Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following is controlled by the left side of the brain? A) Sensation in the left arm B) Sensation of the right leg C) Movement of both lower extremities D) Movement of the left arm

Q: Which of the following is a function of the autonomic nervous system? A) Speaking B) Running or walking C) Constriction of blood vessels D) Solving complex math problems

Q: Which of the following systems includes the pairs of nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord between each pair of vertebrae? A) Peripheral nervous system B) Central nervous system C) Autonomic nervous system D) All of the above

Q: Messages from the body to the brain are carried by which of the following types of nerves? A) Sensory B) Skeletal C) Motor D) Cranial

Q: Which of the following is defined as an area of the body surface that is innervated by a single spinal nerve? A) Spinous process B) Transverse process C) Malar D) Dermatome

Q: The bony bumps you feel along the center of a person's back are known as which of the following? A) Vertebrae B) Foramen magnum C) Spinous process D) Transverse processes

Q: What is another name for the zygomatic bone? A) Malar B) Maxillae C) Temporal D) Mandible

Q: The maxillae form which of the following structures? A) Lower jaw B) Upper jaw C) Cheek bones D) Forehead

Q: A pillow is frequently used to splint an ankle or foot injury. It is effective, rapid, and can be used for most patients. Its main weakness is: A) it requires three people to apply. B) you might not have a pillow on your ambulance. C) you are not immobilizing the knee and the joint adjacent to the ankle. D) it is hard to access distal pulses after application.

Q: Your patient is a 37-year-old man who tripped while walking down a hill and now has a painful, deformed right leg. Your assessment reveals that the foot is cold and mottled in appearance. You cannot detect a pulse in the foot or ankle. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A) Explain to the patient that, because you cannot detect circulation in his foot, his leg will most likely have to be amputated above the site of the injury. B) Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting. C) Splint the leg in the position in which it was found and transport without delay. D) Transport rapidly to the nearest trauma center.

Q: Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning a pelvic wrap? A) It can be used if the pelvis shows deformity. B) It can be used if the pelvis shows instability. C) It should not be used unless the patient shows signs of shock. D) You can consider its use based on mechanism of injury (MOI).

Q: Blood at the meatus of the penis (opening of the urethra) is a sign of: A) spinal fracture or injury. B) pelvic trauma/fracture. C) pelvic dislocation syndrome. D) priapism.

Q: The PASG may be used as a splinting device for patients with which of the following suspected injuries? A) Hip dislocation B) Compression fracture of the lumbar or sacral spine C) Fractured pelvis D) None of the above

Q: A suspected musculoskeletal injury of the shoulder is BEST managed by which of the following techniques? A) Placing the arm in a sling and using a triangular bandage to secure it to the body B) Using an upper extremity traction splint C) Placing two long padded board splints on either side of the extremity, extending from the shoulder to the wrist D) Using a long-arm air splint

Q: Your patient is a 3-year-old girl who is unable to move her elbow after her mother picked her up by the forearm. Proper splinting of this injury would be to immobilize from the ________ to the ________. A) wrist; elbow B) wrist; shoulder C) forearm; humerus D) fingertips; shoulder

Q: Which of the following complications may arise from properly splinting an injured extremity? A) Converting a closed fracture to an open one B) Compromising circulation to the extremity C) Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury D) All of the above

Q: You are treating a 16-year-old skateboarder who has fallen at the skate park. She has an angulated left forearm that she has in a guarded position. When do you splint this injury? A) En route to the hospital B) Immediately C) During the primary exam D) During the secondary exam

Q: A new EMT who is treating a suspected femur injury asks his partner, "How much traction should I pull?" The partner's BEST reply is which of the following? A) No traction splint applied in the field pulls true traction; they must pull 20 pounds of countertraction. B) Pull enough traction to give the patient some relief from the pain. C) The amount of traction applied should be roughly 10% of the patient's body weight and not exceed 15 pounds. D) The amount of traction applied should be 15 pounds.

Q: Your patient is an 11-year-old male who has a swollen, painful, and angulated right lower arm after falling from his bicycle onto his hands. Which of the following should be considered in the immobilization of his injured extremity? A) Check pulse, movement, and sensation distal to the injury before and after splinting. B) Immobilize from the shoulder to the wrist. C) Use an upper extremity traction splint. D) Do not attempt to realign the extremity before splinting.

Q: Your patient is a 20-year-old college student who has fallen from a third-level balcony onto a wooden deck below. The patient responds to verbal stimuli, is pale in color with moist skin, and has a very obvious deformity with protruding bone ends of his right forearm. Which of the following is the BEST sequence of intervention for this patient? A) Provide manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant hemorrhage; apply high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma exam; immobilize to a long backboard; transport; and splint the extremity en route if time and resources allow. B) Open the airway; assess breathing; check the carotid pulse; splint the forearm injury; immobilize the patient to a long backboard; apply high-concentration oxygen; and transport. C) Provide immediate manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine; apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask; perform a focused history and assessment; apply the cervical collar; apply a padded board splint, sling, and swathe to the forearm injury; and transport. D) Provide manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant hemorrhage; apply high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma exam; immobilize to a long backboard; and check with medical control about the need to splint the forearm injury prior to transport.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of splinting an injury to bones and connective tissues? A) It prevents neurological damage due to movement of bone ends or fragments. B) It may prevent a closed injury from becoming an open injury. C) It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling. D) It reduces pain.

Q: There are general rules that apply to all types of splinting. Which of the following is NOT a general rule of splinting? A) In order to avoid loss of use of a limb, it is important to splint before moving, even if the patient is unstable. B) Expose the injury. C) Assess distal CSM. D) Align long-bone injuries to anatomical position.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a principle of splinting that must be considered by the EMT? A) Immobilize the site of an extremity injury from the joint above it to the joint below it. B) Splint an isolated extremity injury before moving the patient to the stretcher. C) Check the distal neurovascular function before and after splinting. D) Gently replace protruding bone ends back beneath the skin to prevent further contamination.

Q: A painter falls from his ladder and tells you he has dislocated his shoulder again. When you attempt to splint the shoulder, it "pops back into place." What should your next step be? A) Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient. B) Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient. C) Check distal CSM, apply a traction splint, and transport the patient. D) Continue splinting and report the popping sound to the triage nurse when you arrive at the hospital.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of a traction splint? A) Pelvis, hip, or knee injury B) Avulsion or partial amputation where traction could separate the extremity C) Injury to the lower third of the leg that would interfere with the ankle hitch D) Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femur

Q: Your patient is a 28-year-old male who was ejected from his motorcycle after striking a parked vehicle. He has multiple deformities to his upper and lower extremities on both sides. Which of the following would be the BEST way to immobilize this patient's extremities prior to transport? A) Use traction splints for the lower extremities and allow the upper extremities to be immobilized by the long backboard. B) Use padded board splints for the upper extremities and PASG for the lower extremities. C) Use moldable splints for the upper and lower extremities, padding any voids to fully stabilize the fractures. D) Immobilize the patient to a long backboard without splinting the extremities individually.

Q: Your patient is a 60-year-old woman who stepped off a curb and injured her ankle. Your exam shows that her left ankle is swollen and painful. Which of the following should you do? A) Explain to the patient that her ankle is fractured and you must splint her ankle to prevent further injury and reduce pain. B) Explain to the patient that you cannot tell if her ankle is sprained or fractured until she is X-rayed at the emergency department, then splint the ankle. C) Transport the patient immediately to a trauma center, applying high-concentration oxygen en route. D) Explain to the patient that her ankle is sprained and transport her with her ankle elevated on a pillow and a cold pack applied to the injury.

Q: What is a primary problem when treating musculoskeletal injuries? A) Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb. B) All musculoskeletal injuries are life threatening due to the bone bleeding, leading to hypoperfusion. C) Splints do not adequately fit the patient's extremities and must be modified with padding to ensure immobilization. D) Most musculoskeletal injuries are simply splinted and not a life threat to the patient.

Q: A method of assessing compromise to an extremity when a musculoskeletal injury is suspected is to learn and follow the six Ps. Which of the items below is NOT one of the six Ps? A) Pain B) Pallor C) Paresthesia D) Parenthesis

Q: One of the more serious conditions that EMTs are confronted with would occur as follows: A fracture or crush injury causes bleeding and swelling within the extremity. Pressure and swelling caused by the bleeding within the muscle compartment become so great that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against the pressure. Cellular damage occurs and causes additional swelling. Blood flow to the area is lost. The limb itself may be lost if the pressure is not relieved. What is this condition called? A) Compartment syndrome B) Crushing syndrome C) Perfusing syndrome D) Fracture syndrome

Q: When the EMT is assessing compromise to an extremity, perhaps due to an orthopedic injury, the EMT should initially check what "six Ps"? A) Pain, pallor, position, pulses, placement, and pressure B) Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, placement, and pressure C) Pain, pallor, position, pulses, placement, and pad D) Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, paralysis, and pressure

Q: Which of the following is appropriate in the examination of a painful, swollen extremity of a conscious patient? A) Gently attempting to flex the mid-portion of the bone to check for angulation B) Asking the patient to see if he can bear weight on the extremity C) Comparing the injured side to the uninjured side D) Seeing if you can elicit crepitus on palpation

Q: Which of the following BEST describes the compartment syndrome? A) A serious condition caused by the amount of equipment that must be carried in the ambulance compartments B) A life-threatening condition caused by trapping the blood flow by a fracture when the bone ends cut the blood vessels C) A serious condition caused by the bleeding and swelling from a fracture or crush injury that becomes so strong that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against that pressure D) A non-life-threatening condition caused by orthopedic injuries in which blood flow is stopped when the bone ends compress the blood vessels

Q: A traction splint may be used on which of the following musculoskeletal injuries? A) Possible fracture of the cervical spine B) Possible fracture of the femur C) Suspected multiple fractures of the femur, tibia, and fibula D) Possible fracture of the humerus

Q: Which of the following is a complication of bone fractures? A) Nerve damage B) Swelling C) Hemorrhage D) All of the above

Q: Distinguishing between a knee dislocation and a patella dislocation can sometimes be difficult. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A) In a patellar dislocation, the knee will be stuck in flexion but the knee cap will not be displaced. B) In a knee dislocation, the tibia is forced anteriorly or posteriorly in relation to the distal femur. C) You should always check for a distal pulse. D) The lack of a distal pulse could be a signal of a real emergency.

Q: Although it can be difficult to definitively determine hip dislocation in the field, certain signs and symptoms are usually there. Which of the following statements is false? A) An anterior hip dislocation would probably present with the entire lower limb rotated inward and the hip would usually be flexed. B) A posterior hip dislocation presents with a bent knee and the foot may hang loose. C) The posterior hip dislocation is the most common. D) Often there is lack of sensation in the limb.

Q: Which of the following describes an open extremity injury? A) A gunshot wound has penetrated the skin and then fractured the bone. B) Bone ends have lacerated the soft tissues and skin from the inside. C) The joint capsule has been torn open during a dislocation. D) Both A and B

Q: Which of the following is an injury to the musculature of an extremity? A) Luxation B) Strain C) Fracture D) Sprain

Q: Which one of the following statements is NOT true concerning a knee injury? A) Fractures can occur to the proximal femur. B) Fractures can occur to the proximal tibia and fibula. C) Fractures can occur to the patella. D) There could be pain and tenderness.

Q: Which of the following statements is NOT true? A) A fracture is any break in a bone. B) A comminuted break is when a bone is broken in only one place. C) A greenstick break is an incomplete break in a bone. D) An angulated break is when the broken bone is bent at an angle.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of musculoskeletal injury? A) Direct force B) Indirect force C) Twisting or rotational forces D) Extensive force

Q: Your patient is a 70-year-old male whose tractor rolled over onto him. Your assessment makes you suspicious that the patient has a fractured pelvis. Which of the following complications should you anticipate? A) Shock B) Damage to internal organs C) Damage to the nerves of the lower extremities D) All of the above

Q: Your patient is a 12-year-old female who fell onto her outstretched hands while rollerblading. She has a deformity of her forearm, about 2 inches proximal to her wrist. This injury is a result of which of the following mechanisms? A) Direct force B) Indirect force C) Sudden acceleration D) Twisting motion

Q: Which one of the following statements is NOT true? A) Cartilage is connective tissue that covers the outside of the bone end and acts as a surface for articulation. B) Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles. C) Ligaments are connective tissues that connect bone to bone. D) Muscles are the tissues or fibers that cause movement of body parts or organs.

Q: The strong white fibrous material called the periosteum: A) covers the bones. B) protects the perineum. C) surrounds the heart. D) surrounds the abdominal cavity.

Q: Which of the following bones is found in the chest? A) Tarsals B) Ilium C) Sternum D) Metacarpals

Q: Where could you find the phalange bones? A) Upper extremities B) Lower extremities C) Skull and neck D) Hands and feet

Q: The part of the skeleton that is made up from the skull and spinal column is called the: A) appendicular skeleton. B) boney skeleton. C) axial skeleton. D) torso.

Q: Which one of the following definitions is NOT true? A) A sprain is the stretching and tearing of ligaments. B) Tendons connect muscles to ligaments. C) Another name for manual traction is tension. D) Joints are places where bones articulate.

Q: The sound or feeling of the ends of broken bones rubbing together is called: A) crepitus. B) krepitus. C) crapilation. D) breakilation.

Q: Which of the following allows for smooth movement of bone surfaces against one another at joints? A) Smooth muscle B) Ligaments C) Peritoneum D) Cartilage

Q: Which of the following structures connect bone ends, making joints more stable? A) Ligaments B) Cartilage C) Tendons D) Periosteum

Q: Your patient is a 17-year-old male baseball player found pulseless and apneic after being struck in the chest by a baseball 6 minutes ago. He is surrounded by other players and staff but no one is providing care. You should: A) elevate the patient's legs. B) attach the AED and analyze. C) begin chest compressions. D) place him on a backboard.

Q: A teenage male has fallen onto a railing while skateboarding. He complains of right-sided chest pain and moderate dyspnea. Exposure of the chest reveals a section of his ribs that is moving opposite of the rest of the ribs. You should: A) roll the patient over onto his right side. B) begin positive pressure ventilation. C) cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. D) apply a bulky dressing over the section.

Q: You are treating a patient with paradoxical motion on the left side of the chest. He is breathing shallow at a rate of 4 breaths per minute. You should: A) begin positive pressure ventilation. B) apply a bulky dressing to the chest. C) administer 15 lpm oxygen via mask. D) roll the patient onto his left side.

Q: Your patient is a 21-year-old male who has a gunshot wound to the chest. Which of the following is the highest priority in managing this patient? A) Placing the patient in the shock position B) Performing a rapid trauma assessment C) Placing a pressure dressing over the wound to control bleeding D) Placing an occlusive dressing over the wound

Q: On assessment of the midsection of a 32-year-old male who was struck by a car, you find an abdominal evisceration with several loops of his large intestine exposed. The abdomen appears to have a clean-cut laceration and the bleeding is controlled. Which of the following is the BEST approach toward managing the exposed intestines? A) Moisten a sterile dressing with saline solution and cover the abdominal contents. B) Gently replace the intestines after moistening with sterile saline solution. C) Leave the abdominal contents in the place in which they were found and transport immediately. D) Cover the abdomen with an occlusive dressing of aluminum foil.

Q: Which of the following is NOT appropriate in caring for a patient with closed soft-tissue injuries and a significant mechanism of injury? A) Treat for shock if you think there are internal injuries even if the patient's vital signs are normal. B) Anticipate vomiting. C) Splint any swollen, deformed extremities. D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following types of bandages should NOT be used by the EMT providing wound care? A) Self-adherent roller gauze B) Tourniquet C) Triangular bandage D) Adhesive tape

Q: For which of the following wounds should the EMT apply an absorbent dressing moistened with sterile saline and then cover it with an occlusive dressing? A) Gunshot wound (GSW) to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding B) Stab wound to the chest C) Laceration to the neck D) The stump of an amputated extremity

Q: A 36-year-old male was accidentally shot with a nail gun into the chest. You see the nail, which protrudes about 2 to 3 centimeters from the thorax, when you visualize the injury site. Under which of the following circumstances should you remove the nail from the injury site? A) Bleeding from the patient's wound is minimal. B) The patient develops a tension pneumothorax. C) The patient begins to complain of shortness of breath. D) None of the above

Q: Bleeding from open abdominal injuries should initially be controlled with which one of the following techniques? A) Packing the wound with rolled gauze B) Applying an occlusive dressing C) Applying direct pressure to the wound D) Applying an ice pack or chemical cold pack

Q: You are dispatched to a 42-year-old male who was shot in the abdomen and thrown from a vehicle. The patient is critical and a high-category trauma; however, due to the mechanism of injury, it is necessary to backboard the patient prior to transport. What is an important assessment before securing the patient? A) Verifying trauma center ER bed availability B) Examining the patient for entrance and exit wounds C) Searching for presence of diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hypotension D) Performing a distal neurological assessment

Q: Which of the following is required in the management of all open soft-tissue injuries? A) Provision of high-concentration oxygen to the patient B) The use of Standard Precautions by the EMT C) Cervical spine precautions D) Application of a disinfectant solution during clean-up

Q: Which of the following is a strategy to maintain an occlusive dressing to bloody or diaphoretic skin? A) Do not use occlusive dressings in this case. B) Manually maintain pressure. C) Do not use adhesive tape. D) Wrap the dressing circumferentially with gauze.

Q: Your patient has an open abdominal wound with intestines protruding. You should: A) leave them alone and transport rapidly. B) attempt to place the organs back into the abdomen. C) cover the entire abdomen with a blanket. D) cover the organs with moist sterile dressings.

Q: You are palpating the abdomen of a motor vehicle collision patient when you feel a pulsing mass. You should: A) defer further abdominal palpation. B) ask your partner to verify your findings. C) bind the abdomen with an elastic bandage. D) apply cold packs to the abdomen.

Q: Common signs and symptoms following an injury to a hollow abdominal organ include: A) increasing intrathoracic pressures. B) irritation and peritonitis. C) massive hemorrhage. D) absence of unilateral pulses.

Q: Which of the following injuries requires the use of an occlusive dressing? A) Open wound to the chest B) Open wound to the neck C) Open wound to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is a vascular organ in the abdomen that can produce blood loss quickly enough to result in life-threatening hemorrhage following high mechanism of injury blunt trauma? A) Intestines B) Liver C) Pancreas D) Kidneys

Q: You have covered an open chest wound with your gloved hand and the patient's breathing has improved. In order to free your hand to provide further care, you should: A) cover the wound with a sterile dressing. B) cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. C) apply a bulky dressing over the wound. D) remove your hand to see if the wound has closed.

Q: You find a middle-aged male is sitting against a wall in obvious distress. The patient appears to be extremely short of breath and has an open wound to his chest that is making a sucking sound. You should: A) place the patient on high-concentration oxygen. B) cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. C) place a trauma dressing over the wound. D) place your gloved hand over the wound.

Q: Your patient was working on a car when it fell off the jack and trapped him between the tire and ground. His face is very blue and his eyes are bloodshot. Which of the following has the patient most likely suffered? A) Hemothorax B) Traumatic asphyxia C) Pneumothorax D) Flail chest

Q: You are stabilizing a patient who has just been stabbed in the chest to the right of the mediastinum. After placing the patient on supplemental oxygen, his shortness of breath resolves. You also cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. The patient is asymptomatic at the time you're making the decision to transport. Which of the following BEST encapsulates the correct strategy for transport? A) The patient does not necessarily need transport, so allow him to refuse if he wants. B) Transport the patient emergently because of the high index of suspicion for a serious injury. C) Begin transport non-emergently and upgrade if the patient's condition deteriorates. D) Transport the patient non-emergently because he's complaint free.

Q: Which of the following BEST describes the benefit of a three-sided occlusive dressing over a four-sided occlusive dressing for an open chest wound? A) It eliminates the need to continue monitoring the patient's respiratory status. B) It prevents the development of a hemothorax by allowing blood to escape. C) It allows easy access for re-examination of the wound en route to the hospital. D) It reduces the chances of developing a tension pneumothorax.

Q: What is the underlying cause of bluish or reddish facial discoloration following a traumatic asphyxiation? A) High pressure on the chest leads to blood being forced from the right atrium into the face and neck. B) The patient has become hypoxic due to a chest injury and the finding suggests central cyanosis. C) The physiological strain of the body results in a flushed appearance and increased risk of a hypertensive event. D) Bluish or reddish facial discoloration is not associated with traumatic asphyxiation; a pale discoloration is usually present.

Q: Your patient is a 55-year-old male who was found in the parking lot behind a tavern. He states that he was assaulted and robbed by three individuals. He is complaining of being "hit in the face and kicked and punched in his ribs and stomach." Your examination reveals contusions and swelling around both eyes, bleeding from the nose, a laceration of his upper lip, and multiple contusions of the chest, abdomen, and flanks. Which of the following should cause the greatest concern regarding the prehospital care of this patient? A) The presence of any defensive wounds the patient may have sustained B) Getting a description of the assailants C) The possibility of a pneumothorax D) Reducing the swelling around his eyes by applying a cold pack

Q: Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of dressings used in the prehospital management of most open wounds? A) Nonabsorbent B) Sterile C) Occlusive D) Adherent

Q: While palpating the radial pulses of a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle crash, you notice a difference in the strength of the pulses bilaterally. This is a finding that you suspect may be associated with: A) aortic dissection. B) tension pneumothorax. C) commotio cordis. D) flail chest.