Q&A Hero

Q: You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #2 is an 8-year-old male with the following vital signs: respirations 10, pulse 102, and alert mental status with warm dry skin. A) Priority 1, red tag B) Priority 3, green tag C) Priority 2, yellow tag D) Priority 4, black tag

Q: You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #1 is a 16-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 28, pulse 132, and altered mental status with cool clammy skin. A) Priority 3, green tag B) Priority 4, black tag C) Priority 1, red tag D) Priority 2, yellow tag

Q: With START triage, when you arrive on the scene you ask all the patients who can walk to move to one area. These patients are categorized as: A) yellow tagged. B) Priority 3 walking wounded. C) red tagged. D) Priority 4 walking wounded.

Q: Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) is a system that relies on some simple commands and what three physiologic parameters? A) Respiration, pain, and mental status B) Circulation, sensory, and motor status C) Respiration, sensory, and motor status D) Respiration, pulse, and mental status

Q: You are on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which the grandstand at a race track has collapsed. As the triage officer, you have encountered a 14-year-old male whose leg has been amputated above the knee. He is responsive to verbal stimuli, and he has an open airway, shallow rapid breathing, and a weak, rapid carotid pulse. This patient would be classified as a Priority ________ for treatment and transport. A) 2 B) 3 C) 1 D) 4

Q: You are on the scene of a church bus roll-over collision. There are 30 passengers involved. As triage officer, which one of the following patients should you assign the highest priority? A) 30-year-old man with multiple lower extremity fractures who is awake, has a strong radial pulse, and is complaining of severe pain B) 35-year-old pregnant woman with a cut on her head, neck pain, and numbness and tingling in her arms C) 70-year-old woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the right side D) Unresponsive 9-year-old male with an open skull fracture who is in cardiac arrest

Q: When several agencies work independently but cooperatively, rather than one agency exercising control over the others, this is called: A) unified command. B) single incident command. C) ICS. D) NIMS.

Q: ICS systems recognize that the manageable span of control is: A) 6 people. B) 12 people. C) 18 people. D) 24 people.

Q: You are an EMT on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which there are 50 patients from a bus roll-over. Incident Command has been established and EMS, law enforcement, and rescue sectors are established. You have just discovered that one of the bus passengers was carrying a suspicious package that is now leaking a white powdery substance. Which of the following entities should you contact about this? A) Incident Commander B) EMS sector officer C) Rescue sector officer D) Dispatch

Q: Which of the following is a principle of effective Incident Command? A) Command is most effective when one person is responsible for not more than 6 other people. B) The command location must not be revealed to anyone on the scene. C) Police, fire, and EMS must establish separate command locations. D) None of the above

Q: Which of the following is a feature of a good disaster plan? A) It is specific to the geographical location. B) It has been practiced in mock disasters. C) It is based on the availability of resources in a particular area. D) All of the above

Q: You are on the scene of a riot following a decision in a controversial court case. A large group of people have set fire to vehicles, broken windows, and assaulted people in the area. Which of the following would be the BEST method of incident command? A) Singular command by EMS B) Singular command by fire service C) Unified command D) Singular command by law enforcement

Q: The senior EMT on the first vehicle that arrived on a scene with multiple patients should assume which of the following roles until relieved by a senior official? A) Transport sector supervisor B) Commander of the entire incident C) Triage sector supervisor D) Incident Commander of the scene

Q: Disaster plans are a predefined set of instructions that should be written to address the events that are conceivable for a particular location and which other three parts? A) Written, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed B) Well publicized, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed C) Well publicized, realistic, and rehearsed D) Written, realistic, and rehearsed

Q: What constitutes a multiple-casualty incident (MCI)? A) An event that unfolds over a long period of time and requires federal, state, and local response B) An incident with 3 to 15 patients that the service handles without calling for additional resources C) An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources D) Any event that requires additional ambulances to adequately transport the patients from the scene

Q: You are just leaving the scene of a multiple-casualty incident with two Priority 1 patients. Which of the following is appropriate regarding communication? A) Allow the transportation sector officer to notify the receiving facility. B) Notify the receiving facility by radio of the nature of the patients' injuries. C) Notify the receiving hospital by cellular phone of the nature of the patients' injuries. D) Have dispatch relay your patient reports to the receiving facility.

Q: Which of the following is the MOST common type of multiple-casualty incident that EMS providers will respond to? A) Outbreaks of influenza B) Motor vehicle collisions C) Structure fires D) Hazardous materials incidents

Q: What is the process that removes the biological (etiological) contamination hazards as it destroys microorganisms and their toxins? A) Dilution B) Emulsification C) Disinfection D) Absorption

Q: When grossly decontaminating a patient who is not wearing personal protective equipment in a hazardous materials incident, which of the following techniques should be used? A) Taking a low-pressure decontamination shower B) Scrubbing with a long-handled brush C) Sponging with a dilute solution of water and white vinegar D) Using a high pressure water jet system

Q: Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of decontamination from hazardous materials? A) Disinfecting B) Disposing C) Deodorizing D) Emulsifying

Q: Which of the following personal protective items must be used by EMS personnel caring for patients in a hazardous materials emergency? A) Structural firefighting gear B) HEPA mask C) Chemical permeable gloves D) Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls

Q: Which of the following actions may need to be taken by the EMT when treating and transporting a patient who was exposed to, and contaminated by, a hazardous material? A) Wearing heavy cloth gloves B) Disposing of patient care equipment such as blood-pressure cuffs and backboards C) Wearing a gown, mask, and goggles to prevent secondary contamination D) Placing towels on the floor of the ambulance to soak up contaminated runoff water

Q: Which of the following is a function of the rehabilitation sector in a hazardous materials incident? A) Providing for hydration of rescue crews B) Taking baseline vital signs before rescuers enter the operations area C) Performing medical assessment of rescue crews D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following isNOT a desirable characteristic of the rehabilitation sector of a hazardous materials incident? A) It is large enough to accommodate multiple rescue crews. B) It allows for rapid re-entry to the emergency operation. C) It is protected from weather elements. D) It is located in the warm zone.

Q: At 0330, you responded to the scene of an overturned tanker truck. What organization could you contact to obtain information about the liquid the truck is carrying? A) Regional poison control center B) CHEMTREC C) CHEM-CALL D) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

Q: When seeking expert advice on how to proceed at a hazardous materials incident, which of the following information is important to provide? A) Amount of the substance involved B) Your level of EMS certification C) Your background in chemistry D) Both A and B

Q: Which of the following is a resource for specific actions to be taken by personnel dealing with a hazardous materials incident? A) Medical protocols B) Emergency Response Guidebook C) Medical dictionary D) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) toll-free hotline

Q: ________ is the response agency, established in Washington, DC, as a service of the Chemical Manufacturers Association that can provide either you or your dispatcher with information about the hazardous material and contact the shipper to provide you with information about the material. A) OSHA B) CHEMTREC C) HAZMART D) EPA

Q: What source will provide first aid information about hazardous materials for employees at a work site? A) Safety Data Sheets B) Bill of lading C) Shipping manifest D) Placard

Q: Signs that identify the hazardous material contained within a transport vehicle are called: A) indicators. B) placards. C) panels. D) warnings.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an acceptable way of attempting to identify a hazardous material? A) Checking the material safety data sheet B) Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis C) Asking the driver of the tractor-trailer truck involved in the incident D) Using binoculars to obtain information from the placard on a container

Q: An area near a hazardous materials incident that is upwind from the incident and on higher ground is a good location for a: A) danger zone. B) hot zone. C) safe zone. D) treatment zone.

Q: Where is the decon corridor located where patients, personnel, and equipment are decontaminated? A) Hot zone B) Cold zone C) Warm zone D) Cool zone

Q: In which of the following zones is the EMT expected to be staged at the scene of a hazardous materials incident? A) Warm zone B) Hot zone C) Cold zone D) Ground zero

Q: Which of the following are desirable characteristics of the "safe or cold zone" in a hazardous materials incident? A) Upwind, uphill from the spill B) Upwind, on the same level as the spill C) Downwind, uphill from the spill D) Downwind, downhill from the spill

Q: You are called to a local hardware store for a male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. As you pull into the parking lot you notice several people in front of the building coughing and in obvious distress. What would be an appropriate course of action at this point? A) Locate the patient for whom you were requested and begin treatment while another ambulance is en route for the other patients. B) Request a hazardous materials incident response and begin treating all patients displaying respiratory difficulties. C) Evaluate the scene further for indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response. D) Move the people with respiratory difficulties to a distant corner of the parking lot and set up a treatment sector.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of an EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials emergency? A) Rehabilitating the hazmat team B) Decontaminating injured victims C) Treating injured patients D) Staying in the cold zone

Q: Which of the following should be considered during the scene size-up of a hazardous materials emergency? A) Potential for spread of the substance B) The properties and potential dangers of the substance C) Identification of the substance D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is NOT the role of the first arriving EMT at the scene of a possible hazardous materials emergency? A) Requesting special resources to respond B) Recognizing a hazardous materials emergency C) Establishing a safe zone D) Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill

Q: You are beginning triage at the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which a commuter train has derailed. Which of the following should you do first? A) Do a quick pulse check on all patients at the scene. B) Identify all Priority 1 patients. C) Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building. D) Check the airway status of all patients who do not appear to be moving.

Q: Andrea is an EMS supervisor with a combined EMS/Fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she uses her knowledge of hazardous materials to support the activities of other responders and manage the scene. Andrea's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A) First Responder Awareness B) First Responder Operations C) Hazardous Materials Technician D) Hazardous Materials Specialist

Q: Eduardo is an EMT with a major metropolitan fire department. He is assigned to a station within an industrial complex. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, Eduardo functions on a team where he plugs a leaking drum. Eduardo's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A) First Responder Awareness B) First Responder Operations C) Hazardous Materials Technician D) Hazardous Materials Specialist

Q: Soraya is an EMT who volunteers for a local fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she helps prevent the incident from becoming larger and ensures bystanders remain safe. Soraya's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A) First Responder Awareness B) First Responder Operations C) Hazardous Materials Technician D) Hazardous Materials Specialist

Q: Johnny is an EMT with a local ambulance service. As part of his job, he is trained to recognize the existence of a potentially dangerous scene involving hazardous materials and know when to request a hazmat response. Johnny's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A) First Responder Awareness B) First Responder Operations C) Hazardous Materials Technician D) Hazardous Materials Specialist

Q: As it pertains to hazardous materials, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers to: A) train employees to handle any type of hazardous materials incident. B) document the appropriate level of training for each employee. C) have knowledge of all hazardous materials on the premises. D) ensure there is at least one person on-site trained at the technician level.

Q: To respond to a hazardous materials incident, the EMT should be trained at which of the four levels? A) Operations B) Specialist C) Technician D) Awareness

Q: Which of the following agencies have developed regulations for dealing with hazardous materials emergencies? A) OSHA and EPA B) DOT and FCC C) NAEMT and NHTSA D) NHTSA and NRC

Q: You are called to a garden center where four shoppers have collapsed after a section of shelving fell and dumped hazardous products on the floor. When you arrive on the scene, you should: A) think hazmat, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request hazmat response. B) think hazmat, dress in a Tyvek suit, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request hazmat response. C) secure the scene quickly, triage each patient, and move to fresh air. D) think hazmat, dress in a Tyvek suit, access the scene to identify the spilled product, secure the MSDS sheets, and remove victims to fresh air.

Q: In which of the following settings should the EMT be alert to the possibility of hazardous materials emergencies? A) Manufacturing industries B) Farm service agencies C) Shipping ports D) All of the above

Q: You are in charge of your department's personnel at the scene of a mass-casualty incident. As the incident progresses, you request additional resources and a neighboring department assists you. As part of this department's response, a battalion chief responds to oversee operations. At the command post, you and the battalion chief work together to manage the incident. This cooperative management effort is known as: A) dual command. B) redundant command. C) unified command. D) incident command.

Q: While staffing an emergency services dispatch center, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD) receives a call from someone who is very upset and screaming that her friend was just shot. Which of the following would the EMD need to do in this situation? A) Determine the location of the shooter. B) Ask the caller for her phone number. C) Provide the caller with information on local hospitals. D) Notify the victim's family of the incident.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Emergency Medical Dispatcher? A) Prioritizing calls that come in B) Providing medical direction to the responding units C) Coordinating with other public safety agencies D) Providing emergency instructions to the caller

Q: The medical acronym EMD stands for which of the following? A) Emergency Medical Director B) Emergency Medical Doctor C) Emergency Medical Driver D) Emergency Medical Dispatch

Q: Which of the following fluids is NOT checked by an EMT? A) Oil B) Coolant C) Transmission D) Hydraulic

Q: Which phase of an ambulance call is characterized by receiving a report from the off-going shift and checking the functionality of equipment? A) Preparing for the ambulance call B) Receiving and responding to a call C) Transferring the patient to the ambulance D) Terminating the call

Q: Which of the following should be checked with the vehicle engine turned off? A) Dash-mounted gauges B) Windshield wiper operation C) Warning lights D) Battery

Q: Which of the following is optional equipment? A) Flashlights B) Infant oxygen masks C) Disinfectant solution D) Lubricating jelly

Q: Which of the following is a purpose for carrying sterilized aluminum foil on an ambulance? A) To control major arterial bleeding B) To keep a newborn warm C) To care for amputated parts D) None of the above

Q: Chemical cold packs are carried on the ambulance for treatment of which of the following? A) Seizures B) Musculoskeletal injuries C) Snake bites D) Abdominal pain

Q: Which of the following is NOT essential equipment on an ambulance? A) Automatic transport ventilator B) Portable oxygen tanks C) Pediatric oxygen administration devices D) Portable suction unit

Q: Occlusive dressings must be carried on an ambulance to treat which of the following injuries? A) Amputations B) Tension pneumothorax C) Impaled object in the eye D) Open pneumothorax

Q: Which of the following is the primary reason why ambulances should have two oxygen supply systems? A) To provide oxygen to two patients at one time B) To provide oxygen to the patient in the event of vehicle breakdown C) To ensure a supply of oxygen for long-distance transports D) To have a backup system in the event of failure of the primary system

Q: Because of the extra equipment now placed on ambulances for specialty rescue, advanced life support, and hazardous materials operations, their gross vehicle weight has been easily exceeded in some communities. This has necessitated introduction of a ________ truck chassis built for rugged durability and large storage and work areas. A) Type I B) Type III C) Medium-duty D) Type II

Q: The KKK standards deal with: A) ambulance safety and design. B) minimum standard medical protocols. C) training and education of field personnel. D) air evacuation of trauma victims.

Q: The U.S. Department of Transportation has issued specifications for all of the following types of ambulances except: A) Type III. B) Type I. C) Type IV. D) Type II.

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding helicopter transport? A) Most treatment should be done prior to loading the patient. B) Helicopter transport is relatively inexpensive. C) Patient care is seldom affected during the flight. D) Pressure changes do not affect equipment such as PASG, ET tubes, and so on.

Q: What is an appropriate-sized landing zone for a helicopter? A) 25 feet by 25 feet B) 50 feet by 50 feet C) 75 feet by 75 feet D) 100 feet by 100 feet

Q: Which of the following situations may warrant the use of helicopter transport from the scene to a medical facility? A) The distance to the medical facility is 15 minutes away. B) The patient is in cardiac arrest. C) The patient is located in a remote area. D) The patient may go into shock shortly.

Q: You have transported a patient to the emergency department and are in the process of cleaning the ambulance while your partner is completing all required paperwork. At what point is the final phase of an ambulance call complete? A) As soon as you put the stretcher back in the ambulance with a clean sheet and you notify your dispatch center you are available B) As soon as your partner completes the patient care report and you are restocking the supplies used during the call C) As soon as you get back to the station and notify your dispatch center you are in quarters D) After your partner completes all required paperwork and you have the ambulance completely cleaned and restocked

Q: When heading back to quarters, on what should you place your emphasis? A) Documentation B) Beginning to reorganize the ambulance C) A safe return D) Refueling the ambulance for the next call

Q: At which point should you complete your patient care report (PCR)? A) As soon as you are free from patient duties B) En route to the hospital C) As soon as you arrive at the hospital D) At the end of your shift

Q: Which of the following is true concerning disinfection? A) A solution of 1 part household bleach to 100 parts water is an effective disinfectant for health care purposes. B) High level disinfection destroys all sources of infection. C) A low-level disinfectant will kill germs on ambulance floors and walls. D) All of the above

Q: An EMT's BEST defense against potential legal liability is: A) purchasing medical malpractice insurance. B) documenting as little as possible on the run sheet. C) relying on Good Samaritan immunity. D) practicing excellent prehospital care.

Q: Transporting a patient to the hospital against his will could place the EMT in danger of being held liable for: A) false imprisonment. B) kidnapping. C) unlawful consent. D) assault and battery.

Q: Failure to formally transfer the patient to medical staff in the emergency department could place the EMT in danger of being held liable for: A) false imprisonment. B) unlawful consent. C) abandonment. D) patient endangerment.

Q: You have transported a stable patient with complaints of having abdominal pain for the last three weeks to the hospital. On arrival, you notice the emergency department is very busy and there are no empty beds to be found. You have attempted to get the attention of a hospital staff member to transfer the patient, but all are currently helping other patients. Your partner tells you to take the patient to the waiting room and leave him since the dispatcher of your service is holding several serious calls. What could possibly happen to you if you leave the patient in this fashion? A) Nothing; there are other people who are in need of an ambulance. B) Nothing, provided that your supervisor authorizes this action. C) You could possibly be charged with abandonment. D) You could possibly be charged with false imprisonment.

Q: Which of the following is the correct order of operations when transferring a stable patient from his or her house to the ambulance? A) Package the patient for transport, select the proper patient-carrying device, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance. B) Package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, select the proper patient-carrying device, and load the patient into the ambulance. C) Select the proper patient-carrying device, move the patient to the ambulance, package the patient for transport, and load the patient into the ambulance. D) Select the proper patient-carrying device, package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance.

Q: Police escorts of ambulances driving at emergency status are typically discouraged because: A) police officers are not accustomed to driving an ambulance. B) there is no guarantee that the police officer knows where the call is located. C) drivers who pull over for the police officer often pull back in front of the ambulance. D) ambulances do not move as fast as police cruisers.

Q: When deciding whether or not to drive to the hospital with lights and siren activated for any patient, the driver should consider: A) the patient's past medical history. B) potential risks of making the patient's condition worse. C) the patient's preference for lights and siren. D) how many calls are waiting for an available ambulance.

Q: When responding to an emergency in an authorized vehicle while functioning as an EMT for an authorized emergency service, the actions you take while driving are: A) covered by your service's insurance carrier. B) subject to laws that govern all drivers. C) allowable, provided you do not exceed 15 mph above the posted speed limit. D) not likely to result in an investigation in the event of a collision.