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Q:
If we understood more about the causes of injuries, more could be done to prevent them.
Q:
Assuring and supporting healthy pregnancies is considered a core public health activity.
Q:
Public health provides both direct clinical services and community services.
Q:
Stage One of Meaningful Use for Public Health requires that an eligible professional successfully submit one test submission for each of these three types of data: lab data, syndromic surveillance data, and immunization data.
Q:
Mexico has more current cases of tuberculosis than the United States.
Q:
Adolescents (ages 13-15) need a booster of Tdap (tetanus-diphtheria-acellular pertussis)
Q:
Eradicating tuberculosis is an example of a _____________________goal.
Q:
To achieve public health goals and to demonstrate these goals have or are being met, public health does not need
a. Data management systems that meet local needs to collect, analyze, and monitor standardized baseline data systematically.
b. One statewide vendor to assure continuity among various entities.
c. A fully integrated, secure computer network.
d. Linkage between local and statewide data bases in both private and public sectors.
Q:
The National Electronic Disease Surveillance System (NEDSS) is a conduit for
a. Using data standards to facilitate timely, secure reporting of data.
b. Public health agencies to report disease data to the CDC.
c. Exchanging information to support the national disease surveillance system.
d. All of the above.
Q:
What CDC publication can you access to find out public health information from individual states?
a. Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report
b. Healthy People 2020
c. Onehealthport.com
d. Preventing Chronic Disease (E-journal)
Q:
Which one of the following is not a public health obligation?
a. Prevent epidemics and the spread of disease.
b. Prevent injuries.
c. Promote and encourage healthy behaviors and mental health.
d. Assure everyone has access to Obamacare.
Q:
The Healthy People 2020 goal for tobacco use for adolescents in grades 9€12 is to reduce this risk behavior from 26% to
a. 25%.
b. 23%.
c. 21%.
d. 19%.
Q:
In 2009, the average length of hospital inpatient stay for an injury was
a. 3.5 days.
b. 4.3 days.
c. 4.8 days.
d. 5.1 days.
Q:
HIM professionals can contribute to improving prevention of injuries by
a. Advocating for the required use of external use of injury coding in all hospitals and emergency departments.
b. Adding injury data to their facility's syndromic surveillance reporting.
c. Becoming knowledgeable about Joint Commission publications on external injury data.
d. Both a and c.
Q:
In 2010, how many work-related assaults required a visit to an emergency department?
a. 50,407
b. 123,102
c. 137,400
d. 143,200
Q:
Injuries and violence are the leading cause of death for individuals aged
a. 1€30 years
b. 1€44 years
c. 25€44 years
d. 45€70 years
Q:
What disease does coronavirus cause?
a. Ebola
b. Rubella
c. MERS
d. SARS
Q:
Public health officials need excellent health information systems to be able to
a. Track policy outcome measures.
b. Provide advice to individual doctors on how to treat certain diseases.
c. Lobby Congress for funding.
d. None of the above.
Q:
One Health Port services in Washington State include(s)
a. Standard mapping for the continuity of care document.
b. Physician orders for controlled substances.
c. Eligibility verifications.
d. Both a and c.
Q:
An example of public health population-based data is
a. All school-age children with the diagnosis of Hansen's disease.
b. All licensed drivers over the age of 65.
c. All deaths occurring in an acute care hospital within specified time frames.
d. All of the above.
Q:
In 2009, what injury became the leading cause of external injury deaths?
a. Automobile accidents
b. Skiing accidents
c. Drug poisonings
d. Alcohol poisonings
Q:
A HIM professional in a hospital would be supporting implementation of a syndromic surveillance system when he
a. Presents the public health benefits to the Chairman of the Medical Record Committee in preparation for a scheduled monthly meeting.
b. Works with the hospital's CIO to research and develop a secure methodology to identify and transmit de-identified hospital-specific coded health care data to the public health authority.
c. Educates ER, outpatient, and hospital HIM coders about the critical nature of syndromic surveillance.
d. All of the above.
Q:
The Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set report card system aggregates data across health care plans and produces a report entitled
a. The Quality Chasm.
b. Healthy People 2020.
c. State of Health Care Quality.
d. Use Case Examples for Health Information Exchange.
Q:
This entity/group collects data about facilities that supply health care and the services rendered in the United States.
a. National Health Interview Survey
b. National Health Care Survey
c. National Center for Health Statistics
d. National Public Health Network
Q:
Which one of the following is not a core public health function?
a. Assessment
b. EHR development
c. Policy development
d. Assurance
Q:
Of the U.S. states near the Mexico border, which had the highest number of reported cases of tuberculosis (2010)?
a. Texas
b. Arizona
c. California
d. New Mexico
Q:
The top leading current cause of death in the United States as of 2007 is
a. Influenza and pneumonia.
b. Heart disease.
c. Cerebrovascular.
d. Malignant neoplasms.
Q:
The top leading cause of death in the United States in 1900 was
a. Pneumonia/influenza.
b. Heart attack.
c. Cancer.
d. Childbirth.
Q:
Females age 13-15 are encouraged to get the HPV vaccine. The target for HPV in Healthy People 2020 is 80%. The current reported level (2008) is approximately
a. 10-15%.
b. 21-25%.
c. 16-20%.
d. 26-30%.
Q:
Healthy People 2020 is sponsored by
a. NCQA.
b. CDC.
c. AHRQ.
d. ONC.
Q:
Senior citizens who die of an injury are most likely to die from
a. Motor vehicle/traffic accident.
b. Firearm.
c. Poisoning.
d. Fall.
Q:
Which age group is currently most likely to die from accidents?
a. 1-24 years of age
b. 25-44 years of age
c. 45-64 years of age
d. 65 and over
Q:
Management of data incorporates governance over architecture, analysis, design, security, quality management, and data management warehousing.
Q:
The Certified Health Data Analyst (CHDA) is a newly created credential offered by the American Cancer Society.
Q:
Federal law requires the reporting of implant problems to the Food and Drug Administration when there is a probability a device has caused a death, serious illness, or injury.
Q:
The registration and tracking of implantable medical devices by manufacturers is mandated by law.
Q:
The International Classification of Diseases for Oncology, 3rd edition (ICD-O-3) is published by the World Health Organization (WHO).
Q:
The International Classification of Diseases for Oncology, 3rd edition (ICD-O-3) serves as the basis for developing reportable cases for registry eligibility in a hospital cancer program.
Q:
The establishment of statewide cancer registries in states where population-based registries did not exist was a result of federal legislation.
Q:
The United Network for Organ Sharing (UNOS) has administered the contract for the nation€s only Organ Procurement and Transplantation Network (OPTN) since 1986.
Q:
The Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results (SEER) program was federally mandated.
Q:
Approved cancer programs are required to publish and distribute an annual report.
Q:
The primary goal of a hospital-based cancer registry is the improvement of care to the cancer patient.
Q:
Registries are established for different purposes and respond to different regulating bodies.
Q:
The HIM professional can participate in a variety of public health research roles including
a. Data collector.
b. Project manager.
c. Data analyst.
d. All of the above.
Q:
The major benefits of implementing an electronic death registration system include all of the following except
a. Greater efficiency and timeliness of death registration.
b. Higher quality of data with real-time edits.
c. Increased security and fraud prevention.
d. Less collaboration among providers and death registration users.
Q:
The major difference between a registry and a surveillance system is
a. A registry collects population-based data for each case, while a surveillance system may or may not collect population-based data.
b. A registry may or may not collect population-based data, while a surveillance system only collects population-based data.
c. Both a registry and a surveillance system collect only population-based data.
d. Both b and c.
Q:
Data analyses are dealing with the process of
a. Inspecting data to make sure data are appropriate.
b. Cleaning data to make sure data can be used accurately.
c. Transforming data to make sure data can be analyzed for appropriate format.
d. Modeling data to generalize useful results.
e. All of the above.
Q:
Big data are characterized with Velocity, Volume, and Variety. Velocity is talking about
a. Collecting real-time data to capture live streaming events and moments with speed or frequency of data generation.
b. A large amount of data from patient care.
c. Data structured in different formats with multiple applications.
d. Both b and c.
Q:
When health care organizations compare their organizations€ patient safety and quality indicators against peer organizations that are known for their excellence, they are using which of the following tools?
a. Benchmarking
b. Decision Support
c. Administrative Analysis
d. Consumer Assessment of Health Providers & Systems Survey (CAHPS)
Q:
Identify the function that is NOT common to all registries.
a. Case definition and eligibility criteria
b. Abstracting and entering specified data elements into a database
c. Staging of the disease process and periodic follow-up for ACS approval
d. Data reporting for use by agencies, the scientific community, and the public
Q:
Which of the following lead agencies has the primary responsibility to improve quality, safety, efficiency, and effectiveness by collecting data on published Patient Quality and Patient Safety Indicators?
a. The Leapfrog Group
b. Agency for Health Care Research and Quality
c. Texas Medical Foundation Health Quality Institute
d. Health Grades
Q:
The selection of a data element should meet which of the following criteria?
a. Can be reused in a different system if it has a different definition
b. Should be obtainable in the normal work process
c. Must be unique and clearly definable
d. Should be used to make decisions important to the organization
Q:
Identify which one of the following is NOT a core public health function.
a. Assessment and monitoring of the health of communities and populations at risk
b. Formulation of public policies designed to solve identified local and national health problems and priorities
c. Assurance that all populations have access to appropriate and cost-effective care, including health promotion and disease prevention services
d. Oversight of transplant, death, cancer, trauma, and immunization national registries
Q:
Which of the following registries would report information on the national health objectives set for the Healthy People 2020?
a. Cancer registries
b. Trauma registries
c. Immunization registries
d. Diabetes registries
Q:
CMS attempts to make the Medicare beneficiary a better informed public consumer of health care for inpatient services by providing which of the following?
a. Health Grades
b. Hospital Compare
c. Texas Medical Foundation Health Quality Institute
d. Agency for Health Care Research & Quality
Q:
Health care organizations and providers are required to report data on specific core measures. This is an example of which use of health care data reporting?
a. Benchmarking
b. Clinical decision support
c. Consumer education
d. Performance management
Q:
The AIS scores would be found in which of the following registries?
a. Trauma registry
b. Cancer registry
c. Birth registry
d. Diabetes registry
Q:
Which one of the following is NOT a step in building a data dictionary?
a. Perform an inventory of the current system.
b. Identify new data content needs of the current system.
c. Mandate the adoption of your preferred definitions of data elements.
d. Develop a consensus between all users of the system.
Q:
Which of the following cancer data may be released without patient authorization?
a. Aggregate
b. Patient
c. Physician
d. Facility
Q:
Which of the following cancer registry files is considered a working file?
a. Accession register
b. Follow-up
c. Patient index
d. Primary site
Q:
Cancer registries have been established to
a. Investigate the cause(s) of cancer as a disease.
b. Eradicate cancer as a disease.
c. Assess cancer incidence, treatment, and end results.
d. Monitor physician performance in treating cancer patients.
Q:
Which organ-specific registry is associated with the National Organ Procurement Transplantation Network?
a. Kidney
b. Heart/lung
c. Pancreas
d. All of the above
Q:
What is the required follow-up rate for approved hospital cancer programs?
a. 60%
b. 75%
c. 80%
d. 90%
Q:
Certified Tumor Registrar is
a. A credential based on education.
b. A credential based on an examination.
c. A credential that is honorary.
d. None of the above.
Q:
Immunization registries store data electronically on all National Vaccine Advisory Committee€approved core data elements. Knowledge of vaccination rates helps to determine
a. The potential need for rapid immunization in the event of bioterrorist attack.
b. Whether public health goals are being met.
c. Whether public health interventions are needed to increase immunization rates.
d. All of the above.
Q:
A study is conducted that evaluates the impact on the use of coronary artery bypass grafts in patients with myocardial infarctions in the populations of two states. Which of the following is the most likely way to adjust for risk in the two populations?
a. Coding Classification Sets
b. Elixhauser Comorbidity Measurement
c. Weiner Data Complexes
d. Charleson Index
Q:
All the following are included in the International Classification of Diseases for Oncology, 3rd edition (ICD-O-3) coding scheme except
a. Differentiation.
b. Etiology.
c. Grading.
d. Morphology.
Q:
In Best Health General Hospital, the cancer registrar associated with the cancer program undertakes a systematic sampling of 5% to 10% of cases in the registry. The main goal of the evaluation is to
a. Compare the results of the two studies with each other.
b. Optimize care for patients with cancer.
c. Evaluate the quality of the coded data.
d. Contribute to public health cancer-control goals.
Q:
A physician at Best Health General Hospital questions the quality of the data in the computerized cancer registry. The quality control process would be specified in the Cancer Registry Manual under
a. Coding and abstracting policies and procedures.
b. Computerized database policies and procedures.
c. Confidentiality policies and procedures.
d. Quality control policies and procedures.
Q:
A cancer registrar identifies applicable data elements and includes them in the registry data. This is an example of what kind of process required by the American College of Surgeons?
a. Abstracting
b. Posting
c. Quality control
d. Accessioning
Q:
Compared with claims data, the value of registry data is of
a. Higher quality.
b. Lower quality.
c. Higher consistency.
d. Lower consistency.
Q:
If a patient meets the clinical definition of a reportable disease, the case is
a. Identified as the index case.
b. Reported on the basis of the epidemiologic definition.
c. Aggregated for batch reporting.
d. Evaluated for treatment of the disease.
Q:
A registry established by the state to capture all patients with reportable cases is a
a. Population-based registry.
b. Specialty registry.
c. Cancer-control registry.
d. Hospital-based registry.
Q:
The information contained in the databases developed from the patient record is considered to be
a. Primary data.
b. Secondary data.
c. Tertiary data.
d. None of the above.
Q:
Government agencies and third-party payers require that appropriate codes be used to represent the reason for the encounter. The aggregate data from these health encounters may be used to populate special databases for
a. Patient treatment.
b. Physician decision-making.
c. Research.
d. Interoperability analysis.
Q:
Which of the following cases is ineligible for inclusion in the hospital-based cancer registry?
a. Patient admitted to hospice care
b. Patient receiving planned therapy
c. Patient who was diagnosed elsewhere and is receiving part of therapy elsewhere
d. Both a and c
Q:
Cancer screening and smoking cessation programs are a function of which type of population-based registries?
a. Incidence
b. Cancer control
c. Research
d. All of the above
Q:
In the physician office, codes for reimbursement may be assigned by those who have not been trained in established coding rules. Because of this,
a. The resulting codes may be more accurate than inpatient codes.
b. The resulting codes will be of equal quality to those generated in the inpatient coding process.
c. The resulting codes will be of lower quality than those generated in the inpatient coding process.
d. The resulting codes will be exactly the same.
Q:
Coded and administrative data are used by public health agencies for
a. Reimbursing health services provided.
b. Planning related to health care services.
c. Tracking and preventing disability and disease.
d. Pay for performance.