Q&A Hero

Q: ________ patients are at high risk for acquiring the inherited disorder called sickle cell anemia. A) Native American B) African American C) Eastern European D) Hispanic

Q: Which of the following organs may seriously be damaged in sickle cell anemia, and often subsequently leads to severe infections? A) Lungs B) Kidneys C) Liver D) Spleen

Q: Certain drugs are commonly referred as "blood thinners" or drugs that inhibit clotting. Which of the following would NOT be considered such a drug? A) Coumadin (warfarin) B) Lovenox (enoxaparin) C) Aspirin D) Prilosec

Q: Platelets are actually fragments of larger cells that are crucial to the formation of clots. Clumping (called aggregation) of platelets is the body's most rapid response to stop bleeding from an injured site. However, in some situations the clumping of platelets is not desirable, such as when a plaque in a coronary artery ruptures. In this situation, the rapid clumping of platelets can cause a clot that then completely blocks the coronary artery and results in a heart attack (myocardial infarction). One of the most effective and widely available drugs to prevent the aggregation of platelets is: A) aspirin. B) plasma. C) hemoglobin. D) anemia.

Q: You suspect a patient who has been having a difficult time controlling the bleeding following a small laceration to the foot may have a history of: A) sickle cell anemia. B) taking blood thinners. C) high blood pressure. D) poorly controlled diabetes.

Q: Which of the following medications does NOT interfere with the blood-clotting process? A) Acetaminophen B) Warfarin C) Aspirin D) Clopidogrel

Q: What is the purpose of the red blood cells? A) They are responsible for the delivery of oxygen to the cells. B) They are responsible for the removal of oxygen from the cells. C) They are critical in response to infection and are mediators of the body's immune response. D) They are crucial in the formation of clots.

Q: The blood has many functions critical to a patient's health. Which one of the listed items below is NOT a function of the blood? A) Control of bleeding by clotting B) Delivery of oxygen to the cells C) Removal and delivery of other waste products to organs that provide filtration and removal, such as the kidneys and liver D) Removal of carbon monoxide from the cells

Q: Which of the following abbreviations is NOT correct? A) SCA for sickle cell anemia B) RBC for red blood cells C) WBC for white blood cells D) CAPD for continuous acute peripheral disease

Q: What is continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis? A) A gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is raised above the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and lowered below the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out B) A gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is lowered below the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and raised above the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out C) A mechanical process for peritoneal dialysis in which a machine fills and empties the abdominal cavity of dialysis solution D) A type of dialysis that is performed while walking

Q: How would you define anemia? A) An inherited disease in which a genetic defect in the hemoglobin results in abnormal structure of the red blood cells B) The loss of the kidneys' ability to filter the blood and remove toxins and excess fluid from the body C) The process by which toxins and excess fluid are removed from the body by a medical system independent of the kidneys D) A lack of a normal number of red blood cells in the circulation

Q: The sensation felt when palpating an arterial-venous fistula or shunt is known as a: A) bruit. B) frill. C) thrill. D) fluttering.

Q: The correct terminology used for patients whose kidneys are damaged to the point where they require dialysis to survive is: A) acute renal failure. B) end-stage renal disease. C) hepatic failure. D) terminal kidney disease.

Q: Your patient is a 22-year-old male who has ingested a large amount of alcohol and is vomiting. He is conscious but uncooperative. He allows you to examine him but refuses transport to the hospital. You have sought assistance from law enforcement on scene. Which of the following is the BEST action? A) Contact medical control for further advice. B) Stay with the patient until he has stopped vomiting. C) Find a relative or neighbor to come over and stay with the patient. D) Obtain a witnessed refusal.

Q: Your patient is a 24-year-old male who is severely depressed. He tells you that he can't "handle the pressure" anymore and that he wants to die. He is refusing transport. Which of the following is the most appropriate decision regarding this patient's care? A) Transport the patient against his will with the assistance of law enforcement. B) Contact the patient's family to find out what their wishes are. C) Leave the scene and allow law enforcement to handle the situation. D) Respect the patient's wishes; he is alert, oriented, and capable of giving consent.

Q: Which of the following situations generally allows the EMT to transport a patient with a behavioral emergency against his or her wishes? A) The patient's personal physician gives you permission. B) A family member gives consent and is willing to accompany the patient. C) The patient is a threat to himself or others. D) The patient's insurance company agrees to pay, even though the patient has not given consent.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method or adjunct in restraining a patient? A) Hog-tying the patient B) Placing a surgical mask over the patient's face to prevent spitting C) Restraining the patient face-up D) Securing all four limbs with leather restraints

Q: It is important that, as an EMS provider, you avoid creating a situation where positional asphyxia could occur. Which of the following is positional asphyxia? A) Positional asphyxia is the position the person is seated in when you approach him. B) Positional asphyxia is a birth defect that causes psychiatric issues and is initiated because of the way the fetus was positioned in the uterus. C) Positional asphyxia is inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest caused by a body position that restricts breathing. D) Positional asphyxia is the name for the position someone assumes after she has been hit with a taser.

Q: When restraining a patient, which of the following is NOT a consideration? A) Number of people available to carry out the required actions B) Patient's size and strength C) Patient's informed consent D) How to position the patient

Q: Concerning behavioral emergencies, which of the following statements is true? A) Only a licensed psychiatrist can apply crisis management techniques with a patient having a behavioral emergency. B) A diabetic problem never mimics signs of a behavioral emergency. C) It is relatively easy to determine if the underlying cause of a behavioral emergency is related to drug abuse. D) A patient who does not respond to crisis management techniques may be restrained for transport to a psychiatric facility.

Q: Which of the following statements concerning forcible restraint of patients is true? A) It is easily accomplished by two EMTs with a good plan. B) This is necessary only with mentally ill individuals. C) It causes irreparable emotional harm to most patients. D) This is normally considered to be within the jurisdiction of law enforcement.

Q: You respond to the scene of a private residence for a patient who is a known insulin-dependant diabetic patient. The patient is combative and cursing as you approach. Should this patient be restrained? A) Yes, he likely has a medical condition that requires treatment. B) No, this patient is not likely experiencing a behavioral emergency. C) Yes, he is combative and all combative patients can be restrained. D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

Q: Your patient is a 37-year-old male sitting on the kitchen floor. His wife is attempting to talk with him, but he does not look at her or answer. He is fidgeting and has apparently thrown some dishes against the wall. What should be your first consideration? A) Ask the wife to step outside with you so you can get information from her. B) Ask the wife to step into the other room so you can speak with the patient alone. C) Quickly check the patient's carotid pulse. D) Stay a safe distance away.

Q: Which of the following does NOT indicate that a patient may be about to become violent? A) Tense body posture or clenched fists B) Crying C) Profane language D) Loud voice and rapid pacing

Q: You are dispatched to a suicide attempt. You arrive to find a 16-year-old, who is extremely agitated and pacing up and down in the living room of his house. Apparently, he had threatened to go out, get a gun, and shoot himself. The parents called it in as an attempted suicide. The scene is safe and there are apparently no weapons accessible to the patient. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate in caring for this patient? A) Do not take any action that may be considered threatening by the patient. To do so may bring about hostile behavior directed against you or others. B) Always be on the watch for weapons. C) Do not isolate yourself from your partner or other sources of help. D) Make certain the patient gets between you and the door. The patient should always feel he has an escape route.

Q: You are on the scene where a 23-year-old female has attempted suicide by cutting her forearms with a razor. She is sitting in the front yard and has lost a large amount of blood. She is conscious and holding a small razor blade, and tells you to get away from her. Which of the following should NOT be done? A) Use Body Substance Isolation (BSI). B) Keep bystanders away from the patient. C) Call law enforcement for assistance. D) Take the razor blade away from her by force.

Q: Which of the following statements concerning people who have made prior suicide attempts is true? A) They are at an increased risk for a subsequent successful suicide. B) They do not require psychological counseling like a person who is truly depressed. C) They should be allowed to sign a release if their injuries are not serious. D) They are usually just making a cry for help but do not want to die.

Q: You are called to the scene of an attempted suicide. You arrive to find a 25-year-old man sitting on the sofa who apparently cut his wrists. Family members have bandaged them, and there does not appear to be any bleeding risk at this time. The scene is secure. Which action would you NOT take in treating this patient? A) As soon as possible, perform a history and physical exam and provide emergency care on the wrist, if necessary. B) Perform a detailed physical exam only if it is safe and you suspect the patient may have an injury. C) Contact the receiving hospital and report on current mental status and other essential information. D) Make sure you take charge of the situation. Let the patient know that what he has done is wrong. Tell him he is coming with you whether he likes it or not. Do not worry about gaining the patient's confidence. Take charge. The patient must know that you are the boss.

Q: You have responded to a call about a "psychiatric patient" to find a 24-year-old woman talking to herself in her home. She is rocking back and forth and you can see from a distance that she is perspiring profusely. You also see an empty medication bottle on the floor. She does not acknowledge your presence. When you attempt to speak to her, she continues to talk to herself as if you were not there. Which of the following should be included in your actions at the scene? A) Distract her so your partner can look around the house. B) Look through the house with your partner to try to find some clues to the patient's problem. C) Ensure that law enforcement is responding and wait for their arrival. D) Shake the patient's shoulder to check for responsiveness to physical stimuli.

Q: When responding to an attempted suicide, which of the following is the EMT's primary concern? A) Personal safety B) Determining whether the patient suffers from clinical depression C) Contacting law enforcement since suicide is illegal D) Managing the patient's airway

Q: Management of the suicidal patient includes all of the following except: A) a physical examination. B) psychoanalysis of the patient by the EMT. C) a SAMPLE history. D) communication.

Q: Why is it important to gather a detailed medical history when dealing with a psychiatric emergency? A) It is not. You want to get the call resolved as quickly as possible and this will just delay it. B) It will alert you to past issues as well as medication. C) It will help you to determine if the police are needed. D) It will help you to determine if you need to restrain the patient.

Q: Which of the following patients would be considered to be at the greatest risk for suicide? A) 22-year-old man who has lost his job and is getting divorced B) 35-year-old female who has a child with a serious illness C) Married, 30-year-old man who has just learned that his employer is transferring him to a different state D) 44-year-old woman who has just recovered from a serious illness

Q: Which of the following factors suggest that a patient is at risk for suicide? A) Recent emotional trauma B) Sudden improvement in depression C) Alcohol and drug abuse D) All of the above

Q: Concerning attempted suicide, which of the following statements is true? A) Truly suicidal patients nearly always leave a note. B) All suicide attempts must be taken seriously, even if the method seems insincere. C) There is always an indication that a suicide attempt is imminent. D) Attempted suicide is a matter for law enforcement, not EMS.

Q: All of the following are general rules in dealing with a psychiatric patient except: A) speak slowly and clearly, and use a calm and reassuring tone. B) make eye contact with the patient. C) listen to the patient, showing you are listening by repeating part of what the patient says back to him. D) do not be judgmental; instead, show pity, as he needs to know that you understand him.

Q: You are dispatched to a local fast-food restaurant for a "nature unknown" call. You arrive on-scene and find a 47-year-old male in front of the counter repeatedly singing "Happy Birthday" to himself. Police are on-scene and the scene is safe. Which of the following would be considered appropriate care? A) Quickly approach the patient and take charge. Tell him he has to come with you to be evaluated. B) Quietly and carefully evaluate the situation and keep your emotions under control. Be as unhurried as you can. C) Have the police take charge, restrain the patient, and have him brought into your ambulance. D) Have your partner join you in approaching the patient and explain to him that he has to stop singing or you will have him arrested.

Q: Which of the following is the BEST defense for an EMT when facing allegations of misconduct from a mentally ill patient? A) Hiring a background investigator to discredit the accuser B) Having a clean employment record and lack of a criminal background C) Providing accurate and complete documentation, supported by a third-party witness D) Making sure you and your partner get your stories straight before talking to anyone

Q: Your patient is a 15-year-old female who has n diagnosed with a personality disorder. She has no history of violent behavior. The staff at her residential care facility wants her to be transported for evaluation of a possible urinary tract infection. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation? A) Have a female EMT attend to the patient. B) Transport the patient, but do not speak to her or perform an assessment. C) Refuse to transport the patient without a police escort. D) Ask that the patient be given a tranquilizer injection prior to transport.

Q: Which of the following must be treated by the EMT if present in a patient with an apparent behavioral emergency? A) Acute alcohol intoxication B) Hypoglycemia C) Suicidal ideology D) Severe clinical depression

Q: Once you have established with reasonable certainty that your patient is suffering from a behavioral emergency, which of the following is the best course of action? A) Establish the best way to restrain the patient before he has the opportunity to become violent. B) Begin intense individual counseling with the patient. C) Attempt to determine if there is a possible physical cause for the patient's behavior. D) There is no need to assess for medical conditions if the patient does not have a history of past medical problems.

Q: You are dispatched to a psychiatric emergency for a 68-year-old male. Dispatch provides no other information and, when questioned by you, they do not have any more information. Although all steps are important in dealing with this situation, which step is the MOST important? A) Scene size-up B) Primary assessment C) Vital signs and SAMPLE history D) Secondary assessment

Q: Which of the following should NOT be included in documentation of an incident involving a patient with a behavioral or psychiatric emergency? A) Description of the patient's behavior B) Whether or not you think the patient is mentally ill C) Your observations of the patient's surroundings at the scene D) Your actions

Q: As an EMT, it is important that you be able to do all of the following except: A) control your own emotions when dealing with patients who say upsetting things to you. B) provide counseling and advice to patients with personal problems. C) ensure your safety and that of others at the scene. D) deal with a wide variety of emotions and behaviors.

Q: When providing emergency care to an aggressive or hostile patient, what is the highest priority? A) Checking the patient for possible physical causes of the behavior B) Finding out if the patient is oriented to person, time, and place C) Calming the patient down D) Performing a scene size-up

Q: Neurotransmitters are chemicals within the body that transmit the message from the distal end of one neuron (presynaptic neuron) to the proximal end of the next neuron (postsynaptic neuron). While it sounds like a complicated process, it takes only milliseconds. Which one of the following sentences is false? A) Neurotransmitters are released from a neuron, then travel across the synapse to the next neuron. B) The receptors on the postsynaptic neuron receive the neurotransmitter. C) This is the mechanism by which the impulse is moved along the nervous system. D) After the impulse is transmitted, the neurotransmitter goes through a process called reuptake, in which the neurotransmitter is returned to the postsynaptic neuron.

Q: Which of the following is appropriate when assessing an emotionally disturbed patient? A) Establish eye and verbal contact. B) Avoid arguing with the patient. C) Make it clear that you are in control of the situation, not the patient. D) Both A and B

Q: You are on the scene of a possible overdose. You find a 30-year-old man pacing about his living room. There is evidence of illicit drug use and the apartment is in disarray. The patient seems agitated and nervous. Attempts at calming the patient should include which of the following? A) Speak quickly to give the patient all of the important information without delay. B) Repeat part of what the patient is saying to show that you are listening to him. C) Stand still with your arms crossed to instill a sense of control and authority. D) Sit close to him with your arm around his shoulders to show that you are truly concerned.

Q: There are general rules when dealing with psychiatric emergencies. Which of the following is NOT one of those rules and would be considered inappropriate? A) Identify yourself and your role. B) Speak slowly and clearly, using a calm and reassuring tone. C) Never make eye contact with the patient, as it will just increase his nervousness. D) Listen to the patient. You can show you are listening by repeating part of what the patient says back to him.

Q: When dealing with a psychiatric emergency, which one of the following would generally be inappropriate behavior on your part? A) Be as hurried as you can. It is extremely important to resolve the call and get the patient to the hospital as soon as possible. B) Act in a calm manner, giving the patient time to gain control of his emotions. C) Let the patient know that you are listening to what he is saying, and explain things to the patient honestly. D) Stay alert for sudden changes in behavior.

Q: Which of the following is acceptable when managing the patient with a behavioral or psychiatric emergency? A) Make supportive statements such as, "That must have been very hard for you." B) Sit as close to the patient as you can to reassure him that you will not abandon him. C) Allow family members to confront the patient about his behavior. D) Go along with the patient's hallucinations or false beliefs.

Q: Which of the following communication strategies should be used in dealing with a patient with a behavioral emergency? A) Stay 2 to 3 inches from the patient at all times to make him feel secure. B) Interrupt the patient if he appears to be going off on a tangent about something not concerning the immediate situation. C) Show deep sympathy for the patient's predicament and let him know he can't control the things that are happening to him. D) Acknowledge the patient's feelings

Q: When managing a patient who may hurt himself or others, you should do all of the following except: A) make sure only you and the patient are in the room. B) keep bystanders a safe distance away. C) watch for sudden changes in the patient's behavior. D) retreat if the patient becomes threatening.

Q: Which of the following actions is the MOST appropriate for the EMT to take when managing a patient with a behavioral emergency? A) Find out if the patient's insurance covers psychiatric treatment. B) Remain calm and reassure the patient. C) Establish control of the situation by a show of force. D) Quickly perform a head-to-toe exam and transport without delay.

Q: It is often difficult to distinguish a true medical emergency from a psychiatric emergency. You are confronted with a patient experiencing personality changes ranging from irritability to irrational behavior, altered mental status, amnesia or confusion, irregular respirations, elevated blood pressure, and decreasing pulse. It appears to be a psychiatric emergency. What else could also likely cause this behavior? A) Low blood sugar B) Head injury C) Lack of oxygen D) Stroke

Q: Which of the following findings would be helpful in differentiating between a closed head injury and a behavioral emergency? A) Irrational behavior B) Unequal pupils C) Confusion D) Combativeness

Q: Which of the following traumatic conditions may account for signs and symptoms of a behavioral emergency? A) Fractured lumbar vertebra B) 10% BSA partial thickness burn C) Fractured tibia D) Internal hemorrhage

Q: Which of the following medical conditions may be the underlying cause of an apparent behavioral emergency? A) Mental illness B) Stroke C) Hypoglycemia D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following statements regarding behavioral emergencies is NOT true? A) Patients experiencing a behavioral emergency are not always dangerous to themselves or others. B) It would be unusual to find a person with schizophrenia outside a mental health facility. C) Differences in culture may initially appear to be abnormal behaviors to the EMT. D) Apparent behavioral emergencies may be due to an underlying medical cause.

Q: Which of the following may cause a patient to exhibit abnormal behavior? A) Hypoxia B) Allergic reaction C) Gastroenteritis D) Snakebites

Q: According to coworkers, your 25-year-old female patient suddenly began acting aggressively and being verbally abusive. She tells you she is "starving" and you notice that she is pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following would be an appropriate general impression? A) Alcoholic intoxication B) An underlying physical illness C) Sudden onset of schizophrenia D) Alcohol withdrawal

Q: Which of the following statements concerning behavioral emergencies is true? A) Emotional outbursts are considered behavioral emergencies. B) The person with a behavioral emergency requires prolonged institutionalization. C) A person with a behavioral emergency is mentally ill. D) It may be difficult to determine what behavior is abnormal for a given person in a given situation.

Q: Which one of the following statements is NOT true? A) In any given year, 26.2% of adult Americans suffer from a diagnosable mental disorder. B) Almost 10% of the population of adult Americans has a mood disorder such as depression. C) Just over 20% of the population of adult Americans has anxiety or panic issues. D) It is very unusual for an EMT to be called for a psychiatric emergency.

Q: When a patient or bystander at the scene of an emergency displays fear, anger, or grief, this is best described as which of the following? A) Neurosis B) Stress reaction C) Post-traumatic stress disorder D) Catharsis

Q: It can sometimes be difficult to determine whether someone who is showing unusual behavior is having a psychological emergency or is showing an altered level of consciousness due to a physical issue. Which of the following statements are true? 1. Consider patients who are exhibiting crisis or unusual behavior to be having an altered mental status from a nonpsychiatric cause until proven otherwise. 2. Many medical and traumatic conditions are likely to alter a patient's behavior. 3. Lack of oxygen may cause restlessness and confusion, cyanosis (blue or gray skin), and altered mental status. 4. Stroke or inadequate blood to the brain may cause confusion or dizziness and what appears to be erratic behavior. A) 1, 2 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 3, 4 D) 1, 2, 3, 4

Q: EMTs may come across a situation where a patient begins to act extremely agitated or psychotic. Elevated temperature and sometimes alcohol or drug intoxication may be present. The patient will soon cease struggling, and often within minutes the patient develops inadequate or absent respirations and subsequently dies. It is important for the EMT to be alert for this sequence of events in a patient who exhibits this behavior and monitor the patient constantly throughout the call. This condition is called: A) excited or agitated delirium. B) psychotic delirium. C) excited psychosis. D) bipolar disorder.

Q: Your patient is exhibiting bizarre and aggressive behavior; he starts shouting and becomes violent. He has extra strength and appears insensitive to pain. Drug paraphernalia is visible on-scene. This behavior is known as: A) chemical delirium. B) excited delirium. C) sensory excitement. D) intoxication reaction.

Q: When a person acts in a manner that is unacceptable to himself or those around him, this would be considered which of the following? A) Mental illness B) Psychotic episode C) Behavioral emergency D) Psychosomatic reaction

Q: Which of the following is of greatest concern for the EMT in the prehospital care of a woman with vaginal bleeding? A) Finding out if the patient is currently sexually active B) Monitoring for hypovolemic shock C) Obtaining a thorough gynecological history D) Preventing infection

Q: Which of the following is a cause of gynecological emergencies? A) Soft-tissue trauma to the external genitalia B) Sexual assault C) Disorders of the female reproductive organs D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is NOT true concerning abdominal pain in geriatric patients? A) The elderly person may not be able to give a specific description of the pain. B) The elderly have a decreased ability to perceive pain. C) Medications may mask signs of shock associated with an abdominal complaint. D) The causes of abdominal pain in the elderly are rarely serious.

Q: Which of the following questions is inappropriate when taking the history of a female patient with abdominal pain? A) Are you having vaginal bleeding or discharge now? B) What is your sexual orientation? C) Have you had sexual intercourse since your last menstrual period? D) If you are menstruating, is the flow normal?

Q: Which of the following questions may help the EMT assess a patient with abdominal pain? A) Do you have any allergies to foods or medicines? B) Do you have any medical problems, such as diabetes or heart problems? C) What medications are you taking? D) All of the above

Q: You are examining a 24-year-old female patient with lower quadrant abdominal pain. What is the MOST lethal possibility? A) Pelvic inflammatory disease B) Ectopic pregnancy C) Cholecystitis D) Mittelschmerz

Q: When treating a patient with acute abdominal pain, you should do which of the following? A) Have him take antacids in an attempt to decrease the pain B) Administer sips of water if patient complains of thirst C) Have him drink milk to coat the stomach and reduce the pain D) Have the patient lie still and assume a position of comfort

Q: You are called to a nursing home for an 85-year-old patient complaining of abdominal pain. The patient has a history of dementia and cannot describe the pain to you. The nurse states the patient has n vomiting dark coffee ground emesis for about an hour. His blood pressure is 90/40, pulse 100, and respiratory rate of 24. Why should the EMT use an oxygen mask with caution? A) The oxygen will cause the patient to start vomiting again. B) The patient may hyperventilate. C) The patient may go unresponsive. D) The patient cannot clear any additional emesis.

Q: You are called to a nursing home for an 85-year-old patient complaining of abdominal pain. The patient has a history of dementia and cannot describe the pain to you. The nurse states the patient has n vomiting dark coffee ground emesis for about an hour. His blood pressure is 90/40, pulse 100, and respiratory rate of 24. In what position should you transport the patient? A) Trendelenburg B) Supine C) Semi-Fowler's D) Supine with knees bent

Q: In what position should the patient complaining of severe abdominal pain be placed if there are no signs or symptoms of shock? A) Supine with feet elevated B) One of comfort C) Left lateral recumbent D) Semi-Fowler with knees bent

Q: You are treating a 38-year-old female patient with abdominal distress. The patient's vital signs are stable and you are getting ready to transport. What is the BEST position to transport the patient? A) Right lateral B) On side with knees bent C) Trendelenburg D) Left lateral

Q: You respond to a 75-year-old female who is complaining of epigastric pain that feels like heartburn and radiates to the right shoulder. Her vital signs are stable and she has a previous history of myocardial infarction. She has prescription nitroglycerine tablets. An ALS unit is en route. After performing a physical examination and applying oxygen by nasal cannula, you should: A) transport the patient in the Trendelenburg position for shock. B) apply the AED and prepare for imminent cardiac arrest from a myocardial infarction. C) contact medical control regarding the administration of the patient's nitroglycerin. D) cancel the ALS unit: this is just gallstones and BLS can transport.