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Q:
All the following statements are true of effective employee recruitment EXCEPT
a. Recruitment targets should be based on human resource supply and demand analysis.
b. The most cost-effective form of recruitment for any health care position is local newspaper advertisement.
c. Recruitment should be evaluated for its costs and benefits like any other human resources management function.
d. Yield analysis is one quantitative method of evaluating the relative effectiveness of various recruitment activities.
Q:
Which of the following justify the importance of employee retention as a critical management strategy?
a. The high costs of recruitment, selection, and training a new employee
b. The instability caused by high employee turnover
c. The potential adverse effects on quality of care
d. All of the above
Q:
Which of the following situations is the best example of disparate treatment?
a. A white woman with superior qualifications is hired over an African American male with marginal qualifications.
b. A female employee whose qualifications exceed all requirements for a higher-level position is promoted over a male colleague who satisfies those requirements.
c. Hispanic applicants tend to score lower than Asian Americans on a cognitive skills test written in English.
d. Female applicants are asked questions in the screening interview about child care arrangements, and male applicants are not.
Q:
Which of the following statements about the principle of progressive discipline is true?
a. Progressive discipline ensures that the punishment will fit the crime.
b. Progressive discipline suggests that the most lenient response to a disciplinary infraction should be applied.
c. Progressive discipline entails a structured process of increasingly adverse managerial responses to recurring violations of organizational policy or guidelines of employee conduct.
d. Progressive discipline should be implemented quite loosely depending on the leadership style and personality of the immediate supervisor.
Q:
Which of these functions is typically not a responsibility of human resource management?
a. Collective bargaining
b. Physician credentialing
c. Employee handbooks
d. Employee training and development
Q:
All the following fall under provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act EXCEPT
a. Overtime pay.
b. Child labor.
c. Collective bargaining.
d. Working hours.
Q:
Effective diversity management
a. Suppresses all conflicts based on racial or ethnic tensions.
b. Insures that the number of employees in the workplace are equally balanced in terms of gender, race, disability status, and sexual orientation.
c. Provides a culture in which employees and clients accept and value individual differences.
d. All of the above.
Q:
The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, the Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1972, and the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 are all examples of federal legislation designed to
a. Ban smoking in the workplace.
b. Ban discrimination on the basis of race, creed, or ethnic group.
c. Protect workers from sexual harassment.
d. Keep the workplace safe and accessible to workers.
Q:
The visionary, motivational, and charismatic aspects of leadership are conveyed by the term
a. Translational.
b. Transformational.
c. Transactional.
d. Traditional.
Q:
Which describes job performance standards?
a. Are the same for each position in the health information services department
b. Require a human resource professional to develop and administer
c. Must be included in the job description to be valid
d. Are related directly to the job requirements established through job analysis
Q:
Which statement best describes the concept of equal employment opportunity?
a. Equal employment opportunity is the process of promoting protected groups to achieve a balance in the workforce and correct past discriminatory practices.
b. Equal employment opportunity ensures that women have an equal chance for hiring and promotion with men.
c. Equal employment opportunity is giving all people a fair chance to succeed without discrimination that is based on factors unrelated to job performance such as sex, age, race, religion, or national origin.
d. The existence of equal employment opportunity legislation has eliminated racial discrimination and stereotyping in the workplace.
Q:
Which of the following values is NOT considered to be among the core standards for ethical behavior in health care?
a. Fairness
b. Doing good
c. Nonmaleficence
d. Generosity
Q:
A patient is claiming negligence for a fall in the hospital that resulted in a fracture of the elbow. It is not likely this patient can claim negligence unless there was evidence that the provider breached a duty.
Q:
Age of majority indicates the number of years one must be to be considered an adult under state law.
Q:
A properly executed authorization to release alcohol-related treatment information must include a description of the information to be disclosed.
Q:
Interrogatories are often a part of the pretrial discovery process.
Q:
The patient record is typically admitted into evidence as an exception to the hearsay rule.
Q:
All authorizations to release alcohol-related treatment information must include the purpose of the disclosure.
Q:
Health information can be admitted to a court proceeding as a business record.
Q:
The risk of refusing a procedure or treatment should be included in an informed consent for treatment.
Q:
A health professional has breached an implied contractual duty when he or she fails to report events required by law (such as industrial accidents, abortions, cancer cases, communicable diseases, and vital statistics) when required for his or her position.
Q:
The Patient Self-Determination Act requires that health care organizations inquire whether patients have advance directives.
Q:
The confidentiality of alcohol and drug abuse records is largely determined by state legislation.
Q:
A breach of contractual duty may possibly occur when a physician discloses health information to a close long-time friend of a patient without the patient's authorization.
Q:
By use of incident reports, nursing staff repeatedly report a physician for yelling at patients and their families. This action by the nurses may be grounds for the physician to claim that his good name is damaged or defamed.
Q:
When a health care provider divulges confidential information from a patient's record to an improper recipient without the patient's permission, a breach of confidentiality and breach of duty has occurred.
Q:
Persons who violate the patient's right to release his/her health information to another provider can be held liable.
Q:
When a surgeon promises there is no chance of disfigurement resulting from plastic surgery and disfigurement happens, a breach of guarantee has occurred.
Q:
A tort action is likely for an unconsented surgical procedure.
Q:
The doctrine of charitable immunity was repealed as a result of the Darling v. Charleston Community Memorial Hospital decision by the Illinois Supreme Court.
Q:
Once a paper-based health record has been converted onto microfilm, optical disk, or computerized storage, the information cannot be used as evidence.
Q:
Health information management professionals and their employers have a legal duty to maintain health information on the facility's patients.
Q:
Because patients volunteer information to their care providers, care providers cannot be found guilty of invasion of privacy.
Q:
In litigation, the bailiff is in charge of deciding what laws are applicable to the case.
Q:
In deciding malpractice cases against physicians in highly technical cases, the jury uses the standard of the "reasonable man."
Q:
In a malpractice action against a hospital, the hospital is the defendant.
Q:
If an order to appear in court and to bring patient records with you is defective because some key information is missing, the subpoena can be ignored.
Q:
When an adult patient is temporarily incapacitated (e.g., unconscious or extremely intoxicated), the family can have complete access to the patient's health record.
Q:
When a nursing home patient is transferred to the hospital for surgery on a broken hip sustained in a fall, the informed consent for surgery is implied in the nursing home transfer.
Q:
In setting facility policies for patient access to their health information, name the two most important sources of law that the health information management (HIM) professional should consult.
Q:
When a health information management professional receives a subpoena duces tecum, believes the order is defective in some way and the facility decides to contest the validity of that order, what sort of motion would be filed by the facility's legal counsel? _________________________
Q:
A _________________________ is a court order requiring someone to come before the court with certain records or documents.
Q:
Minors who are married, living away from home, responsible for their own support, and who the law recognizes as being able to make their own decisions and agreements are generally called ____________________.
Q:
A legal document requiring someone to come before the court and testify is called a ____________________.
Q:
The U.S. Bill of Rights is a source of ____________________ law.
Q:
An employee of health information services disclosed protected health information to a media representative disguised as a medical resident. Do you agree that the employer can be held liable for this event under the doctrine of respondeat superior in this situation? a.
Yes b.
No
Q:
Assume that at a medical malpractice trial alleging that a sponge was left in a surgical site, exactly 50% of the evidence favors the defendant surgeon, and 50% favors the plaintiff. Would you agree that the plaintiff is more likely to win the case because of the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur? a.
Yes b.
No
Q:
(Quotation marks indicate statements made while testifying.) An example of hearsay testimony is
a. "I counted the sponges before the surgeon closed the wound."
b. "The nurse told me the sponge count was correct."
c. "I saw the nurse count the sponges."
d. "The usual procedure is to count the sponges before closing the incision."
Q:
Which of the following could be categorized as a health care operations use of the medical record for which authorization by the patient is generally not required?
a. Investigation of a patient complaint by the manager of the department involved
b. Review of documentation by the facility's professional liability insurer
c. Review of the record by the patient's attorney
d. Both a and b
Q:
The principle of stare decisis is used in a judicial decision when
a. Children are involved.
b. Societal values have changed.
c. Statutory law applies to the situation.
d. The facts of the case are similar to a case that has been decided previously.
Q:
A business associate of a health care provider is a
a. Member of the covered entity's workforce.
b. Patient of the provider.
c. Volunteer who works in the surgery waiting room.
d. Company that performs a function on behalf of the provider that involves the use or disclosure of PHI.
Q:
Which is a practical criterion for determining whether information is confidential or nonconfidential?
a. Was the information exchanged through a patient-provider relationship?
b. Was the information needed to treat or diagnose the patient?
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
Q:
Certain protected health information can be disclosed to law enforcement personnel without the patient's authorization. Which of the following can be disclosed?
a. Investigating a suspicious death
b. Reporting child abuse and neglect
c. Reporting gunshot wounds
d. All of the above
Q:
Which health care organization(s) is bound by the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974?
a. Indian Health Service facilities
b. State-owned behavioral health facility
c. Veterans Administration hospital
d. Both a and c
Q:
All of the following are considered advance directives except
a. Durable power of attorney.
b. Durable power of attorney for health care.
c. Living will.
d. Health care declaration.
Q:
The purpose of the Notice of Privacy Practices is
1) For patients/policy holders to sign to give the covered entity permission to use and disclose their health information.
2) To communicate to patients/policy holders how covered entities will use and disclose their health information.
3) To inform patients/policy holders about their rights concerning their health information.
4) To tell patients/policy holders to whom and how they can complain when they think their rights have been abused.
a. All of the above
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 2, 3, and 4
d. 2 and 3
Q:
Identify the portions of the medical record that may be subject to disclosure for treatment and payment.
a. All of the above
b. 1 and 2
c. 3
Q:
The purpose of the concept of the designated record set is for a covered entity to
Q:
In a given situation, it is determined that the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Regulations preempted another law. This means that the law that applies to the situation is
a. HIPAA Privacy Regulations.
b. The other law.
c. Neither HIPAA nor the other law.
d. Both HIPAA and the other law.
Q:
Which one of the following is not considered a covered entity under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act?
a. Sue's Medical Billing Service: Sue works out of her home and processes the bills for the physicians in her town.
b. Radiologist who contracts with a lawyer to interpret x-ray films for the lawyers' cases
c. The human resource department of Widget Manufacturing, which manages the employees' health care benefits; Widget Manufacturing is self-insured for the employees' health care benefits.
d. Paramedics of a rural fire department
Q:
An authorization that complies with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act includes
a. Identification of the information to be disclosed.
b. The purpose for the disclosure.
c. The specification that the authorization is subject to revocation.
d. All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following is never considered confidential?
a. Peer review records
b. Incident reports
c. Credentialing files
d. Policies and procedures about access and disclosure of health information
Q:
Negligence action(s) include(s)
a. Assault and battery.
b. Corporate negligence.
c. Malpractice.
d. Both b and c.
Q:
Tort action(s) include(s)
a. Defamation.
b. Misrepresentation.
c. Invasion of privacy.
d. All of the above.
Q:
Dr. Snow failed to apply the standards of skill, learning, and care expected of physicians in good standing when treating his patient, Mr. Rocky States. What is the legal term for this act of omission or commission?
a. Res ipsa loquitur
b. Respondeat superior
c. Assault and battery
d. Malpractice
Q:
The statute of limitations refers to which one of these choices?
a. Those who practice direct health care
b. All licensed physicians
c. The time during which a lawsuit may be initiated
d. The time required for the retention of health records
Q:
Assume that an employee of a hospital's health information management department inappropriately releases confidential information to a patient's employer. The patient decides to sue for breach of confidentiality. All the following parties could be held liable for this breach except the
a. Patient's employer.
b. Employee.
c. Supervisors/managers of employee.
d. Hospital.
Q:
Which Act imposed new obligations on health care facilities to provide medical screening examinations on patients before transferring them to other facilities?
a. ARRA
b. EMTALA
c. FOIA
d. HIPAA
Q:
Referring to the scenario below, would you agree that the defendant is more likely to win this case because the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur probably does NOT apply here?
Assume that at a medical malpractice trial alleging postoperative infection, exactly 50% of the evidence favors the plaintiff, and 50% of the evidence favors the defendant physician and hospital. Among the defendant's evidence is some indication that the patient did not comply with postoperative care instructions, including taking antibiotics to fight infection. a.
Yes b.
No
Q:
Which is a basic element of negligence?
a. Duty
b. Breach of duty
c. Proximate cause
d. All of the above
Q:
Laws that give patients the right to access their own health information include all except
a. Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient Records.
b. Federal Privacy Act.
c. Freedom of Information Act.
d. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
Q:
Which management input would be relevant in devising a health care facility's policy on release of health information to the media?
a. Facility legal counsel
b. Risk manager
c. Communications director or media relations manager
d. All of the above
Q:
Public health focuses on what society can do to assure healthy conditions for its citizens and concentrates on populations, not individuals.
Q:
As eligible health professionals and hospitals adopt, implement, and upgrade their EHR systems through the CMS EHR Incentive programs (Meaningful Use programs), there is an opportunity for public health agencies (PHAs) to receive health data routinely from settings other than emergency departments and urgent care centers.
Q:
HEDIS reporting combines reference data from the CDC with HEDIS data.
Q:
Clinical and public health practices can be harmonized when clinical EHR systems can automatically report certain data to authorized public health entities.
Q:
Because of agreed-upon public health measures throughout the world, international travel is no longer a reason for infectious diseases to spread.
Q:
Prevention measures such as vaccines have contributed to the decrease in infectious diseases.
Q:
The Public Health Services Act (PHSA) of 1944 was the original public health agency in the United States
Q:
Stage Two of Meaningful Use for Public Health requires public health agencies to be able to receive patient-identified data based on syndromic surveillance rules and send alerts to health care providers about public health events.