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Q:
Which is the average number of days of service for each inpatient discharged within a given period?
a. Median
b. Inpatient census
c. Average length of stay
d. Occupancy average
Q:
Which of the following should be excluded in computing the net autopsy rate?
a. Death occurring under 48 hours
b. Postoperative deaths
c. Medical examiner deaths that cannot be autopsied
d. None of the above
Q:
In an 800-bed health care facility during the month of January the total inpatient days for adults were 13,500. What was the percentage of occupancy?
a. 54.9%
b. 54.4%
c. 60%
d. 55.4%
Q:
In an 800-bed health care facility during the month of January the total inpatient days for adults were 13,500. What was the average daily census?
a. 439.5
b. 435.5
c. 440
d. 453.5
Q:
What type of data are these examples: the number of records that are analyzed, the number of patients interviewed in a patient satisfaction survey?
a. Continuous
b. Nominal
c. Discrete
d. Ordinal
Q:
What is it called when every member of the population has the same chance of being included in the sample and the selection of one member has no effect on the selection of another member?
a. Random sample
b. Type II error
c. Population
d. Type I error
Q:
A type I error is when the researcher
a. Accepts the null hypothesis when it is false.
b. Rejects the null hypothesis when it is true.
c. Accepts the alternative hypothesis.
d. Both a and b
Q:
Which is a measure of dispersion that is computed by taking the square root of the variance, thereby demonstrating how the values are spread around the mean?
a. Mode
b. Median
c. Range
d. Standard deviation
Q:
When two groups have very different means, it is best to compare their
a. Standard deviation.
b. Mean.
c. Median.
d. Coefficient of variation.
Q:
What is the major disadvantage of the range?
a. Based on ordinal data only
b. Based on percentages
c. Based on extreme values and ignores all other values
d. Based on small values and ignores all other values
Q:
A sample is a subset of a population that is valid if it is a true representation of
a. The population.
b. The subset.
c. The mean of the sample.
d. The median of the population.
Q:
Which statistic is most appropriate to use when describing ordinal or ranked data?
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Standard deviation
Q:
What was the average length of stay for the following patients: 4, 3, 2, 5, 5,10?
a. 5.8
b. 4.8
c. 6.0
d. 7.8
Q:
When intervals are used in frequency distribution tables, the intervals should be
a. No less than 5 and no more than 20.
b. Of equal width.
c. End points that do not overlap.
d. All of the above.
Q:
The ranking of variables according to some criterion is called _____ data.
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Discrete
d. Continuous
Q:
What type of data is weight, height, temperature, pulse, cost, or charges in dollars?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Discrete
d. Continuous
Q:
What is the term for the number of new cases of a disease?
a. Incidence
b. Prevalence
c. Attack rate
d. Spectrum of disease
Q:
What is the term for the number of existing cases of a disease?
a. Incidence
b. Prevalence
c. Mortality
d. Morbidity
Q:
What is an infection called that occurs more than 72 hours after admission?
a. Community-acquired infection
b. Comorbidity
c. Complication
d. Nosocomial infection
Q:
What is the major difference between the gross and net autopsy rates?
a. Net autopsy rate excludes unautopsied coroner€s cases.
b. Gross autopsy rate excludes unautopsied coroner€s cases.
c. Gross autopsy rate excludes inpatient deaths.
d. Net autopsy rate excludes inpatient deaths.
Q:
If a hospital has an SMR of 2.53 for a specific DRG, this means that the hospital has a _____% higher mortality for the DRG than was expected.
a. 153
b. 2.53
c. 1.0
d. 50
Q:
When should the standardized mortality ratio (SMR) be used?
a. When age-specific rates are available
b. When the number of deaths per age category is large
c. When age-specific rates are not available
d. All of the above
Q:
Which denominator is appropriate for computing the maternal death rate?
a. Total discharges (including deaths) of all patients
b. Total discharges (including deaths) of obstetrical patients
c. Total deaths of obstetrical patients
d. Total discharges of surgical patients
Q:
Which of the following retains the original vital statistics certificate for permanent filing?
a. NCHS
b. State registrar
c. Hospital
d. None of the above
Q:
Data collected from births, adoptions, marriages, divorces, deaths, and fetal deaths are all considered
a. Registers of events.
b. Vital statistics.
c. Public health statistics.
d. Epidemiological data.
Q:
Which statistic represents the number of individuals in a specific category divided by the number of individuals in the category?
a. Rate
b. Percentage
c. Proportion
d. Ratio
Q:
The electronic development of systems analysis aids can be facilitated by RFPs.
Q:
An entity relationship is represented by a rectangle in an ERD.
Q:
A system hierarchy chart is used to illustrate the logical design of an information system database.
Q:
Attributes describe both entities and relationships in a database.
Q:
Icons have cross-cultural advantages over dialog and menu interfaces when considering systems design.
Q:
When considering the physical design of a system, window interfaces can be used to provide views of the document.
Q:
Windows and icons are interfacing elements for data displays in an information system.
Q:
When the combined labor of users and Information Systems staff results in the successful implementation of an EHR system, most likely there was a strong collaboration during all phases of the project.
Q:
Information technology people think in terms of business tasks; users think in terms of systems.
Q:
When the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) of a health care organization continues to demand written, weekly detailed progress reports of an in-house EHR implementation, he is exhibiting the collaboration principle of trust.
Q:
Collaboration in health care projects occurs only when there are formally established groups.
Q:
Over time, no one will know the EHR system better than its users € including the Information Systems department.
Q:
It is enough to have a clear understanding and commitment to the final outcome of an EHR project for it to be a success.
Q:
In the absence of clear principles and policies concerning information management, staff will always work it out.
Q:
When there is a steady stream of EHR processes in a health care organization, this is known as an EHR project.
Q:
When upgrading an EHR system, physicians, nurses, social workers, and radiology technicians are all examples of potential stakeholders.
Q:
Work teams established to perform specific tasks are known as environmental basics.
Q:
There are many principles to consider when embarking on a major systems development project such as an EHR implementation. The chapter suggests at least eight such principles. Name at least three.
Q:
When a HIM director realizes there is a problem with attending physicians receiving their transcribed reports in the EHR for authentication, she decides to use tools to identify where the issue(s) is(are) occurring. The general term for these tools is(are) ___________________________ tools.
Q:
These tools need to be updated on a regular basis to assure they meet the latest discoveries, medication interactions, and any quality-of-care issues. They are called
___________________________ tools.
Q:
When the HIM director and her management team are meeting to decide on the necessities of a new coding system for ICD-11, they are in the ____________________ phase.
Q:
Those individuals who have a strong interest in connecting medical devices to the organization's EHR system are called ___________________.
Q:
A _______________manual lists, defines, and describes system features, while a _______________manual describes system features critical to specific users.
Q:
A year ago, a skilled nursing facility purchased a computer system to process billing claims. Six months ago, the administrative office also acquired a computer system to support clerical functions. Two months ago, a system was purchased to assist with dietary planning. Last month, a consultant was hired to merge the systems.
Referring to the information in the scenario above, which of the following technology management practices is likely at the current point in time for this organization?
a. Little control
b. Centralization of all resources
c. Centralization of technology standards
d. Integration of technologies
Q:
Health Information Management Services has an automated release of information (ROI) system that was installed 4 years ago to assist staff in responding to requests for information. The system is updated regularly to accommodate user needs and changes in laws and regulations. Given this information, at what phase in the information system's life cycle is the ROI system?
a. Design phase
b. Implementation phase
c. Maintenance phase
d. Obsolescence phase
Q:
A hierarchy chart is composed of which elements?
a. Attributes
b. Processes
c. Entities
d. Nodes
Q:
Which is true of CASE products?
a. Increase productivity
b. Reduce costs
c. Standardize output
d. Both a and c
Q:
Which of the following provides a global view of the information and forms the basis for the physical design of the database?
a. RFPs
b. DFDs
c. ERDs
d. Data dictionary
Q:
ERDs should be developed whether the information system is to be developed in-house or purchased from a vendor. Do you agree? a.
Yes b.
No
Q:
Full documentation of an information system requires completion of which of the following system design tools?
a. Data dictionary
b. DFDs
c. Hierarchy charts
d. All of the above
Q:
Each of the following is included in an ERD EXCEPT
a. Attributes.
b. Entities.
c. Processes.
d. Relationships.
Q:
In an MPI, one physician may have several patient entries. What is the linkage in the database called between the physician and each of his or her patients?
a. System integration
b. System interface
c. Entity relationship
d. Data notation
Q:
Which of the following for an EHR system would likely appear in the technical requirements section of an RFP?
a. Accept demographic data from the admission-discharge-registration system.
b. The system allows for user-defined product lines.
c. All drug orders are automatically screened for contraindications.
d. The system is menu-driven.
Q:
The Director of HIMS has calculated the break-even point for purchase of a new transcription system to be four years. Is this analysis correct?
a. Yes, because the break-even point does not consider the time it will take for a system to recover its investment costs fully.
b. Yes, because the break-even point calculates the difference between the current system costs and new system costs.
c. No, because the break-even point does not consider the time it will take for a system to recover its investment costs fully.
d. No, because the break-even point does not calculate the difference between current system and new system costs.
Q:
Using the information in the table below, when will payback occur?
To justify the purchase of a new release of information tracking system, Health Information Management Services (HIMS) wants to calculate the new system's payback period. The cost to operate the current system is $25,000 per year. The proposed cost of the new system for the first year is $35,000 with continuing operation costs per year of $15,000. An increase of $10,000 per year in billing is anticipated with the new system because of the addition of a billing component to the release of information tracking functionality. Data are summarized in the following table: Year 1
Year 2
Year 3
Year 4 Current system cost
$25,000
$25,000
$25,000
$25,000 New system cost
$35,000
$15,000
$15,000
$15,000 Yearly difference in cost
-$10,000
+$10,000
+$10,000
+$10,000 Cumulative differences in costs a. First year
b. Second year
c. Third year
d. Fourth year
Q:
One of the system characteristics required for Rocky Mountain's point-of-care system is "generate automatic drug overdue alert." How would this system characteristic be classified?
a. Input design
b. Output design
c. Processing design
d. File and database design
Q:
In the logical description design, which of the following would be an output description?
a. Highlight drug contraindications in color on the terminal display.
b. Perform data consistency checks on an order entry system.
c. Automatically calculate IV fluid usage.
d. Update patient records in real time.
Q:
Which of the following would be considered a leading or biased question?
a. How would you rate the effectiveness of your decision-support system: good, average, or poor?
b. Is it your opinion that all information systems should have a graphical user interface?
c. Do you have access to a laser printer?
d. How often does your information system go down?
Q:
Which of the following questions would be considered a double-barreled question in a survey document?
a. Are troubleshooting personnel courteous and knowledgeable?
b. Do you agree troubleshooting personnel are discourteous?
c. Do troubleshooting personnel respond in a timely manner?
d. Are troubleshooting personnel highly skilled?
Q:
Which of the following is an attribute for an MPI entry?
a. Patient number
b. Patient record
c. Admission dates
d. Both a and c
Q:
Which of the following questions would be considered a structured question in an interview process?
a. Which of the following word processing software do you use?
b. What do you consider to be the most critical problems with your current system?
c. What features in a computer system are most important to support your daily work tasks?
d. What are your three or four most important tasks?
Q:
All of the following are true about the RFP process EXCEPT
a. Because the RFP is so complete, vendor demonstrations and site visits are usually not necessary.
b. Because system evaluation is required, end-users should be included.
c. Because review of responses to RFPs can be time-consuming, RFPs are only sent to a few vendors.
d. Because the RFP may be used as part of the system contract, it should be complete and accurate.
Q:
Which of the following is true regarding the development of an RFP?
a. Unlike the systems development life cycle, a thorough systems analysis is not required.
b. The RFP process is the preferred method for development of an information system by in-house personnel.
c. Like the systems development life cycle, a thorough systems analysis is required.
d. Lie the systems development life cycle, detailed computer codes must be developed by the facility.
Q:
Which of the following best describes an RFP?
a. A process that describes the systems development life cycle
b. A document that details required system functionality
c. A document developed by a vendor explaining the functionality of a vendor product
d. A process for customizing an information system
Q:
Which of the following best describes cost-effectiveness evaluation?
a. Attempts to evaluate beneficial consequences in nonmonetary terms
b. Determines the costs to operate a current system
c. Assigns dollar values to the costs and benefits of a system
d. Determines whether a system will fully recover its costs
Q:
Which of the following most accurately describes break-even analysis?
a. Determines costs to operate the current system are comparable to those to operate a proposed system
b. Determines whether a new system will fully recover its investment costs before the end of its life cycle
c. Determines how much a system costs in relation to future dollars
d. Determines interest rates and return on investment
Q:
Which of the following is the simplest CBA technique?
a. Break-even analysis
b. Payback period
c. Discounted payback period
d. Benefits analysis
Q:
Each of the following is considered a CBA technique EXCEPT
a. Break-even analysis.
b. Payback.
c. Discounted payback period.
d. Benefits realization.
Q:
Which of the following describes the process of installing and starting up a system in all organization units at the same time?
a. Gradual phase-in by unit
b. Gradual rollout by unit
c. Abrupt changeover
d. Gradual changeover
Q:
Which of the following system startup approaches is most risky?
a. Gradual phase-in of each application in selected organization units
b. Gradual phase-in of all applications across the organization
c. Abrupt changeover from one system to another
d. Total phase-in of all applications in one unit at a time
Q:
Which of the following is one of the most underestimated tasks in the system implementation process?
a. User preparation
b. Site preparation
c. System testing
d. System conversion
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about systems development?
a. Prototyping and the traditional systems development process should not be used together.
b. If given a choice, the traditional systems development life cycle should be chosen over prototyping.
c. Prototyping usually takes more time for product development than the traditional systems development life cycle.
d. Prototyping and the traditional systems life cycle development can be used together.
Q:
All of the following support principles of good interface design EXCEPT
a. Systems response to user commands should be quick.
b. Screens should be layered or windowed.
c. Navigation tools should be provided.
d. Display screens should have limited blank space.
Q:
Which of the following is a true statement about the systems analysis document?
a. Brings together results from various investigative strategies
b. Details the programming code for a new system
c. Details the logical design of a system
d. Details the physical design of a system