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Q:
Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for patient care rendered by the EMT?
A) EMS supervisor
B) EMT
C) Director of quality assurance
D) Medical Director
Q:
Which of the following is a role of the EMT in the quality improvement process?
A) Taking responsibility for the actions of one's partner
B) Writing complete patient care reports
C) Critiquing performance of one's partner
D) Assuring personal safety
Q:
The EMT's role in the quality improvement process includes becoming involved in the quality process, keeping carefully written documentation, obtaining feedback from patients and the hospital staff, continuing your education, and which of the following?
A) Writing protocols and standing orders
B) Maintaining your equipment
C) Providing quality care
D) Being a member of the QI committee
Q:
After delivering a patient to the emergency department, you discuss with hospital staff the details of your care and ask for suggestions to improve your care. This is an example of your role in which of the following?
A) Patient advocacy
B) Transfer of care
C) Quality improvement
D) Continuing education
Q:
Why is it important for EMTs to participate in quality improvement programs?
A) To ensure that individuals making false calls for EMS are prosecuted
B) To identify problem employees and create a corrective action plan
C) To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence
D) To ensure adequate personnel are available for emergencies
Q:
You have just come on duty. The EMT on the previous shift complains to you that the QI manager was giving him grief because he did not document three sets of vital signs on the patient record. The EMT is angry and does not understand why documenting three sets of vital signs is so important. What is the best answer you could give him?
A) Vital signs are something you have to fill out because the state requires it.
B) The recording of three sets of vital signs demonstrates that you were trending the patient's condition.
C) It is important you show the QI manager that you are a team player.
D) The report looks better when all the boxes are filled out.
Q:
The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) was founded to establish which of the following?
A) An education curriculum for EMT courses
B) Quality oversight of emergency medical services practices
C) National standards for emergency medical services personnel
D) Quality improvement and quality assurance programs for emergency medical services
Q:
What is NOT one the common settings that an EMT may work in?
A) Rural/wilderness settings
B) Ambulance services
C) Hospitals
D) Fire departments
Q:
Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should demonstrate?
A) Self-starter
B) Strong student
C) Strong communication
D) Good eyesight
Q:
During the new employee orientation, the training officer meets with the new EMTs and explains to them the monthly training schedule and the classes they must attend for EMT recertification. One of the new EMTs asks the training officer why they have to keep taking EMT courses if they already passed the EMT examination. What is the best answer?
A) The state requires the training.
B) EMTs forget everything once they pass the EMT exam.
C) It looks good to a jury should the service be sued.
D) EMS is constantly evolving in response to evidence-based research.
Q:
Which of the following best describes training that supplements the EMT's original training and that is usually taken in regular intervals?
A) Distance education
B) EMT training program
C) Recertification
D) Continuing education
Q:
Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs?
A) Ability to lift and carry 125 pounds
B) Awareness of problems with color vision
C) Ability to dominate the patient
D) Control of personal habits
Q:
Which of the following is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an EMT?
A) Nonjudgmental and fair
B) Ability to lift and carry 200 pounds
C) Ability to speak clearly
D) Ability to remain calm in stressful situations
Q:
To be compassionate and empathetic, to be accurate with interviews, and to inspire confidence are all examples of which of the personal traits of a quality EMT?
A) Able to listen to others
B) Pleasant
C) Judgmental but fair
D) Emotionally stable
Q:
Which of the following BEST describes a person who speaks up on behalf of the patient and supports his cause?
A) Guardian
B) Assistant
C) Advocate
D) Representative
Q:
Who is responsible for on-scene safety of EMS providers?
A) Traffic director
B) Law enforcement
C) All crew members
D) Triage officer
Q:
Which of the following is a component of patient advocacy?
A) Immobilizing the neck of a patient with a possible spinal injury
B) Granting patient wishes and not reporting spousal abuse to the authorities
C) Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital
D) Providing oxygen to a patient that is short of breath
Q:
Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient's condition, observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the following?
A) Transfer of care
B) Breach of duty
C) Definitive care
D) End of tour
Q:
What BEST defines the evaluation of the patient's condition in order to provide emergency care?
A) Patient access
B) Patient assessment
C) Medical intervention
D) Patient advocacy
Q:
Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT?
A) Protect and stabilize the patient
B) Communicate with other responders on the scene
C) Maintain personal health and safety
D) Provide emergency care
Q:
What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care?
A) Advanced EMT
B) Emergency Medical Responder
C) Emergency Medical Technician
D) Paramedic
Q:
What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes use of advanced airway devices and some prehospital medication administration?
A) Advanced EMT
B) Paramedic
C) Emergency Medical Responder
D) EMT
Q:
What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and provides immediate care for life-threatening problems?
A) Emergency Medical Dispatcher
B) Cardiac care responder
C) EMT
D) Emergency Medical Responder
Q:
What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct patient care?
A) Emergency Medical Technician
B) Emergency Medical Responder
C) Advanced EMT
D) Emergency Ambulance Driver
Q:
Which of the following BEST describes a communication system capable of identifying the number and location of the phone from which a caller is calling?
A) Data display 911
B) Priority dispatch 911
C) Enhanced 911
D) Advanced 911
Q:
Which of the following is the most common gateway for hospital services for patients who need emergency medical assistance?
A) Emergency department
B) Emergency medical services system
C) Surgical services department
D) Emergency medical dispatch center
Q:
What has the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system been developed to provide?
A) Prehospital care
B) Prompt emergency response
C) Safe emergency transportation
D) Trained medical personnel
Q:
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system?
A) To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital
B) To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on the scene
C) To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and "do no harm," while providing prompt transport to the hospital
D) To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital care
Q:
Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS system assessment programs?
A) Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)
B) National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)
C) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
D) United States Health Services Agency (HSA)
Q:
Centralized coordination of emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to which of the following?
A) Emergency preparedness plan
B) Trauma system
C) Resource management
D) Central deployment
Q:
In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards?
A) U.S. Department of Transportation
B) U.S. Department of the Interior
C) U.S. Department of Health Services
D) U.S. Department of Homeland Security
Q:
Which of the following groups is credited with developing the earliest documented emergency medical service?
A) The Spanish
B) The Egyptians
C) The Mayans
D) The French
Q:
Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS system?
A) Quality improvement
B) System effectiveness management
C) Process Improvement Plan (PIP)
D) Total quality system
Q:
Match each item with a statement below:a. task-shiftingb. Joint Learning Initiative (JLI)c. medical tourismd. Ethiopia Public Health Training Initiative (EPHTI)e. Commonwealth Code of Practicef. Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)g. Technological and medical innovationh. patient classification system (PCS)i. Health Extension Programj. Global Health Workforce Alliance (GHWA) 1) Aims to improve the quality of pre-service training to health science professionals2) Adopted by the United Nations in 2000 with the aim of reducing global poverty3) Used as a strategy to alleviate health worker shortages and to improve access and quality of health services4) Used for paying hospitals for services provided5) Places a strong emphasis on mutuality of benefits for both "recruiting" and "source" countries6) Network of global health leaders, launched by the Rockefeller Foundation7) Flow of patients around the globe8) Increases the demand for healthcare worldwide9) Aims to improve primary health services in rural areas through an innovative community-based approach that focuses on prevention, healthy living and basic curative care10) Established to identify and implement solutions to the global health workforce crisis
Q:
____________________, when applied to health care, refers to the discovery and deployment of significant differences in a nation's cost, quality, or access such that a medical or surgical procedure, health activity or service creates patient value.
Q:
The ____________________ of health care related flow is important; we should not assume that what developed countries have should flow to the less developed countries or vice versa.
Q:
Resources and ideas do not cross national borders seamlessly; a host of possible barriers exists, including regulatory, political, ____________________, and cultural barriers.
Q:
Creating an environment that attracts and retains health professionals has become a focus of many ____________________ countries' attempts to stem the brain drain of health care workers.
Q:
One of the positive financial implications of labor migration from low-income to high income countries is the value of ____________________ to families in low-income countries.
Q:
In an increasingly globalized labor market, national health systems can no longer rely on the commitment of graduates to work within their own country, and so must look to the ____________________ labor market to meet their demands for health professionals.
Q:
When health care organizations depend on patients from ____________________, the environment can become problem-filled.
Q:
When services are under-funded, and patient demand exceeds the capacity constraint, the result is ____________________, bottlenecks, and longer wait times for all services.
Q:
Data on medical travellers often comes from ____________________ boards, newspaper accounts, and government estimates of hospital claims, social media, stakeholder media, or hospital websites.
Q:
The term "The world is flat", coined by Thomas Friedman, means that a variety of forces leveled the playing field of ____________________ around the globe and, as such, significant economic opportunities opened up for countries such as China and India.
Q:
The number of ____ is highly associated with the degree of local healthcare infrastructure.a. physicians c. hospitalsb. infant deaths d. foreign patients
Q:
____ innovation, such as teleradiology, can change the landscape of health care across national borders.a. Regulatory c. Economicb. Political d. Technological
Q:
One conclusion that can be drawn from the history of the cross border flow of patient classification systems is that the search for improved instruments, tools, and practices will help to ____ costs in health care.a. maximize c. containb. distribute d. deflect
Q:
____ allow hospitals to be paid prospectively rather than being reimbursed retrospectively on the basis of what they charged.a. Diagnosis-Related Groups (DRGs) c. Medically-Related Groups (MRGs)b. Diagnosis-Standard Groups (DSGs) d. Medically-Standard Groups (MSGs)
Q:
____ workers are health care providers who have received less training and have a more restricted scope of practice than professionals.a. Subsidiary c. Mid-levelb. Primary d. First-level
Q:
The prospect of ____ is believed to be a pivotal factor in the decision of health care professionals to migrate.a. financial gain c. increased professional opportunitiesb. political freedom d. higher prestige
Q:
The flow of patients out of their country to obtain ____ raises ethical questions, especially about efficacy and safety.a. artificial medical devices c. organ transplantsb. cosmetic surgery d. routine surgeries
Q:
A large number of patient-centered, integrated health care organizations are attracting patients across national borders because they offer high quality and high ____.a. value c. expendituresb. volume d. efficiency
Q:
Several factors affecting a patient's willingness to travel out of their country to seek heath care include: clinical reputation, affordability, and the value versus ____ factor.a. convenience c. loanb. sacrifice d. exchange rate
Q:
A hallmark of increasing ____ is the increasing openness of national borders to flows of goods and services, financial and human capital, information, and expertise.a. commerce c. tradeb. globalization d. alliances
Q:
Match each item with a statement below:a. confidentialityb. High Deductible Health Plans (HDHPs)c. Institutional Review Boardsd. HIPAA legislatione. Flexible Spending Arrangements (FSAs)f. Consumer-driven health plans (CDHPs)g. Complementary and alternative medicine (CAM)h. fidelityi. nonmaleficencej. Patient Safety and Privacy Act (PSQIA) 1) Offers a broad provider network, limited involvement with medical management, higher deductibles and lower premiums2) Designed to allow the employee greater choice in their health care thus enabling them to be wise consumers3) Administrative entities established by institutions to protect the ethical rights of human subjects who participate in research conducted under their supervision4) Specifies regulations for the privacy of personal health information, portability of health insurance, and organization of the interchange of electronic data for certain financial and administrative operations5) Health and medical practices that are not considered to be part of conventional Western medicine or standard care6) Relates to the duty to "not inflict harm on others"7) Created a voluntary reporting system pertaining to data utilized in patient safety and health care quality concerns8) Obligation to honor commitments9) Pertains to the nature of having the expectation of certain privacy and non-disclosure regarding information relayed to another person10) Offers tax advantages to assist in offsetting health care expenses
Q:
In 1973 the American Hospital Association (AMA) approved the use of the____________________ of Rights, prompting health care organizations to specifically define these rights.
Q:
____________________ refers to truth-telling or the quality of truthfulness.
Q:
The principle of____________________ relates to the right or choice of being alone, undisturbed, or free from public attention or intrusion.
Q:
Consumerism and the increasing demands of consumers as active participants in their health care decisions may cause controversies between ____________________ decision-making and treatment options.
Q:
One form of medicine that caters to the diagnosis and treatment of non-life threatening conditions are ____________________ health care clinics often referred to as minor emergency clinics, doc-in-a box, urgent care clinics, or convenient care clinics.
Q:
Emphasis on the customer as the consumer of services has changed the health care environment toward a more ____________________, sales-oriented approach to health care service delivery.
Q:
____________________ social networks are a type of social network that links users to common health or medical themes or areas of interest such as Lou Gehrig's Disease (PatientsLikeMe) or genetics (23andMe).
Q:
____________________ are tax-exempt financial accounts used to reimburse medical expenses not covered under existing health plans.
Q:
Consumer awareness of service/product quality and cost are key drivers of ____________________ in health care.
Q:
____________________ is defined as "doctrine advocating a continual increase in the consumption of goods as a basis for a sound economy" or "advocacy of the rights of consumers."
Q:
The ____ is a branch of the U.S. Department of Health & Human Services that provides leadership regarding protection of human subjects involved in research activities.
a. Office for Ethical Conduct in Human Research (OECHR)
b. Office for Research Subject Safety (ORSS)
c. Office for Protection of People in Research Projects (OPPRP)
d. Office for Human Research Protections (OHRP)
Q:
____ is the discipline concerned with ethical questions and actions in medicine and biology.a. Bioregulation c. Bioethicsb. Biointegrity d. Biofeedback
Q:
____ pertains to the obligation to do good, prevent or remove harm, and to act in a kind or benevolent manner.a. Justice c. Accountabilityb. Malice d. Beneficence
Q:
____ refers to the freedom to follow or act according to one's own will.a. Autonomy c. Motivationb. Responsibility d. Ambition
Q:
____ Care is a form of medical care delivery that caters to the wealthy and upper middle classes.a. Supreme c. Conciergeb. Elite d. Elevated
Q:
As the pace and stress of patients' lives increases, rapid accessibility to care and treatment for routine health concerns becomes a ____ need.a. clinical c. peripheralb. governmental d. market
Q:
A report on health information technology use among U.S. men and women aged 18-64 by Cohen & Stussman (2010) noted that ____ of adults in the U.S. used the Internet to search for health or medical information.a. 21% c. 61%b. 42% d. 78%
Q:
As longevity increases, so does the propensity for ____ disease and the need for self- help and self-care in order to achieve quality of life.a. acute c. chronicb. rare d. incurable
Q:
Bachman identified six "mega-trends" that impact the demand-control model. These include ____, self-help/self-care, individual ownership, portability, transparency (right to know), and consumerism (empowerment).a. personal strength c. community responsibilityb. personal responsibility d. community strength
Q:
A ____ is "a person who uses up a commodity; a purchaser of goods or services, a customer" as opposed to one who produces goods or services (producer or provider).a. client c. manufacturerb. patient d. consumer
Q:
Match each item with a statement below:a. systems development life cycle (SDLC)b. reporting and population health managementc. electronic communication and connectivityd. results managemente. Regional Health Information Organizations (RHIOs)f. patient supportg. decision supporth. health information and datai. administrative processesj. order entry and support 1) Brings together unaffiliated stakeholders with clinical data (such as physician practices, labs, hospitals, and pharmacies)2) Facilitates and simplifies such processes as scheduling, prior authorizations, and insurance verification3) Employs computerized clinical decision-support capabilities such as reminders, alerts, and computer-assisted diagnosing4) Incorporates use of computerized provider order entry, particularly in ordering medications5) Includes everything from patient education materials to home monitoring to telehealth6) Manages all types of results (for example, laboratory test results, radiology procedure results) electronically7) Includes medical and nursing diagnoses, a medication list, allergies, demographics, clinical narratives, and laboratory test results8) Provides a generic methodology for selecting, acquiring, implementing and maintaining a system9) Establishes standardized terminology and data formats for public and private sector reporting requirements10) Enables those involved in patient care to communicate effectively with each other and with the patient
Q:
In order for the organization to assess the impact of IS on the ability of the organization to achieve its strategic goals, the organization must link its IS ____________________ to its organizational strategy.
Q:
The Lewin/Schein model of change management has three stages: unfreezing, moving, and ____________________.
Q:
Once the executive team defines the IS portfolio of funded projects, project ____________________ becomes crucial to the success of the project.
Q:
Standard strategic planning tools used to determine what kind of IS capabilities an organization needs in order to achieve its goals and objectives include analysis of the internal and external environments and the identification of strategic opportunities and ____________________.