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Q:
During a staff meeting, nurses discuss the problems with accessing research studies to incorporate evidence-based clinical decision making into their practice. Which suggestion by the nurse manager would best help these problems?
a. Form a committee to conduct research studies.
b. Post published research studies on the unit's bulletin boards.
c. Encourage the nurses to visit the library to review studies.
d. Teach the nurses how to conduct electronic searches for research studies.
Q:
What step of the nursing process includes data collection by health history, physical examination, and interview?
a. Planning
b. Diagnosis
c. Evaluation
d. Assessment
Q:
Barriers to incorporating EBP include:
a. Nurses' lack of research skills in evaluating the quality of research studies.
b. Lack of significant research studies.
c. Insufficient clinical skills of nurses.
d. Inadequate physical assessment skills.
Q:
Which of these would be formulated by a nurse using diagnostic reasoning?
a. Nursing diagnosis
b. Medical diagnosis
c. Diagnostic hypothesis
d. Diagnostic assessment
Q:
A newly admitted patient is in acute pain, has not been sleeping well lately, and is having difficulty breathing. How should the nurse prioritize these problems?
a. Breathing, pain, and sleep
b. Breathing, sleep, and pain
c. Sleep, breathing, and pain
d. Sleep, pain, and breathing
Q:
The nursing process is a sequential method of problem solving that nurses use and includes which steps?
a. Assessment, treatment, planning, evaluation, discharge, and follow-up
b. Admission, assessment, diagnosis, treatment, and discharge planning
c. Admission, diagnosis, treatment, evaluation, and discharge planning
d. Assessment, diagnosis, outcome identification, planning, implementation, and evaluation
Q:
The nurse knows that developing appropriate nursing interventions for a patient relies on the appropriateness of the __________ diagnosis.
a. Nursing
b. Medical
c. Admission
d. Collaborative
Q:
Which critical thinking skill helps the nurse see relationships among the data?
a. Validation
b. Clustering related cues
c. Identifying gaps in data
d. Distinguishing relevant from irrelevant
Q:
When considering priority setting of problems, the nurse keeps in mind that second-level priority problems include which of these aspects?
a. Low self-esteem
b. Lack of knowledge
c. Abnormal laboratory values
d. Severely abnormal vital signs
Q:
The nurse is conducting a class on priority setting for a group of new graduate nurses. Which is an example of a first-level priority problem?
a. Patient with postoperative pain
b. Newly diagnosed patient with diabetes who needs diabetic teaching
c. Individual with a small laceration on the sole of the foot
d. Individual with shortness of breath and respiratory distress
Q:
The nurse is reviewing information about evidence-based practice (EBP). Which statement best reflects EBP?
a. EBP relies on tradition for support of best practices.
b. EBP is simply the use of best practice techniques for the treatment of patients.
c. EBP emphasizes the use of best evidence with the clinician's experience.
d. The patient's own preferences are not important with EBP.
Q:
Expert nurses learn to attend to a pattern of assessment data and act without consciously labeling it. These responses are referred to as:
a. Intuition.
b. The nursing process.
c. Clinical knowledge.
d. Diagnostic reasoning.
Q:
The nurse is conducting a class for new graduate nurses. During the teaching session, the nurse should keep in mind that novice nurses, without a background of skills and experience from which to draw, are more likely to make their decisions using:
a. Intuition.
b. A set of rules.
c. Articles in journals.
d. Advice from supervisors.
Q:
When listening to a patient's breath sounds, the nurse is unsure of a sound that is heard. The nurse's next action should be to:
a. Immediately notify the patient's physician.
b. Document the sound exactly as it was heard.
c. Validate the data by asking a coworker to listen to the breath sounds.
d. Assess again in 20 minutes to note whether the sound is still present.
Q:
The patient's record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:
a. Data base.
b. Admitting data.
c. Financial statement.
d. Discharge summary.
Q:
A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, is nauseated, and "feels hot." These types of data would be:
a. Objective.
b. Reflective.
c. Subjective.
d. Introspective.
Q:
After completing an initial assessment of a patient, the nurse has charted that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58 beats per minute. These types of data would be:
a. Objective.
b. Reflective.
c. Subjective.
d. Introspective.
Q:
What percentage of Schizophrenic clients abuse drugs?
a. 32%
b. 39%
c. 42%
d. 47%
Q:
L-alpha-acetylmethadol or LAAM has properties similar to methadone, yet only needs to be administered three times per week.
Q:
Topamax and Campral may be helpful in reducing craving and days of abstinence for those who drink.
Q:
Antabuse is better used with a steady drinking patient, while ReVia is better to use with a patient who binges.
Q:
The painful feeling of withdrawal involves an increase in dopamine 3 receptor sites seeking dopamine.
Q:
Typically those seeking arousal use drugs that increase arousal like cocaine and stimulants.
Q:
Behavioral activities themselves can produce chemical changes in the brain similar to those produced by exogenous drugs.
Q:
A co-occurring, or dual occurring exists when those with an Axis I or II disorder abuse chemicals.
Q:
Once obtaining history, determining the nature and use of substance abuse is easy.
Q:
As many as 83% of those with a Personality Disorder may abuse drugs.
Q:
Sixty-one percent of those with a Bipolar diagnosis typically abuse chemicals.
Q:
Historically, ________ has been used to calm anxious, impulsive patients:
a. Buspar
b. Wellbutrin
c. Neurontin
d. all of these
Q:
Typically, SSRIs are used for which of the following cluster(s)?
a. Cluster "a" only
b. Cluster "b" only
c. Clusters "a" and "b"
d. Clusters "b" and "c"
Q:
Cluster "a" symptoms include:
a. Impulsive, depressive, angry and labile symptoms.
b. Paranoid, eccentric, thought disordered, dissociative.
c. Anxious, inhibited, and avoidant.
d. Fussy, demanding, neurotic symptoms.
Q:
What percentage of personality disorders may have a genetic factor?
a. 40-60%
b. 50-70%
c. 60-80%
d. none of these
Q:
Which of the following was found in the literature to be contributing factors in impulsive and violent behaviors?
a. head trauma
b. toxic substances
c. low serotonin levels
d. all of the above
Q:
Which of the following is not a typical therapeutic approach used in the treatment of personality disorders:
a. psychodynamic
b. cognitive
c. dialectical
d. REBT
Q:
What percentage of the general population have personality disorders?
a. 3-5%
b. 7-9%
c. 10-23%
d. 24-27%
Q:
Neuroimaging studies have demonstrated differences in the frontal lobe functioning of patients with schizotypal personality disorder.
Q:
Antipsychotic medications may be needed to treat the symptoms of patients in "cluster A."
Q:
In patients demonstrating the "cluster B" symptoms, the use of antidepressants like the SSRIs are often helpful.
Q:
There are currently eight medications that are FDA approved for treating personality disorders.
Q:
Current research suggests that biological factors may account for about 40-60% of all cases.
Q:
Current research and evidence suggests that personality disorders are a biopsychosocial entity caused by complex interactions of psychosocial and biological factors.
Q:
Experts once believed that the use of medications in the treatment of personality disorders interfered with psychotherapy.
Q:
Approximately 7% of the general population have a personality disorder.
Q:
Which of the following, while sedating, may actually interfere with sleep cycles in the short run?
a. antidepressants
b. benzodiazepines
c. Imidazopyridine
d. barbiturates
Q:
Which does not belong with the others:
a. Halcion
b. ProSom
c. Restoril
d. Ambien
Q:
Narcolepsy is typically treated with stimulants and often ________.
a. Prozac
b. Ambien
c. Provigil/ Nuvigil
d. Risperdol
Q:
Sleepwalking and night terror are typically seen in approximately what percentage of the child population.
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 18%
d. 22%
Q:
A mask-like devise is used by patients with OSA. It is called a ______ machine.
a. splint
b. CPAP
c. EEG
d. none of these
Q:
We spend about ____% of our sleep time in stages three and four.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 25
d. none of these
Q:
In the study mentioned in the text, what percentage of the patients with middle of the night insomnia also reported daytime fatigue?
a. 34%
b. 39%
c. 43%
d. 67%
Q:
For patients with only occasional problems with sleep, they should consider:
a. warm milk
b. an OTC sleep aide like Tylenol PM or Sominex
c. Benedryl
d. any of the above
Q:
A typical dose of Restoril would be about:
a. 2 mg.
b. 7.5 mg.
c. 25 mg.
d. 50mg.
Q:
Which of the following is not considered a benzodiazepine:
a. Doral
b. Klonopin
c. ProSom
d. Sonata
Q:
GHB or Xyrem has been shown to improve sleep cycles.
Q:
Long-term usage of melatonin may worsen a patient's depression.
Q:
Kava may be associated with liver damage in long-term usage.
Q:
A typical dose of Sonata is 100 mg qhs.
Q:
Benedryl can be used to induce sleep in intermittent cases.
Q:
Since Ambien has a shorter half life than Restoril, it is more likely to wear-off by morning.
Q:
Benzos are safe to use and may be used for months without any real concerns for tolerance.
Q:
Patients with only terminal insomnia are more likely to have an affective disorder, as opposed to an anxiety disorder.
Q:
Serotonin is necessary to help maintain sleep.
Q:
About 50% of our time is spent in stages 1 and 2.
Q:
There are three distinct stages of sleep.
Q:
In a study of more than 1,000 people, 56% reported problems with initial insomnia.
Q:
Depressed AD patients would benefit most from ________ type antidepressants.
a. SSRIs
b. SNRIs
c. MAOIs
d. None of these
Q:
Agitated AD patients who also present with psychotic symptoms are often placed on ____:
a. tranquilizers
b. antidepressants
c. benzodiazepines
d. atypical antipsychotics
Q:
Which of the following is a selective inhibitor of MAO?
a. tacrine
b. galantamine
c. rivastigmine
d. none of these
Q:
Which of the following has been associated with liver toxicity?
a. tacrine
b. donepezil
c. galantamine
d. memantine
Q:
Common side-effects with AD drugs include all of the following except:
a. nausea
b. diarrhea
c. blurred vision
d. vomiting
Q:
Which of the following belongs to a newer class of AD drug that is known as an N-methyl-D-asparate receptor antagonist?
a. Reminyl
b. Aricept
c. Namenda
d. none of these
Q:
Which of the following medications may be more helpful for patients with Lewy Bodies dementia?
a. Cognex
b. Aricept
c. Namenda
d. Exelon
Q:
The typical dose for a patient taking Aricept is ____ mg.
a. 5-10
b. 10-20
c. 75-100
d. none of these
Q:
Researchers place the approximate annual cost of AD in the US to be about __.
a. 65 billion
b. 67 billion
c. 69 billion
d. 76 billion
Q:
Research suggests that all of the following neurotransmitters have been implicated in AD dementia except:
a. norepinephrine
b. serotonin
c. dopamine
d. acetylcholine
Q:
AD accounts for about ____ of all irreversible dementias.
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. none of these
Q:
AD affects approximately _____ Americans.
a. 1 in 5
b. 1 in 10
c. 1 in 45
d. 1 in 50
Q:
Most medications used to treat dementia and AD fall into the cholinesterase inhibitor classification.
Q:
Most medications for AD and dementia are major tranquilizers that reduce dopamine.
Q:
Providing a controlled/monitored environment for AD patients may help to reduce confusion and agitation.