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Q:
Feeny and Willcocks (1998) developed a framework for a high-performing IS function that categorizes certain capabilities as important for the organization to be able to stay informed of its demand-side needs and its IS investments; these capabilities include such things as governance, management, business strategy, and information ____________________.
Q:
It is fundamentally important that an organization recognize the benefits of aligning its IS function with its organizational strategy; this recognition can be influenced by the role played by the ____________________.
Q:
The most frequently cited barrier to health information technology is ___________________.
Q:
One function of an electronic health record (EHR) is to enable health information ____________________ across organizational boundaries and more fully engage the patient in his or her own care through home monitoring and telehealth.
Q:
____________________ is a general term that is often used to describe a broad range of technologies for transmitting and managing health information for use by consumers, providers, payers, insurers, and others interested in health care.
Q:
Twenty years ago, the Institute of Medicine published a landmark report that outlined the numerous problems inherent with ____________________ medical record systems and called for the widespread adoption of electronic health record (EHR) systems.
Q:
The three main activities most helpful in successfully managing change in IS projects are communicating, training, and providing ____.a. guidance c. feedbackb. a framework d. incentives
Q:
Project planning includes developing a project schedule, ____, and staffing.a. organizing c. budgetsb. creating a board d. designing
Q:
The construction phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC) includes system design, building, and ____.a. testing c. marketingb. selling d. contracting
Q:
One advantage of achieving strategic alignment is that it tends to lead to a critical factor in the success of IS projects, which is executive level and ____ leadership support.a. clinical c. governmentb. patient advocacy d. administrative
Q:
Successful strategic ____ should result in a set of IS projects that the organization has identified as important to its strategic direction or for sustaining existing capabilities.a. values c. implementationb. governance d. alignment
Q:
One approach to aligning the IS function with the rest of the organization includes the idea that IS function should ____ that of the organization.a. control c. supplementb. unite d. mirror
Q:
The overarching goal of assisting physicians and hospitals in adopting electronic health records (EHR) that meet industry standards is to have the technology used as a tool to accomplish health outcome policy priorities such as ____.
a. reducing patient complaints
b. improving care coordination
c. reducing costs for patients
d. improving profits for health care organizations
Q:
Approximately ____ of hospitals are estimated to have fully operational electronic health record (EHR) systems.a. 8-15% c. 30-42%b. 20-28% d. 45-51%
Q:
A(n) ____ is generally managed and controlled by the patient or consumer.a. personal health record (PHR) c. personal medical record (PMR)b. electronic health record (EHR) d. electronic medical record (EMR)
Q:
The ____ (HITECH Act) sets forth a plan for advancing the appropriate use of health information technology to improve quality of care and establish a foundation for the electronic exchange and use of health information systems.
a. Health Information Transfer for Electronic Clinical Health Act
b. Health Information Technology for Electronic Clinical Health Act
c. Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act
d. Health Information Transfer for Economic and Clinical Health Act
Q:
Match each item with a statement below:a. Sherman Actb. Administrative Procedures Actc. False Claims Act (FCA)d. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)e. Stark Physician Self-Referral Law (Stark)f. Prospective Payment System (PPS)g. Anti-Kickback Statute (AKS)h. Medicaidi. Clayton Actj. Food and Drug Administration 1) Prohibits knowingly submitting or causing to be submitted a false claim to the government2) Combined federal and state program that provides medical assistance to low-income individuals and families3) Determines the process of promulgating regulations4) Principal federal government agency for health care5) Fixed payment system for inpatient services based on a patient's specific diagnosis within Medicare system6) Prohibits physicians from referring patients to certain health services providers with which the physicians have a financial relationship7) Prohibits mergers, acquisitions and joint ventures that threaten to substantially lessen competition or are likely to create a monopoly8) Exercises influence through regulatory efforts to ensure the safety and efficacy of drugs and medical devices9) Prohibits contracts and other agreements that unreasonably restrain trade10) Prohibits the knowing and willful solicitation or receipt of remuneration by any person in connection with items or services for which payment could be made by Medicare or Medicaid
Q:
To successfully navigate through the complex regulatory environment, health care organizations (HCOs) often appoint a regulatory ____________________.
Q:
____________________ principles affect the interaction between federal and state laws, stating that if federal and state laws directly conflict, the federal law applies.
Q:
____________________ serves as a primary mechanism by which states regulate the quality of care provided by health care organizations.
Q:
One concern that the Health Care Quality Improvement Act (HCQIA) addressed was the weaknesses in existing peer ____________________ processes.
Q:
The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) ____________________, with the cooperation of the Department of Justice, dedicates considerable resources to enforcing federal fraud and abuse laws.
Q:
The United States health care industry comprises a relatively large number of organizations that are ____________________ from paying most if not all taxes including income, property and sales taxes.
Q:
The purpose of the ___________________ laws is to promote competition based on the conviction that competitive markets bring benefits of relatively lower consumer prices, higher output, and greater innovation.
Q:
"____________________" authority allows the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) to state that a health care organization meets CMS certification requirements.
Q:
____________________, created by a 1965 statute, is the federal health insurance program for the elderly and disabled.
Q:
With the increasing intersection between health care delivery and the law, health care executives must confront a wide range of regulatory ____________________ issues that affect how health care institutions operate.
Q:
An emerging cost containment strategy is to encourage comparative ____ research.a. physician output c. clinical effectivenessb. practitioner competency d. health care incentive
Q:
The 1999 report by the Institute of Medicine, To Err is Human: Building a Safer Health System, stated that between ____ deaths could be attributed to preventable medical errors.a. 400 and 980 c. 44,000 and 98,000b. 4,000 and 9,800 d. 440,000 and 980,000
Q:
In many states, a health care facility cannot be constructed, renovated, or expanded without obtaining a ____.a. contract of negotiation (CON) c. certificate of need (CON)b. contract of need (CON) d. certificate of negotiation (CON)
Q:
The ____ stores information regarding physicians' and dentists' professional competence and conduct.
a. National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB)
b. Network of Competencies Data Bank (NCDB)
c. National Record of Health Care Provider Competencies (NRHCPC)
d. Network of Known Practitioner Errors (NKPE)
Q:
The ____ of 1986 is designed to prevent institutions from denying care to anyone seeking emergency medical treatment, regardless of citizenship, insurance status, or ability to pay.
a. Emergency Medical Transfer and Litigation Act (EMTALA)
b. Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act (EMTALA)
c. Emergency Medical Treatment and Litigation Act (EMTALA)
d. Emergency Medical Transfer and Labor Act (EMTALA)
Q:
The ____ (HIPAA) limits the ability of new employers to exclude coverage for preexisting conditions.
a. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
b. Health Inspection Portability and Accountability Act
c. Heath Insurance Preferentially and Accountability Act
d. Health Inspection Preferentially and Accountability Act
Q:
A ____ is used by the IRS for assessing whether hospitals are operated to serve a charitable purpose.
a. community reduction standard
b. community benefit standard
c. common benefit structure
d. common reduction structure
Q:
One challenge that the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) faces is to balance the public demand for speedy access to newly developed drugs against the ____ that might accompany an accelerated approval process.a. excitement c. risksb. rewards d. failures
Q:
An example of an agency within the Department of Health and Human Services is the ____.
a. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
b. National Physicians Institute (NPI)
c. Committee for Health and Cooperation (CHC)
d. Center for Family Medicine (CFM)
Q:
____ is the governmental oversight of the private marketplace.a. Allegiance c. Controlb. Procedure d. Regulation
Q:
Match each item with a statement below:a. physician-hospital organizations (PHOs)b. competitive partnerc. indifferent partnerd. pooling alliancese. quasi-cooperative partnerf. integrated salary models (ISMs)g. medicare prospective payment system (PPS)h. cooperative partneri. U.S. Memoriesj. trading alliances 1) Constitutes joint ventures designed to develop new services2) Altered the financial incentives of hospitals by using fixed, per-case payments and leaving physician incentives untouched3) Constitutes vertically integrated arrangements in which the hospital acquires the physician's practice4) Perceives the gains of the alliance partner as implying a loss for them, even when really there is no such trade-off5) Not particularly interested in the strategic aspirations of the other partner in the alliance relationship6) Interested in maximizing the joint gains in the alliance relationship, and recognizes that such maximization requires attention to what you need to achieve in the alliance7) Brings together organizations seeking to contribute different resources8) Interested in making sure that you receive just enough value from the alliance so that you will not exit9) Brings together organizations seeking to contribute similar resources10) Conceived to provide a secure supply of chips for U.S. computer makers who were unhappy with the occasional shortages and price fluctuations
Q:
____________________ on alliances in the past 20 years has produced useful results that can guide managerial action.
Q:
Many times a partner fails to take into adequate account the variety of partner types or partner ____________________ that exist.
Q:
Alliance problems can be viewed as generally falling into the following categories: environmental problems, strategy problems, structure problems and ___________________ problems.
Q:
The fourth stage of development of alliances can be considered a critical ____________________.
Q:
The third stage of an alliance's life cycle is that of ____________________ and growth.
Q:
Environmental threats, ___________________, and uncertainty lead organizations with similar ideologies and dependencies to seek out each other.
Q:
The supplier-provider alliances are important for an industry where there has historically been much ____________________ between the two parties and little successful alliance formation in the past.
Q:
One way of classifying the intent of an alliance is the degree to which the alliance seeks to enhance outcomes such as innovation, organizational learning, and ___________________.
Q:
A central issue to note in comparing mandated and voluntary alliances is the extent to which the former are characterized more by style than ____________________ and by instability than longevity.
Q:
Alliances vary in regard to ownership, control, size, governance, and nature of ____________________.
Q:
To form a successful alliance, the members of the alliance need to be able learn from their experience and to build additional ____ as needed.a. lines of evidence c. capitalb. outputs d. capabilities
Q:
An example of an appropriate way to deal with an alliance problem is ____.
a. implementing performance monitors
b. swapping capabilities
c. creating governing boards
d. creating a system of checks and balances
Q:
A major difficulty that organizations face in addressing alliance problems is actually their inability to identify the ____ correctly.a. truth c. problemb. strengths d. structure
Q:
____ and conflict-management systems are subsets of relational norms underlying the process exchange over time.a. Trust c. Productivityb. Intent d. Competition
Q:
Governance mechanisms of alliances include (1) joint ownership in which partners share control of some or all alliance assets; (2) contracts that specify rights and obligations of alliance partners; (3) ____ that rely on trust and goodwill; or (4) some combination of these.a. formal rewards c. formal agreementsb. informal rewards d. informal agreements
Q:
The physician-hospital relationships fall into three broad categories: noneconomic integration, economic integration, and ____ integration.a. employee c. personalb. formal d. clinical
Q:
Power enhancement and ____ are grouped together because one often has implications for the other.a. certainty reduction c. uncertainty policyb. uncertainty reduction d. certainty policy
Q:
The first and most basic expected outcome of alliances refers to financial performance and addresses the issue of whether the alliance is primarily conceived for cost reduction or ____.a. revenue enhancement c. accountability enhancementb. revenue reduction d. accountability reduction
Q:
Larger alliances typically have more purchasing ____ because they can buy in larger volume.a. power c. incentivesb. expertise d. necessities
Q:
Formal arrangements between two or more organizations for purposes of ongoing cooperation and mutual gain/risk sharing is referred to as ____.a. strategic agreements c. strategic alliancesb. aligned agreements d. aligned alliances
Q:
Match each item with a statement below.a. outcome measures of qualityb. Planetreec. quality improvement interventionsd. Total Quality Managemente. Business Process Re-engineeringf. structural measures of qualityg. Pay-For-Performanceh. Pebble Projecti. High-Reliability Organizationsj. process measures of quality 1) Incorporates a culture and processes to "radically reduce system failures and effectively respond when failures occur"2) Reimbursement for healthcare services that is designed to link payment incentives to quality and performance outcomes3) Describes efforts to radically review and re-organize existing, or adopt new and innovative, work processes designed to improve customer value, organizational efficiency, and market competitiveness4) Developed a model of care that is a "patient-centered, holistic approach to healthcare, promoting mental, emotional, spiritual, social, and physical healing"5) Based on aspects of an organization or an individual's actions that could impact overall quality or organizational performance6) Designed to decrease medical errors and enhance patient safety7) Metrics based on the results of work performed8) Initiative through the Center for Health Design, which is working with partners to develop facilities that incorporate "evidence-based design" features demonstrated to reduce errors, improve quality and efficiency, and improve work experience9) Indicators of the activities involved in carrying out work in an organization10) A participative, systematic approach to planning and implementing QI in quality
Q:
Important avenues for promoting QI implementation may be missed when ____ and control systems are not used to appropriately reward implementation efforts.
Q:
____ boards have an important role to play in overseeing QI efforts and patient safety initiatives because they are the organizational entity legally accountable for quality of care.
Q:
A(n) organization's ____ refers to the shared summary perceptions of targeted employees concerning the degree to which their use of a particular innovation is rewarded, supported, and expected within the organization.
Q:
Collaboration problems in the healthcare workforce result largely from the ____, individualistic culture of medicine, which is deeply rooted in the socialization process for health professionals.
Q:
Although many QI innovations are designed to improve quality in the long-run, their implementation often increases the risk of ____ in the short-run while staff become familiar with the new practice.
Q:
____ is the critical gateway between the decision to adopt the QI innovation and the routine use of the QI innovation, or integration of a new idea or practice into the operating system of the organization.
Q:
____________________ is a technique that addresses "potential errors created by communication and decision-making in dynamic environments" such as teams, to improve patient safety.
Q:
____________________ is the process of comparing an organization's performance metrics to those of other "best practice" or peer organizations.
Q:
____________________ is an organized approach to planning and implementing continuous improvement in performance.
Q:
____________________ pertains to having the necessary resources to provide adequate healthcare.
Q:
____ leadership is defined as influencing followers by "broadening and elevating followers' goals and providing them with confidence to perform beyond the expectations specified in the implicit or explicit exchange agreement."a. Transactional c. Transformationalb. Traditional d. Innovative
Q:
____ is the process of providing a lens through which to interpret a situation.a. Structuring c. Framingb. Defining d. Aligning
Q:
____ comprises the fundamental values, assumptions, and beliefs held in common by members of an organization.a. Strategy c. Structureb. Culture d. Branding
Q:
____ identification has effectively limited organizational identification (i.e., individuals' sense of alignment with the organization).a. Professional c. Selfb. Personal d. Group
Q:
Burgeoning medical knowledge and the complexity of healthcare delivery have resulted in increasing ____ in the healthcare workforce.a. organization c. generalizationb. professionalism d. specialization
Q:
____ are workforce or human resource practices that have been shown to improve an organization's capacity to effectively attract, select, hire, develop, and retain high-performing employees.a. High-Performance Work Practices c. Magnet Statusb. Just Culture/Just Safety Culture d. Pay-For-Performance
Q:
____ practice guidelines synthesize evidence from the literature and make recommendations regarding treatment for specific clinical conditions.a. Team c. Organizationalb. Clinical d. Group
Q:
AIDET is an acronym that stands for ____.
a. Acknowledge, Intercept, Donation, Experience, and Trust
b. Accountability, Intercept, Duration, Experience, and Thank You
c. Acknowledge, Introduce, Duration, Explanation, and Thank You
d. Accountability, Introduce, Donation, Explanation, and Trust
Q:
Interventions can be described by the 1) levels of ____ and the 2) scale of the intervention.
a. organization
b. care
c. referrals
d. complexity
Q:
____ focuses on how care is provided, delivered, and managed.a. Structure c. Systemsb. Process d. Outcomes
Q:
Match each item with a statement below:a. dynamic complexityb. systems thinkingc. bounded instabilityd. double-loop learninge. team learningf. combinatorial complexityg. shared visionh. personal masteryi. mental modelsj. single-loop learning 1) Discipline of constantly surfacing, testing, and improving our assumptions about how the world works2) Discipline of generating a common answer to the question, "What do we want to create?"3) Discipline of seeing wholes, perceiving the structures that underlie dynamically complex systems, and identifying high-leverage change opportunities4) Discipline of creating alignment such that team members think insightfully about complex problems, synergize their knowledge and skills, and produce coordinated action5) Arises from the number of constituent elements of a system or the number of interrelationships that might exist among them6) Situation where a complex system's behavior follows an inherently unpredictable path, but it does so within limits7) Arises from the operation of feedback loops8) Simple error-and-correction process whereby problem-solvers look for solutions within an organization's policies, plans, values, and rules9) Discipline of individual learning, without which organizational learning cannot occur10) Where problem-solvers attempt to close the gap between desired and actual states of affairs by questioning and modifying the organization's policies, plans, values, and rules