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Q:
What is another term for the frontal aspect of the body?
A) Caudal
B) Dorsal
C) Posterior
D) Anterior
Q:
Your 79-year-old female patient appears to show all signs and symptoms of a stroke. Her level of consciousness has rapidly deteriorated, she is now unconscious, and she can no longer control her own airway. While you intervene to manage her airway, the best position in which to keep fluid or vomitus from occluding her airway would be the:
A) recovery position.
B) Fowler position.
C) Trendelenburg position.
D) prone position.
Q:
The inside of a person's thigh is also known as its ________ aspect.
A) inferior
B) lateral
C) medial
D) axillary
Q:
Which of the following describes the midline of the body?
A) An imaginary line dividing the body into equal right and left halves
B) An imaginary line dividing the body into a top and bottom portion
C) The intersection of two imaginary lines crossing at the umbilicus
D) An imaginary line dividing the body into a front and a back portion
Q:
Which of the following BEST describes the anatomic position?
A) Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent
B) Standing, facing forward, with arms raised above the head
C) Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward
D) Standing in profile with the hands on the hips
Q:
When discussing left and right in terms of anatomic locations, what do they refer to?
A) Left and right from the patient's perspective
B) Whoever is speaking about the anatomic location determines left and right orientation.
C) Anatomic left and right refer to the provider's left and right orientation when facing a patient in the anatomic position.
D) What left and right refer to anatomically is dependent on the patient's positioning when care is provided.
Q:
You and your newly hired EMT partner arrive on the scene of a bicycle collision at the local community park. One cyclist stands by and says that she has no injuries. The other is lying on his side on the bike path, guarding his ribs and holding the lower part of his left leg. Your partner kneels next to the man, introduces herself, and asks, "Can you ambulate?" The patient looks up, confused and in obvious pain. "Can you ambulate? You know"¦walk?" Your partner says, a little louder. After transporting the patient, you discuss the call with your partner and suggest that she avoid using medical terms unnecessarily when talking with patients. She seems insulted and says, "Why?" What would you say?
A) Explain that using large words and medical terms can be seen as being egotistical, which can alienate both patients and other providers.
B) Tell her that the general public isn't smart enough to understand medical terminology and that all communication must be "dumbed down" when talking to patients.
C) Tell her that the point of communicating with patients and other providers is so there is clear understanding; using medical terms when not necessary can cause confusion.
D) You should say that you are an experienced EMT and since she is new, she should just take your advice and apply it.
Q:
Why should an EMT avoid the use of acronyms and abbreviations when communicating?
A) They should only be avoided in verbal communications, where they can be misunderstood; they are expected in written patient care reports.
B) There is a chance that they can lead to errors in continued care for the patient.
C) The medical acronyms and abbreviations used by prehospital care providers and hospital staff are different.
D) Using acronyms and abbreviations is considered unprofessional.
Q:
You and your EMT partner are responding to a medical aid call in the rural West County area. The dispatcher advises that the caller is reporting the patient as having a history of "plegia." Why would it be beneficial to have the dispatcher clarify a prefix for the word plegia?
A) Without a clarifying prefix, it is difficult for the EMTs to effectively prepare for the type of patient they may encounter.
B) Because a dysplegiac patient generally requires an EMT-Paramedic level of care, and it may change the level of response.
C) A patient with plegia is potentially contagious, and the EMTs need to know what precautions are required.
D) There is actually no need to clarify the word.
Q:
A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following?
A) Two fractures in the same femur
B) A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma
C) A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh
D) Fractures of both femurs
Q:
What word would be used to refer to a patient's rapid breathing?
A) Tachycardia
B) Dyspnea
C) Tachypnea
D) Dyseffusion
Q:
While transporting a patient with a traumatic wound to the back, you call in report to the receiving hospital over the radio. Due to radio static and background noise in the Emergency Department, the physician has had to ask you twice to repeat if the wound was superior or inferior. Why would this distinction be important?
A) The physician is just trying to determine if the wound is deep or not so she knows what to prepare for.
B) The answer is not necessarily important. The physician is just focusing on getting her standard questions answered while dealing with an inadequate radio system.
C) The location of the wound is important in determining which types of resources to have available when the patient arrives.
D) It is a triage question to determine if the patient is critical or not so the hospital can prioritize.
Q:
What is the primary reason for an EMT to use specific and proper medical terminology?
A) People may think that an EMT is not intelligent or professional unless she uses medical terms.
B) Medical communication needs to be exact and consistent.
C) It will make patients and family members trust in the EMT's abilities more.
D) EMS providers can't bill for services unless the correct terminology is used in all documentation.
Q:
The term lateral is best defined as:
A) under the arms.
B) toward the middle of.
C) to the back of.
D) to the side.
Q:
The abdominal quadrants include all of the following except the:
A) right upper.
B) left lower.
C) right medial.
D) left upper.
Q:
With regard to medical terminology, a prefix is:
A) added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning.
B) the foundation of a word or term.
C) the combination of any two or more whole words.
D) a modifier that indicates if a term is singular or plural.
Q:
What is the distinction between anatomy and physiology?
A) Anatomy is the study of physical body structures, whereas physiology is the study of emotions and behavior.
B) The terms are synonymous.
C) Anatomy is the study of body components and systems, and physiology is the study of injuries and disease processes.
D) Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body function.
Q:
You are treating an elderly male patient in the back of your ambulance. En route, the patient becomes unresponsive. Upon arrival, the ED nurse asks you several questions about his condition. What should you do?
A) You should answer her questions because you may legally share the patient's medical condition with other pertinent health care providers.
B) You should not disclose the information to the nurse because it is protected confidential information and the patient did not sign a release authorizing you to discuss his condition.
C) You should not disclose the information because HIPAA laws only allow you to provide the information to the emergency department physician.
D) You should disclose the information, as it is not protected by law.
Q:
You respond to a bus accident with multiple patients. As you arrive at the scene, you are approached by a local politician who states that his wife has been involved. He tells you that if you will take care of her first, he will ensure that you get the promotion you are up for. This becomes what type of decision for you as an EMT?
A) Legal
B) Financial
C) Medical
D) Ethical
Q:
Which of the following incidents is the EMT legally required to report to law enforcement?
A) You suspect the wife of the patient you are treating for chest pain has been smoking marijuana.
B) Your patient is an 18-year-old college student who has been consuming large amounts of alcohol at a fraternity party.
C) Your patient is a 12-year-old male who fell from his bicycle, breaking his left arm, and tells you his parents are at work.
D) Your patient has facial and head injuries and states that her husband beat her with a telephone receiver.
Q:
While treating a patient involved in a shooting at the patient's vacation home, which of the following actions may interfere with the investigation of a crime scene?
A) Moving the patient
B) Using the bathroom
C) Using the patient's phone
D) All of the above
Q:
Which of the following is the EMT's primary responsibility at a secured crime scene?
A) Identifying any potential suspects encountered at the scene
B) Providing patient care
C) Taking notes that may be needed during court testimony
D) Preserving evidence
Q:
Which of the following information may be important to law enforcement officers investigating a crime scene?
A) What route you took when responding to the scene
B) How you gained access to the scene
C) Your opinion of what happened before you arrived on-scene
D) Your experience as an EMT
Q:
You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical information about the patient through which of the following?
A) Medical identification device
B) Driver's license
C) Medical history identifier
D) On-call Medical Director
Q:
While documenting a call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This could constitute which of the following?
A) Libel
B) Slander
C) Degradation of character
D) HIPAA violation
Q:
You are providing care to a 54-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. The patient asks to speak to you privately. He tells you he is taking Cialis for erectile dysfunction and his wife does not know he is taking it. He does not want his wife to find out. As you are putting the EMS bags back in the ambulance, the wife corners you and insists that you tell her what her husband said. What should you do?
A) You should tell her. As his spouse, she is legally entitled to know his medical information.
B) You should not tell her. There is no reason to humiliate your patient by disclosing his embarrassing condition.
C) You should tell her. He may be having an affair without her knowledge and she needs to be tested for sexually transmitted diseases.
D) You should not tell her. By law, your conversation with your patient is confidential.
Q:
Which of the following requires training, policies, and procedures related to storing, accessing, and sharing patient information?
A) HIPAA
B) HIAPA
C) EMTALA
D) COBRA
Q:
In which of the following situations is it legal to share information about treatment you provided to a patient?
A) The triage nurse at the emergency department asks about the care you provided to the patient.
B) The patient gives verbal consent to release information to a friend.
C) The patient's lawyer requests the information over the phone.
D) You are asked by a coworker who knows the patient.
Q:
Sharing information about a patient's medical history with your neighbor after you hear a call on a radio scanner would constitute which of the following?
A) Slander
B) Violation of patient privacy
C) Breach of confidentiality
D) Libel
Q:
Which of the following statements is true concerning protection by Good Samaritan laws?
A) A Good Samaritan law allows an EMT to exceed the scope of practice, if necessary, when providing emergency care off-duty.
B) An EMT is expected to act as a lay person when providing emergency care off-duty.
C) The purpose of Good Samaritan laws is to protect people who are trying to help in an emergency.
D) An EMT cannot be sued for negligence if the state in which he works has a Good Samaritan law.
Q:
An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by. The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and help and tries to get the EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping.
B) The EMT is negligent because the patient died.
C) The EMT is not negligent because she had a doctor's appointment.
D) The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act.
Q:
Two EMTs respond to the scene of a syncopal episode. They evaluate a 50-year-old male patient who passed out and cut his upper lip. The EMTs examine the patient and his vital signs are normal. The EMTs talk the patient out of an expensive ambulance ride and suggest he will save money by driving himself to the urgent care clinic for stitches for his lip rather than waiting all night in the emergency department as a nonemergency patient. The patient signs the EMS refusal form. The patient decides to see his own doctor the next morning but dies at his house from sudden cardiac arrest an hour later. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The EMTs are not negligent because the patient signed the refusal form.
B) The EMTs are negligent because the patient died.
C) The EMTs are negligent because there was proximate causation.
D) The EMTs are not negligent because the EMTs have no control over the patient's medical condition.
Q:
Which of the following situations BEST illustrates the act of abandonment by the EMT?
A) The EMT resuscitates a patient who has a DNR order signed by his physician.
B) An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff.
C) An EMT begins care of a patient, then turns the patient over to a paramedic.
D) An EMT who is off-duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable injuries but does not stop to help.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT required to prove a claim of negligence against an EMT?
A) The EMT had a duty to act.
B) Proximate causation existed.
C) The EMT failed to act according to the standard of care.
D) The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident.
Q:
If the EMT is in doubt as to whether a patient in cardiac arrest should be resuscitated, which of the following is the best decision?
A) Have the patient's family put their wishes in writing.
B) Withhold resuscitative measures.
C) Consult with the patient's physician.
D) Begin resuscitative measures.
Q:
You are on the scene with a 72-year-old male patient with chest pain. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath but also refuses to go to the hospital, even after multiple attempts urging him to go. Which of the following should you do next?
A) Stay with the patient until he loses consciousness.
B) Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care.
C) Inform the patient that he is having a "heart attack" and must be taken to the hospital for evaluation.
D) Contact medical direction for orders to restrain the patient.
Q:
Your patient is a 45-year-old man who is suffering from chest pain. Upon arrival, the patient is pale, sweaty, and seems short of breath. The patient is angry with his daughter for calling 911. He says that he had some spicy sausage for breakfast and has indigestion. Which of the following is an appropriate means of getting the patient the care he needs?
A) Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital.
B) Call the patient's neighbors and tell them that you have been called to the patient's house but he is now refusing care.
C) Inform the patient that if he does not agree to treatment, you will have to take him against his will because he has a potentially life-threatening problem.
D) Tell the patient that his chest pain is most likely caused by his diet, have him take an antacid, and go to bed.
Q:
In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative measures from a patient in cardiac arrest?
A) The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician.
B) The EMT's religious beliefs permit withholding resuscitation, and the caregiver presents documentation of the patient's wishes.
C) Family members request that nothing be done.
D) All of the above
Q:
The EMT's obligation to provide care to a patient either as a formal or ethical responsibility is known as which of the following?
A) Legal responsibility
B) Scope of practice
C) Duty to act
D) Standard of care
Q:
You arrive on the scene of a 55-year-old male patient. The patient's wife called 911 because he is having chest pains. The patient is very angry with his wife for calling 911 because he states he only has heartburn and adamantly refuses any treatment or transport. After signing the patient refusal form, the patient collapses and goes into sudden cardiac arrest. The wife is crying uncontrollably and begging you to do something. What should you do?
A) Respect his legal right to not have any treatment, regardless of how much the wife begs you to help.
B) Explain to the wife that her husband signed a legal document refusing care, and if you intervened to help him now, you would be breaking the law.
C) Provide emergency care for the patient only if his wife signs a document stating they will not sue the EMS service.
D) Provide emergency care under implied consent.
Q:
You respond to a middle school for a 12-year-old male patient who has been hit by a car. You get consent to treat the patient from the school principal. What concept allows the principal to speak for the parents?
A) In loco parentis
B) Informed consent
C) Res ipsa loquitur
D) Healthcare proxy
Q:
Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a friend's house. Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain consent for treatment?
A) Act on implied consent.
B) Get consent from the patient's 15-year-old sister, who is at the scene.
C) Call the patient's mother at work.
D) Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor.
Q:
Your patient is a 40-year-old known diabetic who was found unconscious at work by a coworker. What type of consent allows you to treat this patient?
A) Consent for treatment of minor emergencies
B) Consent for mentally incompetent adults
C) Expressed consent
D) Implied consent
Q:
Which of the following refers to the care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation?
A) Scope of practice
B) Standard of practice
C) Protocols and standing orders
D) Professional standards
Q:
The administration of oxygen and the application of spinal immobilization is part of which of the following for the EMT?
A) Duty to act
B) Standard of care
C) Scope of practice
D) None of the above
Q:
Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected and limitations placed on the EMT?
A) Scope of practice
B) Legal standards of practice
C) Protocols and standing orders
D) Professional standards
Q:
Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a mentally competent adult?
A) Unconditional consent
B) Expressed consent
C) Conscious consent
D) Implied consent
Q:
You are moving an elderly patient down the stairs using a stair chair. The patient is alert and very anxious. What should you do prior to moving the patient to prevent her from grabbing the railing and causing you to fall?
A) Explain to the patient what you are doing and advise her to hold her hands together and not let go until you are finished moving her.
B) Gently tie the patient's hands together until you are downstairs to prevent her from unconsciously grabbing the railing.
C) Use a strap to safely secure the patient's arms to the chair without causing any loss of circulation to the patient's extremities.
D) Place the patient on oxygen during the move to calm her down.
Q:
You respond to the scene of a two-vehicle T-bone vehicle collision. The driver's side door is smashed shut and will not open. The front passenger door will open. The front passenger is stable and complaining of severe head and neck pain. You suspect that he has a potential spinal injury. The driver is unresponsive, in critical condition, and has gurgling respirations. You should extricate the passenger by which technique?
A) Carefully move the patient using full c-spine precautions.
B) Take extra care to protect the passenger's neck with a KED board or short spine board because of the injury.
C) Move the patient out of the car as quickly as possible, in the direction of the long axis of the body.
D) Move the patient as quickly as possible so he can get to a hospital before paralysis sets in.
Q:
Which of the following is used to immobilize a patient with a suspected spinal injury?
A) Portable stretcher
B) Long backboard
C) Basket stretcher
D) Scoop stretcher
Q:
You are treating an unconscious patient who does not have a possibility of spinal injury and who is breathing adequately. Which of the following is the BEST position for transporting the patient?
A) Supine
B) Fowler position
C) Semi-Fowler position
D) Recovery position
Q:
For a patient without a possibility of spinal injury, which of the following carries should be used to move him from a bed to a stretcher?
A) Firefighter's carry
B) Direct-ground lift
C) Draw-sheet method
D) Extremity lift
Q:
You are called to the scene of a patient who fell approximately 5 feet off a stepladder to the floor of a third-story attic of a very old building. He is complaining of severe neck and back pain, and he has an obvious fractured ankle. You cannot get your stretcher past the first-floor stairs and your long spine board is not practical with the winding spiral staircase and the small attic access. What is the best device to safely get the patient out of the attic where he can be properly immobilized?
A) Scoop stretcher
B) Stair chair
C) Flexible stretcher
D) Vest-type extrication device
Q:
What is the contraindication for the use of a scoop or orthopedic stretcher?
A) Internal injuries
B) Hip fracture
C) Pelvic injury
D) Spinal injury
Q:
Which of the following should you use when you want to move a patient from a wheelchair to a stretcher?
A) Ground transfer
B) Extremity lift
C) Clothing lift
D) Modified direct lift
Q:
You respond to a 48-year-old morbidly obese female patient. Her adult daughter called you because she has not gotten up from her oversized recliner chair in over a week. She has tried to help her out of the chair but states that each time her mother screams in agony. The foul odor presence of urine and feces is strong around the patient. Her feet do not touch the ground, and any attempt to lift the patient by her arms or scoot her down to the end of the chair results in severe pain to the patient. You are finding it nearly impossible to get a good grip on the patient. How will you get her out of the chair?
A) Soft stretcher
B) Long spine board
C) Lie the chair back and use a scoop stretcher
D) Vest-type extrication device
Q:
You and your partner arrive on the scene of a 400-pound patient lying in bed. He complains of nausea and vomiting for the past 3 days. When he tries to sit up, he gets very dizzy and has a syncopal episode. Realizing that he cannot assist you in getting on the stretcher, you decide to do which of the following?
A) Use the patient's sheets to slide him over to the stretcher.
B) Place the patient on a backboard to provide better gripping points to move the patient.
C) Use the power lift technique to carefully and safely lift the patient to the stretcher.
D) Call for additional manpower to move the patient.
Q:
What type of move should the EMT use to move a patient who is in a car that has started to burn?
A) Non-urgent move
B) Emergency move
C) No attempt to move
D) Urgent move
Q:
Which of the following is another name for an ambulance cot?
A) Stair chair
B) Reeve's stretcher
C) Scoop stretcher
D) Wheeled ambulance stretcher
Q:
Which urgent move should be performed for a patient seated in a vehicle?
A) Rapid immobilization
B) Rapid extrication
C) Rapid takedown
D) Rapid takeout
Q:
Urgent moves are required when:
A) an emergency move is not possible.
B) rapid transport is necessary.
C) performed for treatment of life threats along with precautions for spinal injuries.
D) there are no life threats and conditions are stable.
Q:
During an emergency move, which of the following techniques should be used, whenever possible, to minimize the possibility of further aggravating a possible spinal injury?
A) Move the patient in the direction of the long axis of the body.
B) Pull the patient from the feet, not the shoulders.
C) Roll the patient over.
D) Move the patient sideways, alternating between moving the shoulders, then the hips.
Q:
Stretchers that are designed to carry obese patients weighing up to 800 pounds (or more) are called:
A) battery-powered stretchers.
B) wheeled stretchers.
C) hydraulic stretchers.
D) bariatric stretchers.
Q:
What is the likely impact of power stretchers on EMS?
A) There is no likely impact of power stretchers on EMS.
B) There will be a decrease in the number of injuries among EMTs.
C) Insurance reimbursement will increase for ambulance services.
D) There will be an increase in the number of home health transfers.
Q:
How many pounds are most battery-powered hydraulic systems rated to safely lift?
A) 300
B) 500
C) 700
D) 200
Q:
Which of the following patients should NOT be transported in a stair chair?
A) Patient with difficulty breathing
B) Patient who is nauseated
C) Patient with a suspected spinal injury
D) Patient found lying in bed
Q:
What is the main benefit of using a stair chair with a track-like system over a traditional stair chair?
A) A stair chair with a track-like system can be manipulated to lift into an ambulance using a hydraulic system.
B) A stair chair with a track-like system prevents the patient from having to be lifted down stairs.
C) There is no benefit of a track-like stair chair over a traditional stair chair.
D) Only one EMT is required to operate a stair chair with a track-like system.
Q:
Which of the following devices should be used to carry a patient down the stairs whenever possible?
A) Stair chair
B) Scoop stretcher
C) Basket stretcher
D) Wheeled ambulance stretcher
Q:
You have responded to a multiple casualty incident involving an overturned bus. Patients have been thrown around the interior of the bus and several are piled on top of each other. What type of move would you perform to gain access to the most critically injured patients?
A) Non-urgent move
B) Extremity lift
C) Urgent move
D) Emergency move
Q:
You have responded to a nursing home and find an elderly patient in his bed in cardiac arrest. Which type of move would you perform to get the patient to a hard surface so you can perform chest compressions?
A) Non-urgent move
B) Clothing drag
C) Urgent move
D) Emergency move
Q:
What is the preferred number of rescuers when using a stair chair?
A) Two: one in front and one in back
B) Only one with the track-like chair
C) Four: one for each corner of the device
D) Three: two lifting and one spotting
Q:
What should you NOT do when using a stair chair?
A) Lean forward from the hips.
B) Keep your back straight.
C) Lean forward from the waist.
D) Flex your knees.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT correct when performing a log roll?
A) Keep your back straight.
B) Lean forward from the hips.
C) Use your shoulder muscles.
D) Place both feet flat on the ground.
Q:
Which of the following devices is best suited for maneuvering a patient through a narrow hallway?
A) Long backboard
B) Flexible stretcher
C) Wheeled stretcher
D) Basket stretcher
Q:
When a stretcher with a patient secured to it is elevated, what occurs?
A) The patient feels more comfortable being at near normal height.
B) The center of gravity is raised and this causes a tip hazard.
C) The stretcher is more stable and easily pushed.
D) The EMTs lessen the possibility of injury from being bent over the patient.
Q:
You respond to a call at a park where you find a 550-pound patient who has fallen down a slope near a creek. As you and your partner discuss the situation, you decide to call a second unit for lifting assistance. Once the patient is on a stretcher, how would the additional two personnel help in this lift?
A) You place one person on each corner of the stretcher to balance the weight and share in the lifting.
B) They would position themselves half way up the slope to take over when you and your partner get fatigued.
C) You will place two persons at the foot, one at the head, and the other to act as a safety anchor with a rope.
D) You will place two persons at the head of the stretcher, one at the foot, and one to act as a spotter.
Q:
Which of the following best describes an urgent move?
A) Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board
B) Dragging a patient from a burning house using his shirt
C) Using a sheet to move a patient from a bed to the stretcher
D) Pulling a patient by her feet across a parking lot
Q:
Which of the following should you do when reaching for something?
A) Keep your back in a locked-in position.
B) Avoid twisting.
C) Avoid reaching more than 15 to 20 inches in front of your body.
D) All of the above
Q:
If the weight being pulled is below the level of the EMT's waist, he should be in a(n) ________ position.
A) squatting
B) kneeling
C) feet-together
D) overhead
Q:
Which of the following is another name for the squat-lift position?
A) Power grip
B) Power lift
C) Weight-lifter technique
D) Direct carry