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Q:
Which of the following is NOT a typical indication of congestive heart failure (CHF)?
A) Productive cough
B) Wet sounding breath sounds
C) Increased heart rate
D) Low blood pressure
Q:
Which of the following terms refers to swelling of the lower extremities seen in many cardiac patients?
A) Presacral swelling
B) Crackles
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Pedal edema
Q:
Which of the following is the name given to the condition in which fluid accumulates in the lungs?
A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B) Pulmonary edema
C) Pedal edema
D) Dyspnea
Q:
You respond to the scene of a 56-year-old obese female complaining of respiratory distress. She states that she has been feeling weak and a "little sick" for the past two days but the respiratory distress has been getting progressively worse for the past several hours. She states she has "heart problems," suffers from high blood pressure, and takes a "water pill." She is afebrile and has coarse crackles (rales) bilaterally. What is most likely the cause of her respiratory distress?
A) Pneumonia
B) Influenza
C) Aortic aneurysm
D) Congestive heart failure
Q:
Which of the following is the result of a portion of the heart muscle dying due to a lack of oxygen?
A) Angina pectoris
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Cardiac arrest
D) Heart failure
Q:
Which of the following is the beneficial action of a beta blocker medication?
A) Causes vasoconstriction, increasing the blood pressure
B) Slows the heart rate
C) Increases the amount of oxygen needed by the myocardium
D) Increases the strength of myocardial contraction
Q:
Which of the following is typical of angina pectoris?
A) Does not respond to nitroglycerin
B) Lasts 10 to 30 seconds
C) Does not present following stress
D) Often subsides with rest
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding angina pectoris is true?
A) It can be brought on by exertion or stress.
B) It is generally relieved by over-the-counter medications.
C) It results in death of a smaller portion of myocardium than does a heart attack.
D) It generally lasts 30 to 60 minutes.
Q:
You suspect that your patient is suffering from angina pectoris. What signs or symptoms would you expect to see with this condition?
A) Chest pain that is relieved with nitroglycerin
B) Chest pain that is not relieved with nitroglycerin
C) Chest pain that is not relieved with rest
D) Chest pain that radiates to the leg
Q:
What is NOT a result of a mechanical malfunction of the heart?
A) Cardiac arrest
B) Dysrhythmia
C) Shock
D) Pulmonary edema
Q:
Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias cannot produce a pulse?
A) Ventricular dysrhythmia
B) Ventricular fibrillation
C) Bradycardia
D) Tachycardia
Q:
A weakened area of an artery that balloons out and may rupture, causing catastrophic bleeding, is called:
A) angina.
B) asystole.
C) aneurysm.
D) angioplasty.
Q:
You are treating a male patient with chest pain caused by the complete occlusion of one of the coronary arteries. What would you most likely expect with this patient?
A) His pain will go away with oxygen.
B) His pain will be reduced with aspirin.
C) His pain will be alleviated with nitroglycerin.
D) His pain will not be alleviated with any of the above medications.
Q:
Which of the following is the name of the condition in which fatty deposits form in the inner lining of the arteries?
A) Arteriosclerosis
B) Coronary artery disease
C) Coronary thrombosis
D) Aneurysm
Q:
In which of the following situations would the administration of aspirin to a cardiac patient be prohibited?
A) The patient does not currently take aspirin.
B) The patient has a history of asthma.
C) The patient has a diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mmHg.
D) The patient feels dizzy.
Q:
Which of the following is the EMT's role in caring for a patient with chest pain?
A) Treat the patient as though he were having a heart attack.
B) Provide automatic external defibrillation.
C) Make an interpretation of the patient's cardiac rhythm.
D) Determine the cause of the patient's chest pain.
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding the administration of nitroglycerin tablets is true?
A) An increase in blood pressure should be expected.
B) The patient may complain of a headache following administration.
C) If a patient's pulse rate changes following nitroglycerin administration, it indicates an allergic reaction.
D) It takes 20 to 30 minutes for nitroglycerin to have an effect.
Q:
Which of the following is the beneficial action of nitroglycerin in some cardiac emergencies?
A) It relaxes blood vessels throughout the body.
B) It dilates only the coronary arteries.
C) It increases the strength with which the ventricles contract.
D) It slows down the heart.
Q:
Assuming your protocol allows the administration of nitroglycerin when certain conditions exist, what is the maximum number of tablets to be administered in the prehospital setting?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 1
Q:
You are on-scene with a 48-year-old unresponsive male patient. Bystanders state he complained of chest pain and then suddenly collapsed. Vital signs are blood pressure 68/42, pulse 36, and respiratory rate 3. He is unresponsive to painful stimuli. After performing the primary assessment and treating all life threats, what is your next intervention?
A) Insert an oral airway.
B) Administer high-concentration oxygen at 15 lpm by bag-valve mask.
C) Package the patient for rapid transport.
D) Apply the AED.
Q:
You are treating a patient with signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction (MI). What is the most important drug you should administer?
A) Oxygen
B) Albuterol
C) Epinephrine auto-injector (Epi-Pen)
D) Aspirin
Q:
Which of the following statements concerning heart attacks and cardiac arrest is NOT true?
A) Many patients may mistake their symptoms for other causes such as indigestion.
B) Some patients who have heart attacks live active and healthy lifestyles.
C) Heart attacks present differently among women and men.
D) The most common initial rhythm in sudden cardiac death is asystole.
Q:
Which of the following BEST describes a fluttering sensation in the chest?
A) Pulseless electrical activity of the heart
B) Palpitations
C) Dysrhythmia
D) Tachycardia
Q:
Which of the following may be a symptom of a problem with the heart?
A) Mild chest discomfort
B) Severe, crushing pain in the chest
C) Nausea, with or without vomiting
D) All of the above
Q:
What is NOT part of the cardiovascular system?
A) Arteries
B) Veins
C) Venules
D) Hormones
Q:
Which of the following is the general term used to refer to a problem with the heart?
A) Myocardial infarction
B) Cardiac dysrhythmia
C) Cardiac compromise
D) Congestive heart failure
Q:
Which of the following BEST defines inadequate breathing?
A) Wheezing noises when breathing
B) Breathing that is insufficient to sustain life
C) Breathing slower than normal
D) Breathing faster than normal
Q:
Which of the following respiratory rates should be cause for alarm in a 2-month-old child?
A) 28 breaths/min
B) 40 breaths/min
C) 16 breaths/min
D) 32 breaths/min
Q:
A patient who has shallow, slow, irregular gasping breaths is said to have ________ respirations.
A) Kussmaul's
B) agonal
C) central neurogenic
D) Cheyne-Stokes
Q:
Which of the following respiratory rates is considered an abnormal respiratory rate for an adult?
A) 20 breaths/min
B) 12 breaths/min
C) 16 breaths/min
D) 8 breaths/min
Q:
Which of the following is true concerning expiration?
A) The chest cavity increases in size.
B) The diaphragm moves upward.
C) The intercostal muscles contract to force air out of the lungs.
D) The ribs move upward and outward.
Q:
Which of the following does NOT occur during inspiration?
A) Intercostal muscles contract
B) Chest cavity increases in size
C) Diaphragm lowers
D) Diaphragm relaxes
Q:
You are on the scene of a person down. You arrive at a college dormitory and find a 21-year-old patient lying supine on the floor, unresponsive. The patient is "guppy" breathing at 5 times a minute, has a strong radial pulse at 110 beats per minute, and has vomited on himself. Friends state they went out to dinner and a party. They returned to change clothes for another party and he never came out of his room. Your partner suctions the patient, inserts an oropharyngeal airway, and ventilates the patient with a bag-valve mask with high-concentration oxygen. You listen to lung sounds and there are coarse rhonchi bilaterally. What condition do you suspect?
A) Aspiration
B) Overdose
C) Status asthmaticus
D) Severe meningitis
Q:
The EMTs should provide patients with viral respiratory infections:
A) antibiotics.
B) oxygen.
C) a prescribed inhaler.
D) a small-volume nebulizer.
Q:
Today patients with cystic fibrosis are surviving to:
A) older adulthood.
B) infancy.
C) toddler years.
D) adulthood.
Q:
Your patient is a 6-year-old male who appears very anxious, is using increased effort during expiration, and has a fever. He is wheezing and has a respiratory rate of 34. The patient's skin is very warm and dry. He does not have any cyanosis. The child is drooling and his mother states that he complained of a sore throat and pain on swallowing earlier in the afternoon. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient's distress?
A) COPD
B) Epiglottitis
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Pneumonia
Q:
You are on the scene of a 5-year-old patient who is in respiratory distress. The mother states that the patient has been making a "seal bark"-sounding cough for the past 24 hours. The child is very scared. The patient has stable vital signs. He is leaning forward in the tripod position and is drooling profusely. After performing your primary assessment, what is your best treatment option?
A) Provide high-concentration oxygen and have the parent hold it to the patient's face.
B) Provide oxygen by BVM.
C) Use a tongue depressor to examine the patient's mouth to determine whether the patient has strep throat or croup.
D) Calm the child as much as possible and provide oxygen by blow-by.
Q:
You are on the scene of a 3-year-old patient who is in respiratory distress. The mother states that the patient has been making a barking cough for the past 24 hours. The child is very scared and upset. He is crying inconsolably. The patient has tachypnea, but his vital signs are normal otherwise. He is leaning forward in the tripod position and is drooling profusely. What condition do you suspect?
A) Epiglottitis
B) Croup
C) Child abuse
D) Strep throat
Q:
What is NOT one of the symptoms of a pulmonary embolus?
A) sudden calmness
B) sudden onset of sharp chest pain
C) anxiety
D) pain and swelling in one or both legs
Q:
When the lung collapses without injury or any other cause, it is called which of the following?
A) COPD
B) Spontaneous pertussis
C) Spontaneous pulmonary embolism
D) Spontaneous pneumothorax
Q:
What condition is when there is an infection in one or both lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi?
A) Pneumonia
B) Pulmonary edema
C) Asthma
D) Pulmonary embolism
Q:
What condition is when fluid accumulates in the lungs, preventing them from breathing adequately?
A) Pneumonia
B) Pulmonary edema
C) Asthma
D) Pulmonary embolism
Q:
What is the primary effect on the body when an EMT assists a patient with a prescribed inhaler if the patient is short of breath?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Dissolved mucus in the airways
C) Increased contraction of the diaphragm
D) Relaxation of the bronchioles
Q:
You are responding to a 54-year-old female patient in respiratory distress. The patient is on home oxygen by nasal cannula at 1 lpm. The patient has diminished lung sounds bilaterally with wheezes. She appears malnourished and has a barrel chest. What condition do you suspect?
A) Bronchitis
B) Asthma
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Congestive heart failure
Q:
Which of the following is the primary cause of COPD?
A) Air pollution
B) Congenital diseases
C) Infection
D) Cigarette smoking
Q:
Contraindications for the use of Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) can include which of the following?
A) Audible rhonchi
B) History of pulmonary fibrosis
C) History of obstructive sleep apnea
D) Audible wheezing
Q:
A ________ device works by blowing oxygen or air continuously at a low pressure to prevent a patient's alveoli from collapsing.
A) COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease)
B) Nonrebreather
C) CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure)
D) FROPVD (Flow-Restricted, Oxygen Powered Ventilation Device)
Q:
Which of the following is the most proper dose of inhaled medication the EMT can assist the patient with administering?
A) As needed until respiratory status improves
B) Two sprays
C) The number of sprays directed by medical control
D) One spray
Q:
Which of the following is a benefit of using small-volume nebulizers for the treatment of respiratory problems?
A) They allow greater exposure of the patient's lungs to the medication.
B) The patient can easily carry this equipment in a purse or pocket.
C) Nebulized medications have fewer side effects than aerosolized medications from an inhaler.
D) They will work even when the patient's ventilations are inadequate.
Q:
Which of the following is a possible side effect of a prescribed inhaler for respiratory problems?
A) Tremors
B) Sleepiness
C) Trapped air in the lungs
D) Decreased heart rate
Q:
Which of the following inhalers would NOT be used to reverse an asthma attack?
A) Proventil
B) Ventolin
C) Beclomethasone
D) Albuterol
Q:
In which of the following circumstances is medical direction necessary when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed inhaler?
A) Patient has already overused the inhaler before your arrival.
B) Medical control is not necessary since assistance with inhaled medications is in the EMT scope of practice.
C) The inhaler belongs to another family member, not the patient.
D) Medical control is necessary in all situations in which an EMT assists with a prescribed inhaler.
Q:
Which of the following is proper when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed inhaler?
A) Have the patient hold the inhaled medication in his lungs as long as possible.
B) Make sure that the inhaler has been kept in the refrigerator.
C) Do not use the patient's inhaler, because you do not know how the medication has been stored.
D) Have the patient inhale deeply before delivering the spray.
Q:
Which of the following sounds may be heard in lower respiratory obstruction?
A) Crowing
B) Wheezing
C) Stridor
D) Snoring
Q:
When should the EMT most likely expect to hear wheezes in a patient complaining of shortness of breath secondary to an asthma attack?
A) While breathing in
B) In between breaths
C) While breathing out
D) While holding his breath
Q:
When you hear wheezes while auscultating your patient's breath sounds, which of the following is most likely the cause?
A) There is an upper airway obstruction.
B) There is mucus in the air passages.
C) There is fluid in the lungs.
D) The lower air passages in the lungs are narrowed.
Q:
You are called to the scene of a 45-year-old nonsmoker male with a history of asthma in respiratory distress. You find him lying supine on the couch. The patient is lethargic but can answer all your questions appropriately. He is diaphoretic, and complains of being cold, coughing, and having difficulty breathing for the past 3 days. His vital signs are blood pressure of 110/70, heart rate of 116, respiratory rate of 24, oxygen saturation of 93%, and temperature of 100.6F. You hear rhonchi in the left lobes and he is coughing up yellow-tinged sputum. What condition do you suspect?
A) Asthma
B) Silent myocardial infarction
C) COPD
D) Pneumonia
Q:
Your patient is a 30-year-old female who may have overdosed on antidepressant medications. On your arrival, she is lying supine on her bed with her head on a pillow. She is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is snoring. She appears to be pale and her skin is cool and clammy. What should you do first?
A) Apply oxygen by nonrebreather mask.
B) Insert an oropharyngeal airway.
C) Check the patient's pulse.
D) Remove the patient's pillow.
Q:
You are ventilating a 6-year-old child and note that his heart rate has decreased from 70 to 54. Which of the following is NOT appropriate?
A) Notify medical control that the patient's condition has improved.
B) Check the flow of oxygen reaching the bag-valve-mask device.
C) Increase the force of ventilations.
D) Insert an oropharyngeal airway and continue ventilating.
Q:
You are first on the scene of a 61-year-old female in need of assistance with her respirations. You have a pocket mask with supplemental oxygen. How can you determine that your artificial ventilation is effective?
A) You are assisting respirations at 10 breaths per minute.
B) Patient's pulse returns to normal.
C) You assure oxygen is being delivered at 15 liters per minute.
D) Patient's skin color remains the same.
Q:
Your patient is a 60-year-old female with a sudden onset of severe difficulty breathing. She has no prior history of respiratory problems. Which of the following should be done before applying oxygen by nonrebreather mask?
A) Listen to the patient's breath sounds.
B) Obtain a history of the present illness.
C) Check the patient's oxygen saturation level.
D) None of the above
Q:
Which of the following patients with difficulty breathing should NOT receive supplemental oxygen?
A) A patient with a chronic lung disease who may have a hypoxic drive
B) An infant whose eyes may be damaged by excessive oxygen administration
C) A patient whose oxygen saturation level is 100% on room air
D) None of these patients should have oxygen withheld.
Q:
What is the best way to determine that you are getting adequate ventilation with a bag-valve mask?
A) Look for chest rise and fall.
B) Push the full amount of the bag into the patient.
C) Ensure the pulse oximeter reads 95 to 100%.
D) Hyperventilate the patient until the oxygen saturation reaches 100%.
Q:
Your patient is a 24-year-old woman with asthma who is struggling to breathe and is very agitated. She has cyanosis of her lips and nail beds, and is cool and clammy to the touch. When you attempt to assist her ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device, she becomes combative and repeatedly pushes the mask away from her face. Which of the following is the BEST option?
A) Use a nasal cannula to administer supplemental oxygen.
B) Have your partner restrain the patient's hands so you can ventilate her.
C) Begin transport immediately and contact medical control for advice.
D) Wait for the patient's level of consciousness to decrease so that she can no longer resist your attempts to ventilate.
Q:
When ventilating a child with inadequate respirations, which of the following is the maximum rate at which artificial respirations should be delivered?
A) 15 per minute
B) 12 per minute
C) 24 per minute
D) 20 per minute
Q:
Which of the following is a sign of adequate artificial ventilations in a pediatric patient?
A) The breath is delivered easily.
B) Pulse rate slows down.
C) Pulse rate increases.
D) You notice cyanosis developing around the mouth.
Q:
Your patient is a 15-year-old male with a history of multiple prior hospitalizations for asthma. Upon your arrival the patient responds only to painful stimuli and is making very weak respiratory effort. Which of the following should you do next?
A) Contact medical control.
B) Check the patient's oxygen saturation level.
C) Assist the patient with his inhaler.
D) Assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen.
Q:
Which of the following signs of inadequate breathing is more prominent in children than in adults?
A) See-sawing of the chest and abdomen
B) Grunting respirations
C) Nasal flaring
D) All of the above
Q:
While caring for a 3-year-old child, you should be concerned if his respiratory rate exceeds ________ breaths per minute.
A) 16
B) 20
C) 24
D) 30
Q:
While assessing the airway of a pediatric patient, you will notice that it is different than that of an adult. Which of the following is one of those differences?
A) The cricoid cartilage is less developed, reducing the possibility that it can be completely occluded.
B) The tongue is smaller, taking up less room in the mouth and allowing larger objects to occlude the airway.
C) The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed.
D) The chest wall is softer, making it easier for the chest to expand.
Q:
Which of the following patients does NOT necessarily have inadequate breathing?
A) Patient with cyanosis
B) Patient's whose breath sounds cannot be heard
C) Patient with agonal respirations
D) Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm
Q:
Which of the following may be seen just prior to respiratory arrest?
A) Breathing through the nose, not the mouth
B) Very deep, rapid respirations
C) Agonal respirations
D) Accessory respirations
Q:
Choose the correct completion to this statement regarding IV administration: This route is used to administer medication into the body directly or through the bloodstream and is:
A) beyond the scope of the EMT level.
B) allowed in larger cities and more advanced EMS services.
C) used in advanced life support only when the patient is intubated.
D) only performed on advanced life support services.
Q:
What are the names given to each medication listed in the U.S. Pharmacopoeia?
A) Official, chemical, and generic
B) Manufacturers, general, and governmental
C) Trade, chemical, and generic
D) Trade, brand, and generic
Q:
Your patient is a 59-year-old woman with a history of emphysema. Per protocol, you have assisted the patient in using her medication inhaler. Which of the following must be documented?
A) Chemical name of the medication
B) Expiration date of the medication
C) Patient's response to the medication
D) All of the above
Q:
The EMT, after administering any medication, must do which of the following?
A) Reconsider the five rights, reassess the patient, and contact medical control.
B) Document the administration, reassess the patient, and report to the receiving facility.
C) Wait 5 minutes, repeat the medication if needed, and reassess the patient's vitals.
D) Document the route, dose, and time; reassess the patient; and re-administer the medication.
Q:
The study of the effects of medications on the body in relation to age and weight is called:
A) pharmacology.
B) pharmacodynamics.
C) measurement and documentation.
D) pharmacokinetics.
Q:
Nitroglycerin is given via the ________ route.
A) parenteral
B) lingual
C) sublingual
D) enteral
Q:
Which of the following describes the sublingual route of medication administration?
A) The medication is injected under the skin.
B) The medication is breathed into the lungs, such as from an inhaler.
C) The medication is placed under the tongue.
D) The medication is swallowed whole, not chewed.
Q:
The epinephrine auto-injector is given via the ________ route.
A) oral
B) enteral
C) digestive
D) parenteral