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Q:
You are called to the scene of a 21-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. Her boyfriend suspects that she tried to commit suicide by overdosing on her depression medications. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli, with agonal respirations, and has vomited. She has a weak carotid pulse. After securing the airway and providing oxygen by bag-valve mask, what is the MOST important question the EMT can ask regarding the medication?
A) How many pills did she take?
B) Were the medications new?
C) What medication did she take?
D) Why is she on that particular depression medication?
Q:
It is a chilly fall morning and you are called to an RV campground for three patients who are complaining of headache, dizziness, and nausea. Your primary assessment reveals that they are cyanotic and have an altered mental status. You suspect:
A) snake bite.
B) bee sting.
C) food poisoning.
D) carbon monoxide poisoning.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true concerning a patient's reaction to toxic gas exposure?
A) If the patient is treated immediately, there will be no long-term effects.
B) Signs and symptoms may be delayed.
C) The patient may present without respiratory difficulty.
D) Signs and symptoms may be immediate and severe.
Q:
Which of the following is the cause of the black residue found in a patient's mouth and nose following smoke inhalation?
A) Tar
B) Carbon monoxide
C) Cyanide
D) Carbon
Q:
Carbon monoxide poisoning should be suspected when a patient has n in an enclosed area and has which of the following signs and/or symptoms?
A) Headache, dizziness, and nausea
B) Flu-like symptoms
C) Vomiting and altered mental status
D) All of the above
Q:
Which of the following is LEAST often seen in carbon monoxide poisoning?
A) Nausea
B) Cherry red lips
C) Confusion
D) Headache
Q:
Which of the following is a common sign and symptom in poisonings of all types?
A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Dizziness and palpitations
C) Headache and diaphoresis
D) Pain and diaphoresis
Q:
You are called to a farm for a possible organophosphate poisoning of one of the workers. Your first action is to:
A) decontaminate the patient.
B) bag the patient before he dies.
C) call for specialized hazardous materials units.
D) call for an ALS unit.
Q:
How does carbon monoxide cause toxic effects?
A) Causes red blood cells to clump together
B) Prevents the blood from clotting
C) Prevents red blood cells from carrying oxygen
D) Prevents red blood cells from releasing carbon dioxide
Q:
You have just arrived on the scene of an agricultural business and see three men coming out of a building, choking and holding their heads. One of the men tells you there are two workers still inside. What should you do next?
A) Call for properly trained assistance and stay a safe distance away from the scene.
B) Cover your nose and mouth with a wet towel and check on the status of the two workers inside the building.
C) Get the assistance of the men who made it out of the building to prevent delay in finding the workers inside.
D) Evaluate the three men and administer high-concentration oxygen, then help them get a safe distance away from the scene.
Q:
Which of the following is one of the MOST common inhaled poisons associated with fire suppression?
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Methane gas
C) Polyvinyl chloride
D) Carbon monoxide
Q:
Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs by which of the following routes?
A) Absorption
B) Inhalation
C) Radiation
D) Aspiration
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a way in which poisons can access the body?
A) Injection
B) Inhalation
C) Radiation
D) Absorption
Q:
Which of the following MOST affects the extent of damage a poison does to the body?
A) Patient's race, age, and medications taken
B) Patient's genetics, height, and medications taken
C) Patient's nutritional status, genetics, and strength of the immune system
D) Patient's age, weight, and general health
Q:
Which of the following groups is the most susceptible to the effects of a poison?
A) Pre-teens
B) Adults
C) Elderly
D) Teenager
Q:
Most cases of accidental poisoning involve which of the following?
A) Infants
B) Adults
C) Adolescents
D) Young children
Q:
Which of the following is a substance that will neutralize a poison or its effects?
A) Deactivator
B) Antidote
C) Antevert
D) Curative
Q:
Volatile chemicals are agents that are able to change easily from a ________ form to a ________ form.
A) solid; vapor
B) solid; liquid
C) gas; liquid
D) liquid; gas
Q:
By definition, a systemic poison causes harm to which of the following?
A) Stomach and intestines
B) Localized areas of tissue
C) Specific organ system
D) Entire body
Q:
Which of the following describes any substance produced by a living organism that is poisonous to human beings?
A) Antibody
B) Acid
C) Toxin
D) Antigen
Q:
The term poison is BEST described as any substance that can do which of the following?
A) Increase cellular activity
B) Deactivate nerve transmission
C) Depress the body's respirations
D) Harm the body
Q:
You are called to the scene of a local night club for a 21-year-old female patient who is bradycardic and in respiratory arrest. The patient's airway is patent and the chest easily rises with bag-valve-mask ventilation. The patient's friends state the patient had only one or two drinks when she suddenly complained of dizziness and "seeing things." Her friends state that she then passed out, started twitching like she was seizing, and then stopped. Her friends adamantly state that she does not do drugs. What situation do you suspect?
A) Alcohol overdose
B) GHB overdose
C) Anaphylactic reaction to the alcoholic drink
D) Cocaine overdose
Q:
What is the most important treatment for a patient who has inhaled a poison?
A) Administer the correct antidote.
B) Administer high-concentration oxygen.
C) Administer activated charcoal.
D) Administer epinephrine via auto-injector.
Q:
You are called to the scene of a 17-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. Her mother suspects that she tried to commit suicide by taking her pain pills. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli, has agonal respirations, and has vomited. She has a weak carotid pulse. After securing the airway and providing oxygen by bag-valve mask, what is your next action?
A) Perform a rapid physical examination of the patient.
B) Ask the mother the name of her pain medication.
C) Question the mother about the patient's suicidal tendencies.
D) Perform a focused assessment.
Q:
You are called to the scene of a 14-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. Her mother states she has n teased and bullied at school and she suspects that she tried to commit suicide by taking her pain pills. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli, with agonal respirations, and has vomited. She has a weak carotid pulse. Your first action is to:
A) administer oxygen by bag-valve mask (BVM).
B) administer oxygen by nonrebreather mask (NRB).
C) administer an oropharyngeal airway (OPA).
D) suction the patient's airway.
Q:
A patient who has abused "uppers" will display which of the following signs and symptoms?
A) Dilated pupils, excessive salivation, and food cravings
B) Excessive talkativeness, dilated pupils, and dry mouth
C) Constricted pupils, hypotension, and blurred vision
D) Slurred speech, constricted pupils, and frequent urination
Q:
Your patient is a 23-year-old male who is unresponsive in the restroom of a bar. His respirations are slow and shallow, he has a heart rate of 50 beats per minute, he is sweating profusely, and he has constricted pupils. Which of the following substances is MOST likely responsible for the patient's condition?
A) Heroin
B) Ecstasy
C) LSD
D) PCP
Q:
You respond to assist law enforcement with a 35-year-old male patient who, according to them, is "high as a kite." The patient is anxious, tachycardic, and angry. What condition do you suspect?
A) GHB overdose
B) Marijuana overdose
C) Alcohol overdose
D) Cocaine overdose
Q:
The drug ecstasy is classified as what type of drug?
A) Depressant
B) Hallucinogen
C) Barbiturate
D) Tranquilizer
Q:
Cleaning fluid, glue, and model cement are common examples of which of the following?
A) Hallucinogens
B) Narcotics
C) Volatile chemicals
D) Aromatic spirits
Q:
The opiate triad includes all of the following except:
A) hypertension.
B) pinpoint pupils.
C) coma.
D) respiratory depression.
Q:
Gamma-hydroxybutyrate (GHB) is an example of which of the following types of drugs?
A) Cannabis
B) Stimulant
C) Volatile spirit
D) Depressant
Q:
OxyContin is an example of which of the following types of drugs?
A) Narcotic
B) Antidepressant
C) Appetite suppressant
D) Barbiturate
Q:
You are on the scene of a 40-year-old male patient who is anaphylactic and still unresponsive following a single epinephrine injection. You had inserted an oral airway and administered oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask and your partner found diminished lung sounds. After the epinephrine administration your partner reassesses lung sounds and tells you that the patient is now wheezing loudly in all fields. What is the next action you should perform?
A) Discontinue bagging the patient.
B) Place the patient on a nonrebreather mask.
C) Hyperventilate the patient.
D) Contact medical control and request to administer another dose of epinephrine.
Q:
After administering epinephrine per medical control via an auto-injector to an unresponsive anaphylactic adult patient, your partner reassesses the lung sounds. He tells you that the patient is now wheezing loudly in all fields whereas before the injection they were diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower. What is your suspicion regarding the patient's condition?
A) The patient's condition is worsening.
B) The patient's condition is improving.
C) There is no change in the patient's condition.
D) The patient is about to go into cardiac arrest.
Q:
Your patient has a history of severe anaphylaxis and carries several auto-injectors. You have administered one of the auto-injectors, but the patient's condition continues to worsen. Which of the following is the next best course of action?
A) Divert transport to a hospital with critical care capabilities.
B) Continue supportive care en route to the hospital.
C) Contact medical control.
D) Immediately administer a second auto-injector.
Q:
When documenting the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector, which of the following should be included?
A) Patient's response to the medication
B) Site of medication administration
C) Time the medication was administered
D) All of the above
Q:
After activating the auto-injector, how long should it be held in place before removing it from the patient's thigh?
A) 30 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 1 minute
D) It should be removed from the injection site immediately.
Q:
Which of the following is the proper method of disposing of a used epinephrine auto-injector?
A) Bend the needle at an angle to prevent accidental punctures and place it in the trash.
B) Place the device in a rigid biohazardous sharps disposal container.
C) Leave it at the scene for the patient or his family to dispose of.
D) Take it to the hospital for disposal in the emergency department.
Q:
At which of the following sites should the EMT administer an epinephrine auto-injector?
A) Abdomen
B) Upper arm
C) Thigh
D) Buttocks
Q:
Most epinephrine auto-injectors, except the Twinject, contain how many doses of epinephrine?
A) Two
B) Three
C) One
D) None of the above
Q:
Which of the following is a trade name for an epinephrine auto-injector?
A) Autodrenalin
B) AllerPen
C) Anajector
D) Epi-Pen
Q:
Which of the following is an action caused by epinephrine in anaphylaxis?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Vasoconstriction
C) Bronchoconstriction
D) All of the above
Q:
You respond to a local swim park for a 29-year-old male who was stung by a bee and "passed out." Upon arrival, you find the patient unresponsive to all stimuli with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. You insert an oral airway and administer oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask. You notice that it is difficult to bag the patient. Your partner listens to lung sounds and states they are very diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower fields. What is the best action?
A) Request an ALS unit.
B) Hyperventilate the patient.
C) Request orders from medical control for an emergency cricothyroidotomy.
D) Request orders from medical control to administer epinephrine.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of epinephrine?
A) Pallor
B) Vomiting
C) Bradycardia
D) Chest pain
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an indication that epinephrine is helping the anaphylaxis patient's condition?
A) Increased blood pressure
B) Increased heart rate
C) Increased dyspnea
D) Both B and C
Q:
Your patient is a 45-year-old female who is allergic to sesame seeds, which she accidentally ingested when she ate a deli sandwich. She is having difficulty breathing, and she has hives, watery eyes, a weak pulse of 120 per minute, and swelling of the face and tongue. Which of the following is the BEST course of immediate action?
A) Transport immediately.
B) Contact medical control for orders to administer the patient's epinephrine auto-injector.
C) Contact dispatch to see where the closest ALS unit is.
D) Insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA).
Q:
Which of the following does a physician NOT take into consideration when writing a prescription for a patient to obtain an epinephrine auto-injector?
A) Patient's medical history
B) Severity of previous allergic reactions
C) How far the patient lives from medical attention
D) Patient's known allergies
Q:
If a patient was having a myocardial infarction, not an allergic reaction, and received an epinephrine auto-injection, which of the following would most likely occur?
A) Bradycardia
B) Stronger and faster heartbeat
C) No reaction if administered inadvertently
D) Relief of shortness of breath
Q:
You are called to a residence for a 50-year-old male complaining of difficulty breathing. He is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. The patient presents with hives over the chest, stridor, a swollen tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He is breathing 32 times per minute. He is speaking in two- to three-word sentences. What is the best treatment for the patient?
A) Administering epinephrine with consent from medical control
B) Oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask
C) Oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask
D) Rapid transport to the nearest facility
Q:
You are unsure if a patient's condition requires the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?
A) Ask a family member if this is the type of situation when the patient usually takes his auto-injector.
B) Administer the epinephrine, just in case.
C) Consult with a paramedic on your service for advice.
D) None of the above
Q:
You are treating a 28-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant. She has a history of bee sting anaphylaxis and was stung by a bee while in the garden. She is having severe respiratory distress and her blood pressure is 72/50 mmHg. Which of the following is the BEST option for the EMT?
A) Transport rapidly, bypassing the emergency department and taking the patient directly to the obstetrics unit of the hospital.
B) Immediately administer the patient's Epi-Pen.
C) Do not administer the Epi-Pen under any circumstances.
D) Administer the Epi-Pen only on the advice of medical control.
Q:
You are on the scene of a 22-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. The patient's mother states that she is deathly allergic to peanuts and accidentally ate stir fry cooked in peanut oil. The patient is unresponsive with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. What is your first action?
A) Administer epinephrine with medical control consent.
B) Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask.
C) Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask.
D) Perform a complete assessment and confirm that the patient is actually in anaphylaxis.
Q:
You are called to a residence for a 60-year-old male complaining of chest pain. You find the patient seated in bed. His past medical history includes hypertension and high cholesterol. The patient presents with hives over the chest, stridor, a swollen tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He denies any shortness of breath or respiratory distress, but does so in short two to three word statements. What condition do you suspect?
A) Anaphylaxis
B) Asthma
C) Acute myocardial infarction
D) Angina pectoris
Q:
You are transporting a 41-year-old female suffering from severe anaphylaxis. Her respiratory rate is 42 per minute, she is cyanotic, and she has a decreased level of responsiveness. Which of the following is the highest priority of care for this patient?
A) Elevate the patient's head.
B) Transport rapidly.
C) Search for an epinephrine auto-injector.
D) Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask.
Q:
You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a car has driven off the roadway and is resting at the bottom of an embankment. The driver is in severe respiratory distress and is unable to speak. His skin is flushed and he has hives. A Medic-Alert bracelet indicates an allergy to peanuts. You notice a candy bar wrapper on the floor of the car. Which of the following should you do first?
A) Administer high-concentration oxygen.
B) Read the candy wrapper to see if it contains peanuts.
C) Perform rapid extrication.
D) Search the patient for an epinephrine auto-injector.
Q:
Your patient has eaten a casserole that may have contained seafood. The patient is worried because he has a seafood allergy. Upon assessment, you find no signs or symptoms of anaphylaxis. The patient's vital signs are stable and he has an epinephrine auto-injector prescribed to him. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?
A) Assist him with the administration of his epinephrine auto-injector.
B) Advise the patient that he does not require treatment and transport at this time.
C) Try to find out if the casserole contained seafood.
D) Transport the patient rapidly before the onset of anaphylaxis.
Q:
Which of the following is included in the primary assessment of a conscious patient suffering from anaphylactic shock?
A) Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty
B) Finding out how the patient was exposed to the substance to which she is allergic
C) Looking for hives and swelling
D) Determining whether the patient's systolic blood pressure is over 100 mmHg
Q:
As you prepare to enter a patient's room in a nursing home, you see a sign posted on the door indicating that the patient has a latex allergy. Which of the following is the BEST way to care for the patient?
A) Only perform a history on this patient, not a physical exam, so you can avoid contacting him with your gloves.
B) Ask the nursing staff if the patient has an epinephrine auto-injector available in case of a reaction to your gloves.
C) Put on latex gloves anyway; you must protect yourself with BSI.
D) Ask the nursing facility staff to find synthetic exam gloves to wear for contact with this patient.
Q:
Upon delivering a patient to the emergency department, you remove your gloves and find that your hands are red and itchy. Which of the following is most likely?
A) You are showing early signs of an anaphylactic reaction.
B) You have come into contact with poison ivy in the patient's yard.
C) You have been exposed to an infectious disease through contact with the patient.
D) You are having an allergic reaction to the latex in the gloves.
Q:
Which of the following does NOT commonly lead to anaphylaxis?
A) Peanuts
B) Cat dander
C) Wasp stings
D) Sulfa drugs
Q:
Which of the following is a general term for a substance to which the body may have an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Pathogen
B) Allergen
C) Antibody
D) Pyrogen
Q:
Which of the following is the result of histamine and other chemicals in the body during anaphylaxis?
A) Urticaria occurs due to fluid being shunted from the skin, causing dehydration of tissue.
B) Blood vessels constrict, capillaries become leaky, and bronchoconstriction occurs.
C) Capillaries become leaky, bronchoconstriction occurs, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords.
D) Bronchodilation occurs, blood vessels dilate, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords.
Q:
Which of the following is the reason why infants rarely experience anaphylactic reactions?
A) Infants have not yet developed antibodies to allergens.
B) Infants have received natural immunity to allergens from their mothers before birth.
C) Allergens do not affect infants.
D) None of the above
Q:
Which of the following explains why a patient may experience difficulty breathing during anaphylaxis?
A) Swelling in the brain decreases the respiratory drive.
B) Swelling of the airway tissues causes difficulty breathing.
C) Allergens clump together and block blood flow through the lungs.
D) Allergens bind to hemoglobin, preventing it from carrying oxygen.
Q:
A 35-year-old female has just eaten lobster and is now complaining of itchy, watery eyes. Her blood pressure is beginning to fall, but she denies difficulty breathing. Which of the following best describes her condition?
A) Anaphylaxis
B) Dyspnea
C) Shock
D) Mild allergy
Q:
Which of the following changes commonly occurs in the cardiovascular system during anaphylaxis?
A) Low blood pressure due to vasodilation
B) High blood pressure due to tachycardia
C) High blood pressure due to vasoconstriction
D) Low blood pressure due to bradycardia
Q:
You are called to the local park on a hot summer day for an 8-year-old child in respiratory distress. The child can barely speak and appears to be getting sleepy. Vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 120, and respiratory rate 32. Your physical exam reveals a swollen tongue, inspiratory stridor, wheezing, and hives on the neck and chest. What condition do you suspect?
A) Asthma
B) Heat exhaustion
C) Allergic reaction
D) Anaphylaxis
Q:
Your patient is a 7-year-old girl who was prescribed an antibiotic for an ear infection. After 4 days on the antibiotic, the patient is experiencing hives and itching on her face, throat, and neck. Which of the following should you do?
A) Advise the parents that these symptoms are related to the ear infection and the antibiotic will take care of these symptoms if taken as directed.
B) Provide supportive care and monitor the patient's condition during transport to the hospital.
C) Advise the parents to call the pediatrician for a different antibiotic.
D) Immediately administer Epi-Pen Jr.
Q:
Which of the following occurs to blood vessels during an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Constriction
B) No change
C) Spasm
D) Dilation
Q:
You have responded to a park where you find a 23-year-old female sitting on a bench near a running trail. She states that she has been running for the past 30 minutes, and all of a sudden she cannot catch her breath. She states that this has never happened before and she usually runs 5 miles a day. Your assessment reveals that she is flushed, her pulse is fast and weak, her respirations are fast and she is wheezing, and she has hives on her arms and chest. She is most likely suffering from which of the following?
A) Anaphylaxis
B) Heat stroke
C) Allergic reaction
D) Hyperventilation syndrome
Q:
Which of the following would you expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of a patient having an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Clear, adequate air movement
B) Fine, wet crackles or rales
C) Coarse-sounding rhonchi
D) Wheezing
Q:
Which of the following is MOST likely to be a complaint of a patient suffering from anaphylaxis?
A) "I am having severe muscle pains."
B) "My legs are numb and I can't move them."
C) "My throat feels like it is closing."
D) "I can't remember what happened."
Q:
You are called to a farmhouse on a sunny spring afternoon. Upon arrival, a frantic mother tells you that her 3-year-old daughter was playing in the yard, accidentally stepped on a hornets' nest, and was stung repeatedly. The patient is alert, screaming and crying, and can follow her mother's commands. Her arms and legs are swollen and show the marks of several stings. Her body is covered in hives. Her vital signs are blood pressure 90/40, pulse 110, respiratory rate 24, and oxygen saturation 99%. Her lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Her mother states she put "nox-a-sting" on the bites but the bites only seemed to get worse. What condition is the patient suffering from?
A) Minor anaphylactic reaction
B) Moderate anaphylactic reaction
C) Allergic reaction from the hornets' stings
D) Anaphylactic reaction from the "nox-a-sting" swabs
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of an allergic reaction involving the skin?
A) Cyanosis
B) Flushing
C) Hives
D) Itching
Q:
Which of the following statements concerning severe allergic reactions is true?
A) The quicker the onset of symptoms, the greater the likelihood of a severe allergic reaction.
B) A severe allergic reaction can be prevented by the use of an epinephrine auto-injector before exposure to the substance.
C) Allergies do not develop until a person is in his late teens to early 20s.
D) A severe allergic reaction occurs only when the patient has never been exposed to the substance before.
Q:
What is another name for a severe allergic reaction?
A) Dermatitis
B) Asthma
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Psychosomatic reaction
Q:
Which is NOT one of the steps in managing a patient experiencing dizziness and syncope?
A) Administer oxygen.
B) Apply cold packs to the patient's head.
C) Loosen any tight clothing around the neck.
D) Lay the patient flat.
Q:
Many factors that cause dizziness and syncope are generally related to the:
A) kidneys.
B) lungs.
C) brain.
D) nervous system.
Q:
Many stroke patients are candidates for thrombolytic drugs. One of the most important things that an EMT can do to optimize the care of a stroke patient who is a candidate for the drugs is:
A) determine the exact time of onset of symptoms.
B) transport the patient to a Level I Trauma Center.
C) do a thorough physical exam of the patient.
D) transport to the closest hospital since the patient must go to the operating room as soon as possible.