Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Medicine & Health Science
Q:
Which of the following drugs is thought to be the "gold standard" for treating Bipolar Illness?
a. Lamictal
b. Topamax
c. Lithium
d. Tegretol
Q:
Medications like lithium, carbamazepine, and clozapine require blood monitoring.
Q:
Most anticonvulsants and other medications like lithium are safe to use during pregnancy.
Q:
Olanzepine and Lamictal ODT are also available as an orally disintegrating tablet.
Q:
For acute manic states, lithium or valproate would be approved medications.
Q:
Most atypical antipsychotics and neuroletics are approved for use with bipolar patients.
Q:
Both lithium and olanzepine are FDA approved as mono-therapies for Bipolar illness.
Q:
Topamax or topiramate is believed to increase GABA and block glutamate receptors .
Q:
SSRI medications alone may trigger a manic episode in a bipolar patient.
Q:
A typical daily dose of Prozac or Paxil is:
a. 2-4 mg.
b. 20-40 mg.
c. 75-100 mg.
d. 200-300 mg.
Q:
As a rule, all antidepressants take about ____ days to begin working.
a. 3 days
b. 6 days
c. 8 days
d. 14 days
Q:
Exercise is an excellent idea for depressed patients as it increases levels of:
a. ECT
b. THC
c. substance P
d. PEA
Q:
"Serotonin syndrome" includes all of the following symptoms except:
a. hypertension
b. fever
c. muscle rigidity
d. agitation
Q:
You are working with a patient with OCD. Which of the following medications is not considered an anti-obsessive?
a. Prozac
b. Anafranil
c. Wellbutrin
d. Luvox
Q:
Which of the following are not typically used for depressed/pain management patients?
a. Elavil
b. Neurontin
c. Pristiq
d. Luvox
Q:
You are treating another patient with depression, but after taking a thorough history, you learn that she has had an eating disorder and a seizure disorder in the past. Which medication would not be a good choice?
a. Welbutrin
b. Effexor
c. Zoloft
d. None of these
Q:
You have started working with a new patient who presents with severe depression, low energy and motivation. She is also 40 pounds overweight. Her primary care physician would like to know if you know of any medication possibilities. You might consider all of the medications below except:
a. Celexa
b. Wellbutrin
c. Remeron
d. Lexapro
Q:
You are working with a patient who has responded well to antidepressants in the past, and has had only a moderate response to SSRIs. Aside from increasing the dose, you might also suggest:
a. Adding an MAOI
b. Adding another SSRI
c. Trying a lithium boost
d. Adding a benzo
Q:
According to Sinacola and Peters-Strickland, which of the following "holistic/herbal" remedies shows the greatest efficacy in reducing depression?
a. St. John's Wort
b. SAM-e
c. Ginkgo Biloba
d. DHEA
Q:
Which of the following is not an MAOI?
a. Marplan
b. Nardil
c. Parnate
d. Aplenzin
Q:
Dietary restrictions such as avoiding foods containing tyramine are associated with which class of antidepressants?
a. MAOIs
b. SSRIs
c. Unicyclics
d. none of these.
Q:
Which of the following SSRIs is associated with more sedation?
a. Prozac
b. Lexapro
c. Celexa
d. Paxil
Q:
Sweating, yawing and inhibited orgasm are common side effects with:
a. MAOIs
b. SSRIs
c. tricyclics
d. heterocyclics
Q:
Which of the following drugs has been shown to affect norepinephrine levels?
a. maprotiline
b. citalopram
c. paroxetine
d. desipramine
Q:
The anticholinergic side effects are more common with which type of antidepressants?
a. tricyclics
b. SSRIs
c. MAOIs
d. none of these
Q:
Psychotherapy alone is a powerful tool in reducing depression. Patients typically show the greatest gains in the first:
a. 5 sessions
b. 10 sessions
c. 16 sessions
d. 28 sessions
Q:
What percentage of patients with depression also have suicidal ideation?
a. Seventy percent
b. Eighty percent
c. Ninety percent
d. none of the above
Q:
Which of the following types of drugs has been known to cause or worsen depression?
a. Anti-inflammatory drugs like: Indocin, Vioxx, or Celebrex.
b. Blood thiners like: Cumidin or Heprin
c. Sleep aides like: Ambien, Sonata or Halcion.
d. both A and C above.
Q:
Which of the following deseases/disorders has been known to cause or worsen depression?
a. Alheimer's
b. Congestive heart failure
c. Fibromyalgia
d. All of the above
Q:
Typically MAOIs are sedating medications.
Q:
Serotonin syndrome includes fever, muscle rigidity, and hypotension.
Q:
Lexapro and Pristiq are newer antidepressants.
Q:
Tricylics are safer than SSRIs for the suicidal patient.
Q:
While trazodone affects serotonin like other SSRI medications, it has a different action on the serotonin receptor sites.
Q:
Typically speaking medications like amitriptyline and doxepin are more sedating than protriptyline or dopamine.
Q:
The tricyclic antidepressants have the least amount of side effects.
Q:
SSRIs primarily affect the neurotransmitter serotonin.
Q:
Endogenous factors refer to causes from "within" or biological causes.
Q:
Exogenous factors refer to environmental stress and other "outside" influence in the cause of depression.
Q:
Your proposed treatment plans should always include:
a. the proposed short and long term goals/objectives
b. your theoretical approach
c. your prognosis
d. all of the above
Q:
Which of the following personality inventories is available in an adolescent version?
a. PAI
b. MCMI-III
c. MMPI-2
d. none of these
Q:
While most of the mentioned assessment instruments require some psychometric knowledge, and some require special training as a psychologist, the ___________ ___________ decides if your credentials are adequate to administer various assessment/evaluation instruments.
a. Licensing board
b. Test publisher
c. Local municipality
d. Degree level
Q:
Immediate, recent and _______ memory are assessed on the mental status exam.
a. long-term
b. short-term
c. distant
d. remote
Q:
There are _____ types of hallucinations usually noted in those who manifest psychotic behaviors.
a. three
b. four
c. five
d. six
Q:
On the mental status exam, oriented X 3 refers to:
a. person, memory, and time.
b. person, place and situation.
c. person, place and issue.
d. person, place, and time.
Q:
Which assessment instrument is offered in both a 17 and 21 question format?
a. Beck Depression Inventory
b. State-Trait Inventory
c. Geriatric Depression Inventory
d. Hamilton Depression Rating Scales
Q:
Which of the following contains 567 items and evaluates patients on ten clinical scales?
a. MMPI-2
b. MCMI-III
c. PAI
d. none of these
Q:
The full mental status includes all of the following areas of assessment except:
a. mental grasp
b. psychological reasoning
c. sensorium
d. judgment and insight
Q:
A complete history of your client includes the following sections/areas of assessment:
a. Identifying information, patient reports family history, and diagnostic assessment.
b. Identifying information, presenting problem, proposed treatment, and summary information.
c. Identifying information, presenting problem, psychometric information, and summary.
d. Identifying information, presenting problem, family history, psychometric information, diagnostic assessment, and proposed treatment goals and methods.
Q:
It is helpful to know what treatment approaches and medications were tried before and their level of success.
Q:
It is important for every patient to have a complete physical including tests for thyroid function, metabolic abnormalities, urine toxicology, and a CBC draw.
Q:
The Million Clinical Multiaxial Inventory consists of 150 items and can also be hand scored.
Q:
A sorter version of the PAI called the PAS consists of 22 items and could be given in just six minutes.
Q:
The MMPI-2 contains 567 items and should be administered by a psychologist or others with training in its interpretation.
Q:
The Beck Depression Inventory contains about 70 items, and is rather difficult to administer.
Q:
The mental status exam provides information on cognition, mental capacity, memory, academic achievement, and intelligence.
Q:
The mental trend and thought content section provides information on themes, hallucinations, delusions, somatizations, and substance abuse.
Q:
The complete mental status exam consists of five sections or areas of evaluation.
Q:
Good history taking includes information on the patient's presenting problem, family history, psychometric/treatment history, diagnostic assessment, and proposed treatment plan.
Q:
Discontinuing most psychotropic medications, like antidepressants, may result in:
a. death
b. seizures
c. blood disorders
d. flu like symptoms
Q:
Tolerance usually leads a client to:
a. decrease the amount of a drug that is used/abused.
b. stop using/abusing the drug.
c. increase the amount of a drug used/abused.
d. change to a different drug.
Q:
In reading the following prescription in a medical record-Xanax .5 mg b.i.d. or p.r.n would mean:
a. Xanax .5 mg with food as needed.
b. Xanax .5 mg three times per day or before bedtime.
c. Xanax .5 mg twice a day or before meals.
d. Xanax .5 mg twice a day or as needed.
Q:
Placebo effects are actually:
a. not noticed with most medications
b. The mind playing tricks on the patient
c. Real physiologic changes to the brain and body.
d. None of the above
Q:
When one drug significantly enhances the action of another, this is known as:
a. potentiation
b. maximization
c. synergism
d. interaction
Q:
All of the following are symptoms of drug withdrawal except:
a. euphoria
b. insomnia
c. tremors
d. seizures
Q:
Introducing a higher level of a medication to obtain a desired response is known as:
a. depot binding
b. loading dose
c. vital dose
d. titrating dose
Q:
Therapeutic index refers to:
a. The difference between half-life and therapeutic ranges.
b. The difference between side effects levels and toxicity.
c. The difference between a drug's desired concentration and toxicity.
d. The difference between effectiveness of two like medications.
Q:
Half-life refers to:
a. The average time required to eliminate one half of the drug's concentration.
b. The amount of time needed to eliminate the entire drug from the body.
c. The amount of time needed to notice the drug's effectiveness.
d. None of the above.
Q:
Routes of drug administration include all of the following except:
a. oral
b. Intravenous
c. intranasal
d. intercerebal
Q:
t.i.d. stands for "twice a day."
Q:
P.R.N. is a Latin abbreviation for "as needed."
Q:
Synergism refers to the effect that happens when one drug cancels the other drug out.
Q:
Geriatric patients and others with decreased liver enzyme activity may require lower doses of medications to avoid toxicity.
Q:
Drug protein binding may hinder a drug's metabolism and cause the drug to remain longer in the circulatory system.
Q:
Some gastrointestinal diseases and treatments interfere with drug absorption.
Q:
Absorption of most oral medication takes place in the small intestine.
Q:
Some medications like Haldol and Risperdol Consta are available as an IM preparation.
Q:
Intranasal was one of the mentioned routes of administration.
Q:
Pharmacodynamics is the study of how drugs affect receptor sites, send signals, and cause neurochemical changes.
Q:
There were eight routes of administration discussed in this chapter.