Q&A Hero

Q: What trauma triage guidelines did the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) release in order to guide the most injured patients into trauma centers? A) Teamwork, timing, and transport B) Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury C) Determining patient priority, amount of time on-scene, and hospital transport decision D) Lights, sirens, and diesel

Q: What are some of the most important critical decisions an EMT can make on the scene of a serious trauma? A) Determining patient priority, amount of time on-scene, and hospital transport decision B) Whether to await ALS care on-scene or begin BLS transport C) Load and go versus stay and play D) Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury

Q: Based on the following presentations of patient injuries, which one would be considered MOST severe, justifying immediate transportation to a trauma center? A) Midline cervical spine pain B) Open (compound) midshaft femur fracture C) Closed head injury D) Flail chest

Q: You respond to a 22-year-old male patient who fell while exiting the local bar. Bystanders state he drank at least 10 beers and could not keep his balance. Physical exam reveals that the patient is alert to verbal stimuli only. He has a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3, 4, 6; slurred speech; and an obvious scalp laceration to the back of his head. He is refusing treatment and transport and wants his friends to drive him home. The nearest hospital is 5 minutes away, a Level II Trauma Center is 10 minutes away, and a Level I Full Service Trauma Center is 30 minutes away. Which of these is the most appropriate facility for the patient? A) The nearest community facility B) Level I Trauma Center C) Level II Trauma Center D) Nowhere, since the patient is an adult and refusing; as such, you cannot take him

Q: What are three elements of successful trauma care that field practitioners can use which will ultimately translate into greater rates of survival? A) Teamwork, timing, and transport B) Ground ambulances, air helicopters, and trauma centers C) Lights, sirens, and diesel D) Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury

Q: You are the first on the scene of a two-car vehicle collision. Your patient is a front passenger who is unresponsive inside the vehicle. The patient is trapped and the vehicle is on fire. The fire department is still en route. You should: A) perform an emergency move. B) perform an urgent move. C) use your fire extinguisher to put out the fire. D) have the fire department rescue the patient.

Q: Which one of the following is NOT a key decision for the EMT when faced with a multisystem or multiple trauma patient? A) Should I transport to a trauma center? B) Do I need to minimize on-scene time? C) Should I allow police to interview the patient on-scene? D) Is the patient seriously injured?

Q: You are dispatched to a multiple vehicle collision on a busy interstate highway. Your crew identifies a critical patient entrapped in a small sedan with significant intrusion into the occupant area on the front and left side. One of your crew members, dressed in fully protective gear, volunteers to enter the vehicle to begin assessment and treatment. Given that access to the patient is limited, you tell him to concentrate on assessing which of the following parts of the patient's body? A) Head, posterior torso, and lower extremities B) Head, chest, and upper extremities C) Torso, pelvis, and lower extremities D) Head, chest, and torso

Q: Multiple trauma and multisystem trauma patients are situations in which the EMT is expected to perform which of the following? A) Anticipate and treat problems with a greater level of complexity than usual. B) Provide the best quality care possible, including definitive care on-scene. C) Respond above and beyond the call of duty. D) Practice outside the scope of practice in order to provide the greatest good.

Q: What is the most important intervention an EMT can perform for an unstable multisystem trauma patient? A) Oxygen B) Airway management C) Cervical spine precautions D) Rapid transport

Q: What is the definition of multisystem trauma? A) Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system B) Trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury C) A trauma in which there are multiple casualties D) A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies

Q: What is the definition of multiple trauma? A) A trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury. B) A trauma in which there are multiple casualties. C) A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies. D) Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system.

Q: Your patient is a 16-year-old male who ran his truck off of the road and into a ditch. He was driving just fast enough to cause the air bag to deploy when he hit the ditch. He is complaining of some neck and shoulder pain. His vital signs are respirations 20, pulse 110, blood pressure 116/80, and pupils equal and reactive. How should you manage this patient? A) Perform a rapid extrication and spinal immobilize him on a long spine board. B) Use a short spine board or vest device, then transfer him to a long spine board. C) Apply a cervical collar, and then rotate him to a long spine board. D) Place him on oxygen, and then slowly move him to the stretcher.

Q: You are called for a young man who was diving head first off a dock into a lake. Bystanders say he struck his head on the bottom because the water was too shallow. They said he was not breathing when they pulled him from the water and they have been performing rescue breathing for him. He is awake, but he is unable to breathe on his own. What type of damage or injury does this indicate? A) Damage to C-3, C-4, or C5 B) Damage to his thoracic spine C) Closed head injury D) Open head injury

Q: Your patient has been injured by a fall down a flight of steps. He is alert and oriented but complains of back and neck pain. You spinal immobilize him on a long spine board with a cervical collar on his neck as a precaution because you know that the: A) cervical spine is the most vulnerable part of the spine. B) lumbar area is rarely injured due to the rib support. C) thoracic spine is especially vulnerable to injury. D) coccyx is easily dislocated.

Q: Your 38-year-old male patient has been injured in an assault. He has several facial lacerations and a large knot on his head. Bystanders say that he was thrown over a large table and landed on his head and shoulder. As part of your scene size-up and primary assessment, you should: A) wait for ALS to treat the patient. B) immobilize his cervical spine. C) splint any other bone or joint injuries. D) complete an initial set of vital signs.

Q: Which of the following may be a hazard of an improperly fitting cervical collar? A) Allows hyperextension of the neck B) Prevents the patient from opening his mouth C) Allows flexion of the neck D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following describes the proper position of the patient's head for spinal immobilization? A) Chin tilted upward for airway maintenance B) Neutral, in-line "eyes forward" position C) Stabilized in position found D) The "sniffing" position

Q: At which point may manual stabilization of the cervical spine be terminated? A) Only when directed to do so by medical control B) When the patient is secured to a long backboard C) After a short immobilization device has been applied D) After a cervical collar has been applied

Q: Which of the following measures is NOT appropriate for a patient with a significant isolated head injury? A) Treat for shock by elevating the foot of the backboard. B) Keep the patient from becoming overheated. C) Try to keep the patient from being agitated. D) Control bleeding from head wounds.

Q: In which of the following circumstances should a helmet be removed? A) If you suspect a skull fracture and need to palpate the head B) If you want to place a nasal cannula on the patient but cannot because his ears are covered by the helmet C) If the helmet interferes with airway management D) If the helmet fits so snugly that you cannot inspect the ears for the presence of blood or fluid

Q: Your patient was ejected from his motorcycle when he struck a deer late at night on a deserted highway. He is drowsy and unable to communicate clearly. As you immobilize him on the long spine board, you find that you are unable to obtain neutral alignment of his spine due to the large helmet he has on. You should: A) pad under his shoulders to straighten his neck. B) tip his head back to gain neutral alignment. C) place towels on either side of the helmet to stabilize it. D) remove the helmet to better manage proper alignment.

Q: What is the first step in a rapid takedown of a standing patient ? A) Applying a properly sized cervical collar B) Positioning a long spine board behind the patient C) Applying oxygen D) Manually stabilize the patient's head and neck

Q: Which of the following is the correct sequence for securing the straps on a long spine board? A) Legs, torso, head B) Head, torso, legs C) Torso, legs, head D) Head, legs, torso

Q: When log-rolling a patient with a suspected spinal injury, which of the following EMTs directs the move? A) EMT at the head of the patient B) EMT with the highest level of training C) EMT with the most seniority D) EMT at the heaviest portion of the patient

Q: Your patient is pregnant at 20 weeks' gestation and has been thrown from a horse. She is complaining of back pain. Which of the following is the correct procedure for immobilizing her spine? A) Use a short immobilization device and transport the patient in a sitting position. B) Place the patient supine on the backboard. C) Place the patient on her left side on the backboard. D) Place the patient supine on the backboard, then put a pillow under the right side of the backboard.

Q: Your patient is a 30-year-old female involved in a motorcycle crash. She was not wearing a helmet and struck her head on the pavement. She is unresponsive and has a blood pressure of 152/110 mmHg. Her pulse is 60 beats per minute and respirations are 8 breaths per minute and shallow. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention? A) Elevate the legs. B) Provide cervical spine immobilization. C) Hyperventilate at a rate of 24 breaths per minute using supplemental oxygen. D) Apply a pressure dressing to her scalp lacerations.

Q: For which of the following patients would the use of a short spine immobilization device be appropriate? A) 52-year-old female who crashed her vehicle into the front of a convenience store and who is awake, oriented, and complaining of neck pain B) Unresponsive driver who was found in the driver's seat of a pickup truck that crashed into a tree C) 15-year-old male who struck a curb with his motorized scooter and flipped over the handlebars D) 77-year-old female who fell down a flight of stairs and is in an awkward position lying on her side on the landing

Q: When using a short spine immobilization device, which part of the body is secured last? A) Arms B) Torso C) Head D) Legs

Q: Your patient is a 38-year-old male driver of a vehicle that left the roadway and struck a bus stop shelter and a tree. He is conscious and alert, he has some abrasions on his forehead, his skin is warm and dry, and he has a strong radial pulse and no difficulty breathing. Which of the following descriptions represents the MOST appropriate way for removing the patient from the vehicle? A) Apply a cervical collar and perform rapid extrication onto a long backboard. B) Have the patient stand up and then do a "standing take-down" onto a long backboard. C) Place the backboard on the stretcher and have the patient stand, turn, and lie down on the backboard while you maintain manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine. D) Apply a cervical collar and short spine immobilization device before removing to a long backboard.

Q: Which of the following pieces of equipment is acceptable for use in the prehospital stabilization of suspected cervical spine injuries?A) Soft cervical collarsB) Five-pound sand bagsC) Rigid cervical collarsD) 2- 4- wood cribbing

Q: Which of the following may result from the application of a cervical collar that is too large for the patient? A) Rotation of the head and neck B) Hyperflexion of the neck C) Hyperextension of the neck D) Excessive lateral movement of the mandible

Q: Your patient has a suspected cervical spine injury from falling from a rope swing. His vital signs are pulse 62, respirations 20, and blood pressure 90/56. He has no feeling below his mid-chest area but is able to breathe on his own. You should suspect: A) cardiogenic shock. B) hypovolemic shock. C) neurogenic shock. D) psychogenic shock.

Q: Which of the following is the underlying cause of neurogenic shock? A) Blood loss from damaged spinal blood vessels B) Failure of the heart to adequately pump blood C) Extreme emotional response to paralysis D) Dilation of blood vessels

Q: Which of the following is NOT a common field finding in spinal injuries? A) Deformity B) Impaired breathing C) Tenderness D) Pain

Q: In most cases, which of the following is the correct way to provide initial management of a suspected cervical spine injury? A) Hold the patient's head still in a neutral, "eyes forward" position. B) Gently apply pressure to the top of the patient's head. C) Maintain the patient's head and neck in the position they are found. D) Provide approximately 15 pounds of upward cervical traction.

Q: You are treating a 35-year-old male patient that has been involved in a motorcycle incident. The patient is unresponsive with a blood pressure of 60/40, a pulse of 66 beats per minute, and respirations of 18 breaths per minute. The patient's presentation is most likely caused by which of the following? A) Cardiogenic shock B) Septic shock C) Increased intracranial pressure D) Neurogenic shock

Q: A 17-year-old girl was injured when her car was struck from behind while she was stopped at a red light. She is complaining of a headache with neck and back pain. You suspect she has sustained a(n): A) distraction injury. B) compression fracture. C) extension injury. D) whiplash injury.

Q: Your patient is a 10-year-old male whose jacket hood caught on a branch as he jumped out of a tree. He was momentarily suspended about 12 inches off the ground but was immediately lowered to the ground by his brothers. Which of the following injuries should you suspect? A) Cervical spine injury B) Lumbar spine injury C) Soft-tissue injury of the neck only D) Thoracic spine injury

Q: Which of the following observations may the EMT use to rule out a spinal injury in a trauma patient? A) Patient is able to walk at the scene. B) There is a lack of mechanism of injury. C) There is a lack of numbness and paralysis of the extremities. D) Patient denies pain in his spine.

Q: Your patient has had his throat slashed during a robbery attempt. You are concerned since it is apparent that the vessels in his neck have been lacerated. A breach in which of the following vessels would be most likely to lead to an air embolism? A) Capillaries B) Arterioles C) Arteries D) Veins

Q: When a patient has a serious open wound to the neck, you are concerned about the possibility of an air embolism. The reason an air embolism can occur is because of: A) the higher pressure in the vessels of the neck. B) the negative pressure in the chest. C) vessel pressure that is lower than atmospheric pressure. D) damage to the trachea.

Q: Your patient has sustained a serious laceration to his neck. He appears to have lost a lot of blood and you are considering how you will control the bleeding. Your primary treatment should be to place a(n): A) pressure dressing. B) occlusive dressing. C) dry, sterile dressing. D) bulky dressing.

Q: While assessing a patient with a laceration to the neck, the EMT must be aware that which of the following conditions may develop? A) Deep vein thrombosis B) Air embolus C) Air thrombosis D) Deep vein embolus

Q: You are en route to the trauma center with a patient who was injured when he was thrown from a horse. You suspect multiple trauma injuries including a closed head injury. You will monitor his mental status using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) per your protocols. Which of the following will you check? A) Eye-opening, motor response, and verbal response B) Motor response, verbal response, and attentiveness C) Speech patterns, motor patterns, and mental status D) Verbal responses, motor skills, and mental status

Q: Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a neurological assessment that looks at which of the following? A) Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response B) Grip strength, verbal response, and eye opening C) Verbal response, motor response, and AVPU D) Motor response, arm movement, and speech

Q: Which of the following is NOT used to calculate a patient's GCS? A) Eye movement B) Verbal response C) Work of breathing D) Motor response

Q: When should the EMT calculate a GCS with a patient who suffered a fall of 20 feet from his apartment building? A) At the hospital before writing the care report B) En route to the hospital C) As he approaches the patient D) Before departing from the scene

Q: What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of your adult male patient who has fallen off a horse, has his eyes open, can follow your commands to squeeze his hands, but is confused about what happened and his whereabouts? A) 12 B) 14 C) 15 D) 13

Q: Your patient is a 27-year-old male who has been involved in a motorcycle collision in which he was not wearing a helmet. He does not respond when you speak to him, but he makes incomprehensible sounds when you press your knuckles on his sternum. Which of the following BEST describes his level of consciousness? A) Alert B) Verbal C) Painful D) Unresponsive

Q: You are called for a man who is not acting right. His wife says he was outside working in the garden but didn't come in for lunch when he was called. She went to check on him and found him sitting next to a stump, confused. You assessment shows a pulse rate of 58, blood pressure of 186/82, respirations of 16, and one of his pupils is dilated. You are unable to detect any signs of trauma and you don't see any obvious indication that he has fallen. You should suspect a(n): A) closed head injury. B) open head injury. C) insecticide poisoning. D) nontraumatic brain injury.

Q: A young female was injured in an automobile wreck, striking her head on the windshield. She is unconscious and her breathing is irregular. She is bleeding from a scalp wound, but your assessment shows that her cranium is intact. Her vital signs are pulse 68, blood pressure 148/90, and her pupils are unequal. You should suspect a(n): A) concussion. B) closed head injury. C) contusion. D) open head injury.

Q: Your patient is a 16-year-old centerfielder on his high school baseball team. He was injured when he and the left fielder collided trying to catch a fly ball. He is disoriented and is unable to tell you what happened. His vital signs are pulse 88, blood pressure 132/86, respiratory rate 16, and pupils equal. As you assess his head, you do not see any cuts or bleeding, but you feel a spongy, depressed area over his left ear. You should suspect a(n): A) closed head injury. B) skull injury. C) open head injury. D) direct injury.

Q: You respond to a patient who was hit in the face with a chair. Upon arrival, you notice a patient leaning in the corner and bleeding profusely from the mouth and nose. Your first action should be which of the following? A) Assure scene safety. B) Suction the airway and have the patient lean back. C) Take cervical spine precautions. D) Place the patient on a nonrebreather mask (NRB) at 15 lpm.

Q: Your patient is a 16-year-old male who was ejected from an all-terrain vehicle and struck his head on a large rock. He was not wearing a helmet. He is unresponsive with shallow, irregular respirations; a blood pressure of 170/110 mmHg; and a heart rate of 50 beats per minute. Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate? A) Insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) and ventilate via bag-valve mask (BVM) at 30 breaths per minute. B) Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and give oxygen by nonrebreather mask (NRB) at 15 lpm. C) Insert an oropharyngeal airway and give oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 10 lpm. D) Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate via bag-valve mask at 20 breaths per minute.

Q: A 44-year-old male involved in a collision at 50 mph struck the windshield of his vehicle with his face. Which of the following injuries should you prepare to treat? A) Cervical spine trauma B) Brain injury C) Airway obstruction D) All of the above

Q: Your patient is a 30-year-old construction worker who fell from scaffolding and has been impaled through the right orbit by a 36-inch piece of concrete reinforcement bar. The patient responds to verbal stimuli and appears to have multiple other injuries. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A) Remove the reinforcement bar and pack the orbit with sterile moist dressings to keep the scene time under 10 minutes. B) Transport with the reinforcement bar in place to prevent delay at the scene. C) Test the reinforcement bar for stability and remove it only if it is loose enough to be easily pulled from the wound. D) Firmly stabilize the reinforcement bar in place so that the rescue crew can cut it short.

Q: A 36-year-old male was accidentally shot with a nail gun into the head. You see the nail, which protrudes about 2 to 3 centimeters from the skull, when you visualize the injury site. Under which of the following circumstances should you remove the nail from the injury site? A) Bleeding from the patient's wound is minimal. B) The patient develops excessive intracranial pressure (ICP). C) The patient begins to complain of shortness of breath. D) None of the above

Q: Hyperventilation of a patient with a severe brain injury due to an impaled object means that bag-valve-mask ventilations are provided at a rate of ________ per minute. A) 20 B) 24 C) 30 D) 34

Q: Your patient is a 21-year-old male who slid head-first down a water slide at his fraternity house and impacted the bales of straw that his fraternity brothers had erected as a barrier to keep participants from sliding onto the adjacent highway. The patient is conscious and complaining of neck pain. Which of the following should be included in your assessment? A) If the patient has no numbness or tingling, ask him to stand and try to walk. B) Apply painful stimuli to his extremities, starting distally and moving closer and closer to the body. C) Ask the patient to cautiously touch his chin to his chest to check for range of motion. D) Ask the patient to grasp and squeeze your hands.

Q: You are treating an unresponsive homeless patient found in an alley. During your assessment you notice bruising behind both ears, which is known as which of the following? A) Fatigue signs B) Warrior's signs C) Soldier's signs D) Battle's signs

Q: Of the following patients, which injury is the highest priority to receive bag-valve-mask ventilations? A) 25-year-old female victim of battery who is awake but complains of a headache and has bloody fluid draining from her nose and left ear B) 15-year-old female who was ejected from a vehicle, struck her head on a tree, and displays decerebrate movements in response to painful stimuli C) 25-year-old male who regained consciousness one or two minutes after being struck on the head by a baseball bat and is now asking repetitive questions D) 70-year-old male who struck his head when he fell in the parking lot, has a large laceration on his forehead, and is disoriented

Q: Which of the following signs is LEAST likely to indicate a traumatic brain injury? A) Low blood pressure B) Irregular breathing pattern C) Vomiting D) Irrational behavior

Q: Which of the following causes worsening of the damage in a brain injury? A) Allowing seepage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ears or nose B) Administration of 100% oxygen C) Failure to keep the patient awake and talking D) Improper management of airway and ventilation

Q: Which of the following is a potential complication of hyperventilating a patient with a brain injury? A) Increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood B) Increasing blood flow to the brain C) Decreasing blood flow to the brain D) Decreasing the patient's blood pressure

Q: Your patient has been involved in a motor vehicle collision. He has a contusion on his forehead, is confused, and is bleeding from his nose. His heart rate is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 80/58 mmHg, respirations are 20 breaths per minute, and his skin is cool and clammy. Which of the following sets of injuries should you suspect? A) Head injury, spine injury, and internal bleeding B) Head injury C) Head injury and spine injury D) Head injury and internal bleeding

Q: Which of the following is a sign of possible brain injury? A) Deep laceration of the scalp B) Projectile vomiting C) Irregular breathing pattern D) All of the above

Q: You are treating a 54-year-old female patient who was involved in a domestic dispute; you notice an abrasion to the side of her head. The patient is unresponsive with a blood pressure of 200/110, a pulse of 60 beats per minute, and slightly irregular breathing. The patient's presentation is most likely caused by which of the following? A) Increased intracranial pressure B) Coup-contrecoup injury C) Closed head injury D) Increased arterial pressure

Q: Your patient is a 35-year-old woman who was driving a minivan that was struck in the driver's side door by another vehicle. You notice that when you apply pressure to her sternum with your knuckles she extends her legs and flexes her arms and wrists. When giving your radio report, which of the following terms should you use to describe this? A) Tonic-clonic activity B) Posturing C) Cushing's reflex D) Battle's sign

Q: When blood accumulates between the brain and the dura mater, what is the result? A) Epidural contusion B) Subdural contusion C) Epidural hematoma D) Subdural hematoma

Q: Which of the following statements concerning a concussion is true? A) It is a bruising of the brain tissue. B) The patient may not have any symptoms of the injury. C) It is accompanied by recurrent episodes of unconsciousness. D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is classified as an open head injury? A) Contusion without a skull fracture B) Laceration with a skull fracture C) Laceration without a skull fracture D) Both A and B

Q: Which of the following injuries is considered an indirect brain injury? A) Cerebral laceration B) Depressed skull fracture with cerebral penetration by bone fragments C) Gunshot wound to the head D) Concussion

Q: A fracture of which of the following bones would be considered a skull fracture? A) Temporal bone B) Nasal bones C) Maxilla D) Any of the above

Q: As pressure within the cranium increases, which of the following is the result? A) Decreased blood pressure, decreased pulse B) Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse C) Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse D) Increased blood pressure, increased pulse

Q: A 65-year-old man was doing some work on his roof when he lost his footing and fell to the ground, approximately 15 feet. He is unconscious but his respirations are normal. You note an obviously angulated left leg. You are more concerned about a possible head injury. Which of the following would indicate a possible head injury? A) Increased blood pressure B) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of 15 C) Constricted pupils D) Increased pulse rate

Q: How many cervical vertebrae are there? A) 7 B) 12 C) 5 D) 4

Q: Which of the following is the opening at the base of the skull? A) Foramen magnum B) Orbits C) Spinous process D) Temporomandibular joint

Q: Which portions of the spine are the most vulnerable to injury? A) Thoracic and lumbar B) Cervical and lumbar C) Cervical and sacra D) Thoracic and sacra

Q: To which of the following sections of the spine are the ribs attached? A) Thoracic B) Sacral C) Cervical D) Lumbar