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Q:
In healthy adults at rest on FIO2 0.21, what does the mean alveolar-arterial oxygen tension difference equal?a. 10 mm Hg b. 20 mm Hg c. 30 mm Hgd. 40 mm Hg
Q:
At what exercise level would the alveolar-arterial PO2 difference be expected to change?a. It will increase when 40% or more of maximum oxygen consumption is reachedb. It will increase when 60% or more of maximum oxygen consumption is reachedc. It will start to decrease when 40% or more of maximum oxygen consumption is reachedd. It will start to decrease when 60% or more of maximum oxygen consumption is reached
Q:
What primary factor is responsible for the normal change in oxygen diffusion capacity during maximum exercise?a. The increased cardiac output results in recuitment of pulmonary capillariesb. The increased cardiac output results in increased ventilation/perfusion mismatchc. Hyperventilation results in increased increased PaO2sd. Hyperventilation results in lowered H+ levels which shifts the oxygen dissociation curve
Q:
What effect does maximum exercise have on oxygen diffusion capacity?a. It can increase up to 3-fold b. It can increase up to 10 fold c. It can decrease by 33%d. It can decrease by 10%
Q:
What changes in arterial blood gases would be expected to occur exercise levels of 40% of maximum oxygen consumption?I. PaO2 would decreaseII. PaCO2 would decreaseIII. pH would remain unchangeda. III only b. I, II, and III c. I onlyd. II only
Q:
During heavy exercise, what percent of the total oxygen consumption is consumed by the skeletal muscles?a. 95% + b. 75% c. 55%d. 35%
Q:
At rest, what percent of the total oxygen consumption is consumed by the skeletal muscles ?a. 35-40% b. 25-30% c. 10-15%d. 50-55%
Q:
During heavy exercise, what percent of the maximal exercise level is reached during the second stage?a. 60-70% b. 50-60% c. 40-50%d. 30-40%
Q:
What changes in ventilatory pattern would be expected during the third stage of moderate exercise?a. alveolar ventilation stabilizesb. alveolar ventilation returns to pre-exercise levelc. alveolar ventilation increases rapidlyd. alveolar ventilation gradually increases until maximum ventilation is reached
Q:
What change in ventilatory pattern is seen during the first stage of moderate exercise?a. increase in alveolar ventilation within seconds after onset of exerciseb. increase in alveolar ventilation within minutes of onset of exercisec. slight decrease in alveolar ventilation within seconds after onset of exercised. slight decrease in alveolar ventilation for first two minutes after onset of exercise
Q:
By what amount can ventilation increase during strenuous exercise?a. up to 20-fold increase b. 10-fold increase c. 5-fold increased. 2-fold increase
Q:
Which of the following pathways likely contribute to increased ventilation during exercise?I. Cerebral cortexII. Proprioceptors in moving muscles, tendons and jointsIII. Increased body temperaturea. I, II, and III b. I and II only c. II and III onlyd. I and III only
Q:
What is the term for the point at which the energy pathways that produce lactic acid start to operate?a. Anaerobic threshold b. Aerobic threshold c. Cardiovascular thresholdd. Isometric threshold
Q:
Which of the following contribute to the decrease in minute ventilation during non-REM sleep?I. Decreased metabolic rate during sleepII. Reduced ability of medulla to respond to ventilatory signals during sleepIII. Increased Raw caused by reduced upper airway muscle tomea. I, II, and III b. I only c. II onlyd. I and III only
Q:
Which of the following physiologic changes occur during sleep?I. Colonic motility is decreasedII. Penile tumescence occurs during REMIII. Plasma growth hormones peak during Stage N3IV. The heart rate can increase by up to 35% during REMV. Cerebral blood flow decreases during non-REM sleepa. I, II, III, IV, and V b. I, II, III only c. I, III, V onlyd. II, III, and V only
Q:
Which of the following statements are true?I. Parasympathetic activity begins at sleep onset and continues throughout nonREM sleepII. Somatic skeletal muscle tone is lowest during REMIII. Body temperature falls during REM sleep and increases during non REM sleepIV. Urine production decreases during REM and non-REM sleepa. I, II, and IV only b. I, II, III, and IV c. I, III, and IV onlyd. I, II, and III only
Q:
What does a score of 11 indicate on the Epworth Sleepiness Scale?a. Additional evaluation by a sleep specialist is recommendedb. Normal score- no followup neededc. Individual is getting enough sleepd. No such assessment tool exists
Q:
Which sleep disorder can be treated with tracheostomy?a. OSA b. CSA c. RLSd. PLMD
Q:
Which sleep disorder can be treated with negative pressure ventilation?a. CSA b. OSA c. RLSd. PLMD
Q:
Which of the following factors exacerbate RLS?I. PregnancyII. CaffeineIII. DiabetesIV. Renal insufficiencya. I, II, III and IV b. II and III only c. II and IV onlyd. III and IV only
Q:
.Which of the following statements are true regarding PLMD?I. It occurs during non-REM sleepII. The incidence increases with ageIII. It often occurs with RLSa. I, II, and III b. I only c. I and III onlyd. II and III only
Q:
Which of the following are risk factors for CSA?I. Male genderII. CHF or atrial fibrillationIII. Use of opioidsIV. Over 65 years of agea. I, II, III, and IV b. I, II and III only c. I and IV onlyd. I and III only
Q:
Which of the following risk factors are associated with OSA?I. ObesityII. Female genderIII. HypertensionIV. Enlarged tonsils or adenoidsa. I, III, and IV only b. I, II, III, and IV c. I and IV onlyd. I, II, and IV
Q:
What is the term for the condition characterized by the cessation of airflow with the absence of respiratory efforts?a. CSA b. OSA c. narcolepsyd. hypersomnia
Q:
What is the most commonly prescribed treatment for moderate OSA?a. CPAP b. surgery c. weight lossd. nasal decongestants
Q:
Which of the following are symptoms of obstructive sleep apnea?I. Loud snoring, snorting, or nocturnal chokingII. Moodiness, irritability, or depressionIII. Excessive daytime sleepinessIV Sexual impotencea. I, II, III, and IV b. I and III only c. I, II, and IIId. I, II, and IV
Q:
Approximately what percent of American women have obstructive sleep apnea?a. 2% b. 4% c. 6%d. 8%
Q:
Which of the sleep disturbances is usually hereditary?a. narcolepsy b. transient insomnia c. PLMDd. RLS
Q:
What is the term for sleep periods of excessive depth or duration?a. hypersomnia b. cataplexy c. sleep apnead. sleep paralysis
Q:
What is the average duration of short term insomnia?a. 1-3 weeks b. less than 1 week c. 3-4 weeksd. 1-3 months
Q:
What is the most common sleep disorder?a. insomnia b. hypersomnia c. narcolepsyd. sleep apnea
Q:
Which of the following factors enhance sleep?I. Elevated body temperatureII. Frequent work shift changesIII. Caffeine ingestionIV. Moderate exercisea. IV only b. I, II, III, and IV c. II and IVd. III and IV
Q:
How much sleep is required by the older adult?a. 6-8 hours per day b. 8-10 hours per day c. 10-12 hours per dayd. 12-14 hours per day
Q:
What portion of an adolecent's sleep time is spent in REM?a. 20% b. 30% c. 40%d. 50%
Q:
How many hours of total sleep time per day are required by most two year olds?a. 14 hours b. 12 hours c. 10 hoursd. 16 hours
Q:
What percent of a newborn's total sleep time is spent in REM?a. 50% b. 40% c. 30%d. 20%
Q:
What is the term for the total of all nights of lost sleep?a. sleep debt b. sleep latency c. exhaustion quotientd. sleepiness quotient
Q:
At what frequency do Circadian rhythms occur?a. once about every 24 hours b. once per week c. once every 28 daysd. once every calendar month
Q:
What are the primary functions of sleep?a. to restore and repair the body and conserve energyb. to hardwire memories and conserve energyc. to allow time for the medulla and pons to be passive and inactived. to allow the cerebral cortex and cerebellum to be passive and inactive
Q:
In a young adult, how many awakening occur during a normal night's sleep?a. 1-2 b. 3-5 c. 5-6d. 7-9
Q:
During a young adult's normal night's sleep, how many sleep cycles would occur?a. 4-6 cycles b. 1-2 cycles c. 3-5 cyclesd. 7-10 cycles
Q:
What does a sleep latency of less than 5 minutes indicate?a. excessive sleepiness b. emotional stress c. illness or paind. medication overuse
Q:
Which daytime diagnostic test objectively tests sleepiness by monitoring sleep latency?a. MSLT b. MWT c. PSGd. MSG
Q:
What is the term for the duration of time required to fall asleep?a. sleep latency b. drowsiness c. lights out timed. sleep delay time
Q:
During which sleep stage would hypnic myoclonia be most likely to occur?a. Stage N1 b. Stage N2 c. Stage N3d. REM
Q:
In which sleep phase do the majority of dreams occur?a. REM sleep b. Stage 3 c. Stage 2d. Stage 1
Q:
Which sleep phase is called paradoxic sleep?a. REM b. Stage 3 c. Stage 2d. Stage 1
Q:
In which sleep phase does brain metabolism increase by up to 20%?a. REMb. Stage 3c. Stage 2d. Stage 1
Q:
During which sleep stage are night terrors and sleepwalking most likely to occur?a. Stage N3 Deep Sleep b. Stage N3 Slow Wave Sleep c. Stage N2d. stage N1
Q:
How long after the onset of Stage N1 does Stage N3 Slow Wave Sleep begin?a. 20-25 minutes b. 10-12 minutes c. 35-40 minutesd. 40-55 minutes
Q:
Which sleep stage accounts for 40-50% of total sleep time?a. Stage N2 b. Stage N1 c. Stage N3d. REM
Q:
Which is the average duration of Stage N1?a. 10-12 minutes b. 4-6 minutes c. 14-16 minutesd. 20-22 minutes
Q:
3Which sleep stage is the transitional stage between drowsiness and sleep?a. Stage N1 b. Stage N2 c. Stage N3d. Eyes Closed- Wake
Q:
When do sawtooth waves appear?a. Eyes Open Wake and REM b. Eyes Open Closed and REM c. REM and N1d. Eyes Open Wake and N1
Q:
In which sleep stage(s) would sleep spindles appear?a. N2 and N3 b. N1 c. Stage Wd. REM
Q:
In which sleep stage(s) would K complexes commonly appear?a. N2 and N3 b. N1 c. Stage Wd. REM
Q:
Which waves commonly appear toward the end of Stage N1?a. vertex b. delta c. sawtoothd. sleep spindles
Q:
Which waves are known as deep sleep waves and are predominantly seen in Stage N3?a. delta b. beta c. thetad. alpha
Q:
Which EEG waveform is called the "drowsy wave" and has a low voltage and low amplitude and is predominant in N2?a. theta b. beta c. alphad. delta
Q:
Which EEG waveform is called the "relaxed wave", have a high voltage, and are often seen in the drowsy patient?a. alpha b. beta c. thetad. delta
Q:
Which EEG waveform is called "busy waves" and are often seen when the patient is awake with eyes open?a. beta b. alpha c. thetad. delta
Q:
In which sleep stage do alpha waves comprise more than 50% of the EEG?a. Eyes Closed -Wake b. Eyes Open-Wake c. REMd. Stage N 1
Q:
Which sleep stage is characterized by beta waves with high frequency, low amplitude activity and sawtooth waves?a. Eyes Open - Wake b. Eyes Closed Wake c. N1d. N2
Q:
What are the two major types of sleep?a. NREM and REM b. W and REM c. W and NREMd. Drowsy and REM
Q:
Which agency offers a credentialing exam for the Sleep Disorder Specialist?a. NBRC b. AARC c. CoARCd. CAAHEP
Q:
During a 6 hour sleep study period, approximately how many 30 sec epochs would be recorded?a. 720 b. 120 c. 240d. 480
Q:
During a sleep study, which of the following monitors the exhaled carbon dioxide ?a. capnography b. thermistor c. co-oximeterd. oximeter
Q:
During a sleep study, which of the following monitors oxygen saturation?a. oximeter b. thermistor c. co-oximeterd. ETCO2
Q:
During a sleep study, which of the following monitors electrical activity of the heart?a. ECG b. EEG c. EOGd. EMG
Q:
During a sleep study, which of the following monitors muscle activity?a. EMG b. EEG c. EOGd. ECG
Q:
During a sleep study, which of the following monitors movements of the eyes?a. EOG b. EEG c. EMGd. ECG
Q:
During a sleep study, which of the following monitors electrophysiologic changes in the brain?a. EEG b. EOG c. EMGd. ECG
Q:
What term is described as "a recorded measurement of time during a sleep study of multiple physiologic variables"?a. epoch b. critical incident c. circadian cycled. time cycle
Q:
What is the acronym for a sleep study?a. PSG b. SS c. SPGd. PMG
Q:
How many hours of sleep a day does an average newborn require?a. 17 hours b. 20 hours c. 14 hoursd. 9 hours
Q:
Which condition is described as "a state of unconsciousness from which one cannot be awakened by even the most forceful stimuli"?a. coma b. sleep c. lethargyd. deep sleep
Q:
What is the term for the condition described as "a partial state of unconsciousness from which one can be awakend by stimulation"?a. sleep b. coma c. lethargyd. lassitude
Q:
What is the term for the middle two-third of the kidney?a. medulla b. cortex c. calcyxd. pelvis
Q:
What is the term for the outer one-third of the kidney?a. cortex b. medulla c. pelvisd. calyx
Q:
Where do the ureters exit from the kidneys?a. from the hilumb. from the superior portion of the kidneysc. from the inferior portion of the kidneysd. from the posterior portion of the kidneys