest way to extinguish a road flare is to: A) let it burn out. B) pick it up and snuff it out with a gloved hand. C) douse it with a fire hose. D) pick it up and rub it onto the ground.

Q: The largest single hazard associated with EMS highway operations is: A) explosion. B) traffic flow. C) power lines. D) sharp objects.

Q: Which of the following considerations should be determined when conducting a scene size-up at night of a single vehicle collision involving a rollover? A) Make and model of the vehicle involved B) Mechanism of injury C) How many EMS supervisors are needed for command D) Which patient is the least injured

Q: When controlling the scene of an emergency involving damaged power poles and downed electrical wires, the EMT must remember to: A) render the scene safe before entering the danger zone. B) request appropriate personnel to cut the power source. C) use nonconductive implements to make a safe path to victims. D) use double-thickness gloves to insulate the body from electrocution.

Q: When responding to an emergency located on an interstate highway in a medium-duty ambulance, the vehicle should be positioned: A) in a safe location in the emergency lane of the interstate. B) across as many lanes as possible to block oncoming traffic. C) in the same direction as other response vehicles in a single line. D) to one side of the damaged vehicles for easy egress.

Q: You are at the scene of a vehicle collision on an interstate highway. There are two cars involved and both are out of the lanes against the median wall. As an EMS provider, what is your primary safety concern? A) Ensuring the patient is properly packaged for transport B) Watching for distracted drivers who are driving past the scene C) Evaluating the risk of fire caused by ruptured fuel lines D) Searching for sharp edges of broken glass and torn metal

Q: When placing cribbing: A) kneel on both knees for stabilization. B) always squat, so you can move away quickly. C) kneel on one knee only so you can move away quickly. D) kneel or squat as necessary.

Q: You have arrived at the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are utility wires down around the vehicle. The three occupants appear dazed and other responding units have not yet arrived. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A) Cool the wires with large amounts of water to prevent a fire from starting. B) Encourage the occupants to exit the vehicle by jumping free of the vehicle before touching the ground. C) Push the wires out of the way with a long pry-bar in order to access the patients. D) Stay at a distance and caution the occupants to stay inside the vehicle.

Q: Which of the following is the BEST protection for an EMT's upper body during an extrication operation? A) Firefighting turnout coat B) Thick wool coat C) Nylon jacket with asbestos lining D) Thick fireproof blanket draped around the shoulders

Q: Which of the following can serve as appropriate eye protection for an EMT on the scene of an extrication? A) Prescription eyeglasses B) Face conforming goggles C) Plastic face shield of the type used for Standard Precautions D) Shield of a Firefighter's helmet

Q: Which of the following phases of extrication comes before the other three phrases? A) Sizing up the situation B) Recognizing and managing hazards C) Gaining access to the patient D) Preparing for the rescue

Q: Which of the following is a common hazard associated with the inner circle of a typical auto extrication? A) Penetrating injury from extrication tools B) Flying glass and metal fragments C) Carbon monoxide poisoning D) Both A and C

Q: Which of the following is NOT an example of a specialty rescue team? A) Water rescue B) Confined space C) High angle rescue D) Advanced cardiac life support

Q: Which of the following may be a source of ignition when an ambulance is parked off the roadway in a field of dried grass? A) Mobile radio B) Battery C) Leaking coolant D) Catalytic converter

Q: Which of the following human factors can lead to an increased risk of injury for an EMT at the scene of a vehicle collision? A) Physical problems that impede strenuous effort B) Careless attitude toward personal safety C) Lack of proficiency in the use of rescue tools D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is a common reason that EMTs are struck by motor vehicles at the scene of motor vehicle collisions on roadways? A) Drivers are distracted by the scene of the collision and do not pay attention to what they are doing. B) EMTs sometimes lose track of what they are doing and wander into traffic. C) Drivers who are angry at being delayed deliberately take out their frustrations on rescue workers. D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is the MOST common type of rescue across the United States? A) Farm rescue B) Water rescue C) Vehicle rescue D) Hazardous materials response

Q: Which of the following has been shown to actually interfere with the normal grieving and healing process after a multiple-casualty incident? A) Mental health personnel available on the scene B) Mental health personnel available during the two months following a major incident C) EMT engaging in psychoanalysis D) Critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) sessions

Q: Which of the following is NOT a warning sign or physical symptom of stress? A) Heart palpitations B) GI distress C) Increased salivation D) Chest pain

Q: Which of the following may help in minimizing the stressful effects of the disruption in circadian rhythms seen in EMS multiple-casualty incidents work? A) Seek help from a trained professional. B) Eat a heavy meal just before bedtime. C) Keep your bedroom light on and warm. D) Sleep as much as possible on days off.

Q: When informing someone of the death of a loved one due to a multiple-casualty incident, you should use the term: A) expired. B) passed away. C) dead. D) sickly.

Q: Who is the person that is in charge of tracking the patient's final destination? A) Treatment officer B) Staging officer C) Transportation officer D) Incident Commander

Q: EMS operations generally include the Mobile command center and what other six areas? A) Extrication, Operations, Logistics, Triage, Finance, and Transportation B) Extrication, Staging, Logistics, Triage, Operations, and Transportation C) Extrication, Staging, Triage, Treatment, Transportation, and Rehabilitation D) Extrication, Staging, Triage, Air operations, Transportation, and Rehabilitation

Q: When transporting patients from the scene of a mass-casualty incident, who should be responsible for contacting the receiving hospital? A) Transporting EMT B) Incident commander C) Transportation officer D) Triage officer

Q: When responding to a multiple-casualty incident, staging refers to which of the following? A) Setting up a triage center from the back of your ambulance B) Staying on station until called upon to receive a patient C) Keeping a log of all patients transported D) Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated sector officer

Q: Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who is alert and has a capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds is deemed a ________ patient. A) Priority 0 B) Priority 1 C) Priority 2 D) Priority 3

Q: Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who has no pulse is deemed a ________ patient. A) Priority 0 B) Priority 1 C) Priority 2 D) Priority 3

Q: Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who is not breathing initially, but begins breathing when the airway is open, is deemed a ________ patient. A) Priority 0 B) Priority 1 C) Priority 2 D) Priority 3

Q: You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #5 is a 17-year-old male with the following vital signs: respirations 18, pulse 104, alert, crying, and wanting his mother; he is ambulatory. A) Priority 2, yellow tag B) Priority 3, green tag C) Priority 1, red tag D) Priority 4, black tag

Q: You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #4 is a 13-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 8, pulse 124, and nonresponsive with blood from the ears and nose. A) Priority 3, green tag B) Priority 4, black tag C) Priority 1, red tag D) Priority 2, yellow tag

Q: You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #3 is a 38-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 0, pulse 0, and nonresponsive. A) Priority 4, black tag B) Priority 1, red tag C) Priority 2, yellow tag D) Priority 3, green tag