Q&A Hero

Q: Full immobilization of a trauma patient, including placing a cervical collar and securing the patient to a backboard, should take place at which of the following points in time? A) Before moving the patient to the ambulance B) Before the primary assessment C) En route to the hospital D) After checking for cervical range of motion

Q: Which of the following transport positions is indicated for the patient in shock? A) Legs raised 8 to 12 inches B) Left lateral recumbent C) Sitting D) Recumbent

Q: A patient-carrying device should have at least ________ straps to hold the patient securely. A) 3 B) 5 C) 1 D) 2

Q: The process of combining the patient and patient-carrying device into a unit ready for moving and transporting the patient is called: A) loading. B) wrapping. C) immobilizing. D) packaging.

Q: When arriving at the location of a motor vehicle collision on an interstate highway, you should position the ambulance so that: A) there is a safe area between the damaged vehicles and traffic behind the scene. B) there is a safe area beyond the damaged vehicles. C) you are nearest to the command post for easy communications with the incident commander. D) there is a fire truck between you and oncoming traffic.

Q: You are at the scene of a vehicle collision and have found that there is one patient who is in stable condition. At this point, the call can be categorized as: A) no longer a true emergency. B) triaged. C) an unfounded call. D) a non-incident.

Q: Which of the following contributes MOST significantly to the occurrence of ambulance crashes? A) Time of day B) Size of the vehicle C) Speed of the vehicle D) Weather conditions

Q: You are responding at emergency status to a vehicle collision in your ambulance. As you approach an intersection with a red light in your direction, you approach cautiously, come to a complete stop at the intersection, ensure all other drivers can see you, and slowly ease your way through the intersection. These actions describe your abilities to: A) follow state laws regarding emergency vehicle operations. B) ensure your right to proceed through a red light due to the established emergency. C) proceed with due regard for the safety of all drivers on the road. D) predict the travel path of other drivers who have the right-of-way.

Q: Operators of emergency vehicles must drive with the safety of others in mind. This is known as driving: A) with due regard. B) defensively. C) as a public servant. D) with emergency privilege.

Q: Regarding ambulance warning devices, which of the following statements is NOT true? A) Four-way flashers should not be used as emergency lights. B) The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately. C) In most states it is illegal to drive at night with only one headlight. D) The use of strobes is controversial.

Q: After responding to the scene of a patient complaining of difficulty breathing, you and your partner determine that the patient's condition is not life threatening based on a thorough assessment. You should transport the patient to an appropriate medical facility with: A) the emergency lights on, but without activating the siren. B) the emergency lights off, but activating the siren when traffic builds. C) both lights and siren activated. D) neither lights nor siren activated.

Q: Regarding the use of emergency sirens, which of the following is false? A) Dense shrubbery may block the sound of the siren. B) The sound of the siren may increase the patient's anxiety. C) Ambulance operators are not affected by siren noise. D) EMTs should assume that other drivers cannot hear the siren.

Q: Inexperienced drivers tend to ________ when they hear a siren approaching. A) pull to the right B) stop C) speed up D) pull to the left

Q: A study of emergency collisions demonstrated that the majority of collisions occurred A) at intersections. B) at night. C) during inclement weather. D) during turning.

Q: Most state statutes allow an emergency vehicle operator to do which of the following on emergency calls? A) Drive around lowered cross-arms at a railroad crossing B) Exceed posted speed limits if life and property are not endangered C) Be exempt from liability in the event of a collision D) Pass a stopped school bus with its red flashers on

Q: Tests have shown that ________ ambulance operators tend to speed up by 10 to 15 miles per hour when the siren is sounding. A) privately employed B) younger C) inexperienced D) experienced

Q: Safety studies have shown that drivers of other vehicles do not usually see or hear ambulances or other emergency vehicles until they are within ________ feet of it. A) 50 to 100 B) 200 to 250 C) 150 to 200 D) 100 to 150

Q: You respond to a major automobile collision involving multiple patients. Which of the following patients would receive Priority 1 transport? A) 45-year-old with no vital signs B) 6-year-old with lower leg fracture and normal vital signs C) 25-year-old with abdominal bruising and signs of shock D) 68-year-old with mild respiratory distress and seat belt burns

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding child abuse injuries of special needs patients? A) Splash burns indicate child abuse. B) Rib fractures in young children suggest child abuse. C) Shaken baby syndrome never causes death of the infant. D) Head injuries are usually the first sign in child abuse.

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of child abusers of special need patients? A) They rarely feel guilt or remorse. B) They usually identify with the child's pain and suffering. C) Alcohol and drug abuse is uncommon. D) They usually want the child's injuries treated.

Q: Chloe was born with a cardiac problem that she will have to manage the rest of her life. This disease is considered to be: A) acquired. B) autoimmune. C) congenital. D) genetic.

Q: A condition that interferes significantly with a person's ability to engage in activities of daily living is referred to as a: A) developmental disability. B) physical handicap. C) disability. D) special need.

Q: You are transporting a resident of a nursing home to the hospital for a complaint of abdominal pain for 3 days. During your assessment, you note a tube protruding from the patient's nose, which is connected to a bag of milky-white fluid. This tube is known as a: A) gastric tube. B) nasogastric tube. C) J-tube. D) tracheal tube.

Q: You are transporting a patient who is experiencing frequent discharges of her automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). En route to the hospital you are caring for the patient in the back of the ambulance. To protect yourself from being shocked if the defibrillator discharges, you should: A) wear protective gloves that cannot conduct electricity. B) make sure you do not touch the patient directly. C) limit direct contact with the patient. D) not worry, since the defibrillator does not pose a danger to others.

Q: Where are automatic implanted cardiac defibrillators typically placed in patients who require one? A) In the upper left chest B) In the upper right chest C) In the lower left chest D) In the lower right chest

Q: To determine the appropriate depth an EMT should insert a catheter tip into a tracheostomy tube in order to clear a blocked airway, the EMT should: A) measure from the stoma to the carina. B) measure against the length of the obturator. C) insert the catheter until the tip is no longer visible. D) multiply the internal diameter of the tracheal tube by 10.

Q: Compare the pain a patient experiences when receiving a shock from a pacemaker against the pain felt when receiving a shock from an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). A) Pacemakers are painless and AICDs are painful. B) Both are painful. C) Pacemakers are painful and AICDs are painless. D) Both are painless.

Q: A patient uses a home ventilator connected to his tracheostomy tube to breathe. Which of the following is the correct procedure to use when moving this patient to the ambulance? A) Ventilate the patient's tracheostomy tube via a connected bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator. B) Do nothing; there is no need to ventilate the patient between the house and the ambulance. C) Ventilate the patient with mouth-to-mask ventilations at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator. D) Ventilate the patient's nose and mouth with a bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.

Q: Which of the following is the correct position to use when transporting a patient who has a tracheostomy tube? A) Shock position B) Prone C) Head slightly elevated D) Supine

Q: Assessing blood pressure on a patient with an AV shunt, fistula, or graft could lead to which of the following? A) Inaccurate blood pressure readings B) Uncontrollable hemorrhage in the extremity C) Damage to the AV shunt, fistula, or graft, requiring surgery D) Nothing, as there is no need to avoid assessing blood pressure in a patient's arm with an AV fistula, shunt, or graft.

Q: Which of the following is the main advantage of peritoneal dialysis over hemodialysis? A) Peritoneal dialysis is much faster. B) Peritoneal dialysis is more effective. C) Peritoneal dialysis is likely to be done at the patient's home. D) Peritoneal dialysis is less prone to infection.

Q: During transport, where should the catheter bag be after loading the patient and stretcher into the ambulance if the patient has an indwelling urinary catheter? A) In the patient's lap, but not higher than his heart B) On the ambulance floor C) Hanging from the ceiling of the ambulance or IV pole higher than the patient D) Lower than the patient, but not on the floor

Q: During a power failure, how should the EMT verify adequate ventilations are being administered to an unresponsive patient with a tracheostomy tube using a bag-valve mask? A) Observe for improving skin color. B) Ensure a good connection between the bag-valve mask and the tracheostomy tube. C) Observe for chest rise and fall. D) All of the above

Q: While ventilating a conscious patient's tracheostomy tube with a connected bag-valve mask, the EMT should verify the patient's comfort level for which of the following? A) Ventilation volume B) Ventilation pressure C) Ventilation rate D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the EMT to take when caring for a patient with an AICD who goes into cardiac arrest? A) The AED should be applied and used, but CPR should not be started while on-scene or transporting the patient. B) No action beyond transport is required since the patient already has an implanted defibrillator. C) CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while on-scene and transporting the patient. D) CPR should be started, but the AED should not be used while on-scene or transporting the patient.

Q: While transporting a patient who has an indwelling Foley catheter, it is important to keep the collection bag: A) higher than the level of the patient. B) level with the patient. C) lower than the level of the patient. D) with the patient's caregiver.

Q: Which of the following situations are frequently problematic for patients who have tracheostomy tubes? A) Tracheal tears B) Mucus buildup C) Air embolism D) Tube malplacement

Q: You are on the scene of a pediatric patient who is on a specialized home monitoring system. This situation was not specifically addressed in your EMT class and your EMT partner has not encountered this situation, either. What is an advisable course of action? A) Ask the parent or caregiver what has been done in the past to correct the situation. B) Load the patient and rapidly transport the patient to the closest hospital for evaluation. C) Contact medical control and ask to speak to a specialist for advice. D) Request an advanced life support ambulance crew to respond for assistance.

Q: When preparing to move a patient that is using a specialty medical device from his house to the ambulance, which of the following questions would be appropriate to ask the family? A) What worked best for moving the patient the last time he was transported by ambulance? B) How do you normally move the patient? C) Can you carry the patient to the ambulance since you know the best way to move the patient? D) Both A and B are correct.

Q: While on the scene of an emergency call involving a patient who is dependent upon a medical device for survival, the EMT can ask which of the following individuals about the specifics of the device? A) Patient's family B) Patient C) Patient's home health aide or nurse D) All of the above

Q: At which of the following locations is an EMT likely to encounter a patient using an advanced medical device? A) Nursing home B) Specialty care center C) Private residence D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following groups of people makes up the largest portion of the homeless population? A) Females B) Veterans C) Children D) Families

Q: When transporting a patient who is morbidly obese to the hospital, it is important to monitor which of the following vital signs? A) Pulse rate B) Oxygen saturation C) Blood pressure D) Blood glucose level

Q: A body mass index (BMI) above ________ is considered obese. A) 25 B) 30 C) 35 D) 40

Q: Jarl is a male who is 5 foot 7 inches tall and weighs 250 pounds. What is Jarl's body mass index (rounded to the nearest tenth)? A) 35.2 B) 36.5 C) 38.4 D) 39.1

Q: Which of the following serious health problems is related to homelessness? A) Liver disease B) Heart disease C) Tuberculosis D) Hypertension

Q: Obesity increases the risk for which of the following health problems? A) Liver disease B) Type 2 diabetes C) Respiratory problems D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is the easiest way for an EMT to communicate with a patient with drastic hearing loss? A) Slow down your speech so that the patient can read your lips. B) Write your questions using paper and pen. C) Use a TDD/TYY telephone. D) Speak loudly and directly into the patient's ear.

Q: Which of the following BEST describes the origins of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A) Acquired disease B) Congenital disease C) Either a congenital or acquired disease D) Neither a congenital nor acquired disease

Q: Which of the following BEST describes a disease such as deafness? A) Acquired disease B) Congenital disease C) Either a congenital or acquired disease D) Neither a congenital nor acquired disease

Q: Obesity is defined as a body mass index greater than: A) 35. B) 25. C) 30. D) 40.

Q: Which of the following refers to a condition that interferes significantly with a person's ability to engage in activities of daily living? A) Handicapped B) Disabled C) Terminal D) Disability

Q: Bariatrics is defined as the branch of medicine that deals with the cause, prevention, and treatment of which of the following diseases? A) Diabetes B) Sleep apnea C) Blindness D) Obesity

Q: Which of the following is NOT a role of dialysis in a renal failure patient? A) Remove fluid from the body B) Filter and detoxify the blood C) Remove waste from the body D) Stimulate blood cell production

Q: Which of the following is true in regards to touching a patient who is being shocked with an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD)? A) The EMT will always feel the shock, and it is very dangerous to the EMT as well. B) The EMT cannot feel the shock of an AICD when delivered to the patient. C) The EMT will always feel the shock, but it is not very painful. D) It depends on the AICD model as to whether or not the EMT can feel the shock.

Q: What is the purpose of a tracheostomy in an ill patient? A) To assist the patient with sleeping B) To assist the patient with waste removal C) To assist the patient with breathing D) To assist the patient with feedings

Q: Which of the following BEST describes when positive pressure is applied to the patient's airway using a CPAP machine? A) Between inhalation and exhalation B) During exhalation only C) During both inhalation and exhalation D) During inhalation only

Q: While assessing the mental status of an elderly patient who has been retired for several years, you notice he has difficulty answering your questions. He seems depressed. Based on this information, you should: A) suspect a life-threatening neurological event. B) acknowledge the patient's fears and try to put them in perspective. C) consider his mental status as being decreased. D) consider the need for advanced provider care.

Q: Which of the following groups is MOST likely to be successful in a suicide attempt? A) Middle-aged men B) Young women C) Teenagers D) Elderly men

Q: The use of a made-up experience to replace lost memories with imaginary ones is called: A) hysteria. B) confusion. C) denial. D) confabulation.

Q: The main perpetrators of elder abuse are: A) grandchildren B) adult children C) spouses D) brothers and sisters

Q: Which of the following statements is believed to be true regarding domestic elder abuse? A) The elders are usually in good health. B) The abusers are usually well-adjusted. C) There is seldom a family history of elder abuse. D) None of the above.

Q: Which of the following may provide the EMT with an indication of physical neglect of an elderly patient? A) Misuse of a person's personal belongings B) Evidence of sexual assault C) Injuries from a fall D) Poor hygiene

Q: Which of the following is NOT a form of elder abuse or neglect? A) Social B) Physical C) Psychological D) Financial

Q: You walk up the stairs of a house to respond to a call of an elderly man. You notice that the stairs do not have any handrails. After responding to the reason why he called 911, what suggestion would you give to this patient to avoid falls in the future? A) It is illegal to not have a handrail on the front steps and it must be fixed immediately. B) He should install a handrail on the front steps to avoid any falls. C) It is a good idea there are no handrails on the front steps as this negatively impacts his balance as he walks up the stairs. D) Nothing, there is no problem.

Q: Which of the following fractures is most common among elderly women due to falls? A) Distal femur B) Pelvis C) Mid-shaft femur D) Proximal femur

Q: Which of the following is a serious complication of a fall with chest injuries suffered by a 75-year-old male? A) Pneumonia B) Bruised ribs C) Blood clots D) Collapsed lungs

Q: Which of the following lung conditions is the fourth leading cause of death among the elderly? A) Chronic bronchitis B) Pneumothorax C) Pneumonia D) Tuberculosis

Q: Upon your arrival for a medical call at a private residence, you find an elderly male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. Which of the following findings would provide you with the most valuable information about potential problems this patient may be experiencing? A) Temperature in the house B) Patient's positioning on the couch C) Patient's mental status D) Patient's vital signs

Q: Which of the following is the likely result of diminished thyroid function in the elderly? A) Thin, dry, wrinkled skin B) Decreased tolerance of heat and cold C) Increased toxicity of medications D) Difficulty chewing and swallowing

Q: The elderly population is at least ________ times as likely to use the EMS system as patients in other age groups. A) 5 B) 0.5 C) 10 D) 2

Q: An elderly patient who is experiencing a myocardial infarction is more likely to complain of which of the following symptoms than a younger patient would? A) Shortness of breath without chest pain B) Shortness of breath with chest pain C) A rash caused by shingles D) No chest pain or shortness of breath

Q: An elderly patient you are transporting to the hospital for complaints of feeling faint and having abdominal pain provides you with a list of medications he currently takes. Among the medications listed is naproxen. The patient's vital signs include a blood pressure of 148/92, pulse rate of 120, respiratory rate of 28, and clear bilateral breath sounds. Which of the following would be the most likely condition the patient is experiencing related to the abdominal pain? A) Myocardial infarction B) Constipation C) Abdominal aortic aneurysm D) Lower gastrointestinal bleeding

Q: During your assessment of an unconscious, unresponsive 80-year-old female patient, you notice that she has dentures. Your assessment reveals she has an open airway, is breathing on her own at a rate of 12 per minute, is slightly pale, and has a bounding radial pulse. In managing this patient's airway, what would be your most appropriate action? A) Prepare to insert an oral airway. B) Remove the dentures. C) Perform a jaw thrust as needed. D) Tilt the head to a sniffing position.

Q: When an elderly patient complains of abdominal pain, the EMT should consider this symptom to be: A) non-life-threatening unless accompanied by other symptoms. B) cardiac-related until proven otherwise. C) an indication of a potentially serious problem. D) related to a gastrointestinal problem.

Q: Your patient is an 80-year-old male complaining of lower back pain that radiates through to the abdomen. He describes the pain as "ripping" in nature. He is pale, diaphoretic, and anxious, and has a blood pressure of 210/100 mmHg, a pulse of 112 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely? A) Gallbladder disease B) Bowel obstruction C) Diverticulitis D) Abdominal aortic aneurysm

Q: Which of the following is NOT a common cause of chest pain in the elderly? A) Angina B) Asthma C) Pneumonia D) Aneurysm

Q: When palpating the pulse of an elderly patient, you notice that there is an irregular pulsation without any kind of pattern or cycle to it. This is called: A) pulsus alternans. B) heart failure. C) an irregularly irregular pulse. D) pulsus paradoxus.

Q: You are assessing a 67-year-old male patient who is experiencing a dissecting abdominal aneurysm. Typically, such a patient will describe the pain as: A) dull. B) tearing. C) sharp. D) achy.

Q: While interviewing your patient, she tells you that her husband will be back from the store shortly and can get you a list of her medications. Her daughter tells you that the patient's husband died 15 years ago. This situation is known as: A) hallucination. B) imagination. C) contemplation. D) confabulation.