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Q:
What effect would hypovolemia and CHF have on the RVSWI?a. Both would decrease itb. Both would increase itc. CHF would decrease it and hypovolemia would not affect itd. Hypovolemia would decrease it and CHF would increase it
Q:
Which hemodynamic value reflects the amount of work required by the right ventricle to pump blood?a. RVSWI b. SV c. SVId. RAP
Q:
In COPD, which hemodynamic parameter is most increased?a. mean pulmonary artery pressure b. PCWP c. SVRd. cardiac output
Q:
What effect do propranolol and isoproterenol have on CI?a. Propranolol will decrease CI; isoproterenol will increase CIb. Propranolol will increase CI; isoproterenol will decrease CIc. Both will increase CId. Both will decrease CI
Q:
Which hemodynamic value is derived by dividing cardiac output by BSA?a. CI b. SVI c. HRd. SV
Q:
What effect would myocardial infarction and pulmonary emboli have on SVI?a. They would decrease SVIb. They would increase SVIc. MI would decrease SVI and pulmonary emboli would have no effect on SVId. Pulmonary emboli would decrease SVI and myocardial infarction would increase SVI
Q:
What value is derived when SV is divided by BSA?a. SVI b. CI c. RVSWId. LVSWI
Q:
Which hemodynamic parameter is most significantly impacted by CHF?a. PCWP b. CVP c. RVSWId. SVR
Q:
Which of the hemodynamic parameters are most affected by cor pulmonale?a. CVP and RAP b. CO and CI c. SV and SVId. PVR and SVR
Q:
What effect would epinephrine have on CI and RVSWI?a. both would increaseb. both would decreasec. CI would increase but RVSWI would decreased. CI would decrease and RVSWI would increase
Q:
What effects would late stage septic shock and CHF have on SV and CO?a. The SV and CO would both decreaseb. The SV and CO would both increasec. SV would decrease but CO would increased. SV would increase but CO would decrease
Q:
What effect would early septic shock and hyperthermia have on stroke volume?a. both would increase the stroke volumeb. both would decrease the stroke volumec. hyperthermia would increase the stroke volume but early septic shock would lower itd. early septic shock would increase the SV but hyperthermia would lower it
Q:
Which of the following agents are considered to be negative inotropic drugs?I. PropranololII. DobutamineIII. IsoproterenolIV. Atenolola. I and IV only b. I. II, III. and IV c. I, III, and IV onlyd. I only
Q:
What is "best PEEP"?a. The PEEP level that has the least hemodynamic compromise and the maximum total oxygen deliveryb. The PEEP level that has the lowest effect on PaCO2c. The PEEP level that delivers the highest PaO2 with the least hemodynamic compromised. The PEEP level that delivers the highest cardiac output
Q:
What primary therapeutic effect does nitroprusside have on hemodynamic parameters?a. It lowers afterload b. It elevates afterload c. It lowers preloadd. It elevates preload and afterload
Q:
If a patient has a heart rate of 70 beats/min and a cardiac output of 4.9 L/min, what would the SV equal?a. 70 mL/beat b. 0.7 L/beat c. 343 mL/beatd. 34.3 mL/beat
Q:
What does CO divided by HR equal?a. SV b. SVI c. CId. SVR
Q:
What is the normal adult BSA?a. 1.5 - 2 m2 b. 1.1-1.49 m2 c. 2.1-2.49 m2d. 2.5-3 m2
Q:
In a healthy adult at rest, what is the normal range for SVR in dynes x sec x cm-5 ?a. 800 - 1500 b. 20-120 c. 120-500d. 500-800
Q:
In a healthy adult at rest, what is the normal range for PVR in dynes x sec x cm-5 ?a. 20-120 b. 800 - 1500 c. 120-500d. 500-800
Q:
In a healthy adult at rest, what is the normal range for left ventricular stroke work index ?a. 40-60 g m/m2 b. 2-19 g m/m2 c. 20-39 g m/m2d. 61-80 g m/m2
Q:
In a healthy adult at rest, what is the normal range for right ventricular stroke work index ?a. 7-12 g m/m2 b. 0-7 g m/m2 c. 13 - 15 g m/m2d. 16-18 g m/m2
Q:
In a healthy adult at rest, what is the normal range for cardiac index?a. 2.5-4.2 L/beat/m2 b. 0.5-2.4 mL/beat/m2 c. 4.3 - 5.8 mL/beat/m2d. 5.9-6.4 mL/beat/m2
Q:
In a healthy adult at rest, what is the normal range for stroke volume index?a. 30-65 mL/beat/m2 b. 60-130 mL/beat/m2 c. 20-120 mL/beat/m2d. 40-80 mL/beat/m2
Q:
In a healthy adult at rest, what is the normal range for stroke volume?a. 60-130 mL b. 30-65 mL c. 20-120 mLd. 40-60 mL
Q:
Which of the following abbreviations indicate the intermittent pressure measurement obtained when a pulmonary artery catheter is advanced into the PA and the balloon on the catheter tip is inflated?I. PCWPII. PAWIII. PAOIV. PVRa. I, II, and III only b. I, II, and IV only c. I onlyd. II, III, and IV only
Q:
What is the correct catheter placement to obtain the PCWP?a. pulmonary artery b. pulmonary capillaries c. right ventricled. pulmonary veins
Q:
What is the normal range for cardiac output in a healthy adult at rest?a. 4-8 L/min b. 0-8 L/min c. 4-12 L/mind. 0-12 L/min
Q:
What is the normal range for right atrial pressure in a healthy adult?a. 0-8 mm Hg b. 4-12 mm Hg c. 9-18 mm Hgd. 19-24 mm Hg
Q:
What is the normal range for pulmonary capillary wedge pressure in a healthy adult?a. 4-12 mm Hg b. 0-8 mm Hg c. 9-18 mm Hgd. 19-24 mm Hg
Q:
What is the normal range for mean pulmonary artery pressure in a healthy adult?a. 9-18 mm Hg b. 0-8 mm Hg c. 9-18 cm H2Od. 0-8 cm H2O
Q:
What is the normal range for CVP in a healthy adult?a. 0-8 mm Hg b. 0-8 cm H20 c. 9-18 mm Hgd. 9-18 cm H20
Q:
Which of the following can be measured directly via a pulmonary artery catheter?I. CVPII. RAPIII. PCWPIV. PVRa. I, II, and III only b. I, II, III, and IV c. I and III onlyd. II and IV only
Q:
What is the term for the study of forces that influence the circulation of blood?a. hemodynamics b. hematology c. cardiologyd. pulmodynamics
Q:
Which of the following is recommended to be administered via the ET tube for stable ventricular tachycardia?a. Lidocaine b. Magnesium c. Amiodaroned. Epinephrine
Q:
What is the recommended range of joules used by a biphasic defibrillator for the tretament of VF?a. 120-200 b. 60-120 c. 200-240d. 240-300
Q:
What is another term for "flat-line"?a. asystole b. complete AV block c. ventricular flutterd. ventricular fibrillation
Q:
When the PR interval consistently exceeds 0.20 seconds in duration and the QRS rate is 60-100, which abnormality is present?a. first degree AV block b. second degree AV block c. complete AV blockd. asystole
Q:
What is the name of the abnormal condition in which the bundle of His controls the ventricles at a rate of 40-60 bpm and the atrial rate exceeds the ventricular rate?a. escape junctional pacemaker b. bradycardia c. ventricular escape mechanismd. asystole
Q:
Which abnormal ventricular mechanism has a QRS rate bewteen 250 and 350 bpm?a. ventricular flutter b. ventriculary tachycardia c. ventricular fibrillationd. ventricular dysrhythmia
Q:
What is the term for the occurrence of three or more PVCs in a row?a. ventricular tachycardia b. trigeminy c. ventricular flutterd. ventricular fibrillation
Q:
Which of the following can produce a pulseless arrest?I. AsystoleII. Ventricular tachycardiaIII. Ventricular fibrillationIV. Pulseless electrical activitya. I, II, III, and IV b. II and III only c. II, III, and IV onlyd. I, III, and IV only
Q:
What is the term for the repeating ECG pattern in which two sinus beats are followed by a PVC?a. trigeminy b. bigeminy c. trisomyd. ventricular tachycardia
Q:
What is the term for the occurence of two PVCs in a row?a. paired PVCs or couplets b. bigeminy c. trigeminyd. ventricular tachycardia
Q:
Which ECG abnormality is characterized by the absence of a P wave, a wide bizarre QRS, followed by a T wave of opposite polarity?a. PVC b. PAC c. Sinus blockd. Atrial flutter
Q:
In atrial fibrillation, what is the approximate atrial rate?a. 300-600 bpm b. 100-300 bpm c. 200-400 bpmd. 400-800 bpm
Q:
In which dysrhythmias would ff waves be present?a. atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation b. PAC and atrial tachycardia c. atrial flutter and bigeminyd. bigeminy and atrial tachycardia
Q:
Which abnormal atrial mechanism is associated with anxiety, excessive ingestion of caffeine or alcohol and early stages of menopause?a. atrial tachycardia b. atrial bigeminy c. atrial flutterd. atrial fibrillation
Q:
Which atrial abnormality results in an atrial rate of 130-250 bpm with a normal ventricular rate?a. atrial tachycardia c. atrial flutterb. atrial bigeminy c. atrial flutterd. atrial fibrillation
Q:
Which abnormal atrial mechanism is often one of the first signs of CHF?a. atrial bigeminy b. atrial tachycardia c. atrial flutterd. atrial fibrillation
Q:
Which atrial abnormality is often seen in women during the third trimester of pregnancy?a. PAC b. atrial bigeminy c. atrial tachycardiad. atrial flutter
Q:
Which dysrhythmia causes a P prime wave on the ECG?a. PAC b. PVC c. sinus arrestd. sinus block
Q:
Which dysrhythmia is characterized by a normal P-QRS-T complex, multiple missing P-QRS-T complexes, followed by a normal P-QRS-T complex?a. sinus arrest b. sinus block c. asystoled. trigeminy
Q:
What variance in RR intervals must be present to be considered sinus arrhythmia?a. more than 10% b. more than 20% c. more than 30%d. more than 40%
Q:
In a resting adult, what is the term for a heart rate between 100-160 bpm?a. sinus tachycardia b. normal heart rate c. sinus arrhythmiad. atrial flutter
Q:
3In the ACLS treatment protocols for bradycardia, what are the second-line drugs recommended for the treatment of bradycardia?a. dopamine and epinephrine b. epinephrine and atropine c. dopamine and atropined. dopamine and albuterol
Q:
On an ECG, what does a variation of 0.1 seconds between the longest and shortest RR intervals indicate?a. regular rhythm b. irregular rhythm c. SA blockd. atrial bigeminy
Q:
If there are 9 QRS complexes found in 2 vertical 3 second marks on an ECG, what would the rate equal?a. 90 b. 45 c. 60d. 80
Q:
In the adult at rest, what is the term for a heart rate less than 60 beats/min?a. bradycardia b. tachycardia c. normal heart rated. third degree heart block
Q:
How is the rate determined on an ECG when the ventricular heart rate is irregular?a. Count the number of QRS complexes in a 2 vertical marks then multiply by 10b. Count the number of QRS complexes in 3 vertical marks then multiply by 10c. Count the number of QRS complexes in a 2 vertical marks then multiply by 6d. Count the number of QRS complexes in a 3 vertical marks then multiply by 6
Q:
On an ECG when the ventricular heart rate is regular, the rate can be determined by counting the number of large squares between two consecutive QRS complexes thena. dividing 300 by that number of large squaresb. dividing 200 by that number of large squaresc. dividing 400 by that number of large squaresd. dividing 600 by that number of large squares
Q:
What portion of the RR interval does the QT interval normal compose?a. 40% b. 20% c. 30%d. 60%
Q:
Which portion of the ECG tracing represents total ventricular activity?a. QT interval b. QRS complex c. T waved. U wave
Q:
Which low voltage wave may become more prominent in the presence of electrolyte disturbances, heart disease, or certain medications?a. U wave b. Y wave c. T waved. P wave
Q:
Which portion of the ECG tracing represents ventricular repolarization?a. T wave b. U wave c. QRS complexd. ST interval
Q:
What does a flat ST segment usually indicate?a. ischemia b. normal ECG tracing c. disconnected electroded. hyperkalemia
Q:
Which portion of the ECG tracing represents the time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization?a. ST segment b. T wave c. QRS complexd. PR interval
Q:
Which portion of the ECG tracing represents ventricular depolarization?a. QRS complex b. PR interval c. P waved. T wave
Q:
In a healthy adult at rest, what is the normal duration of the PR Interval?a. 0.12 - 0.20 sec b. 0.04 - 0.08 sec c. 0.08 - 0.12 secd. 0.20 - 0.26 sec
Q:
Which portion of an ECG tracing represents atrial depolarization?a. P wave b. QRS complex c. T waved. U wave
Q:
On an ECG tracing, what is an isoelectric line called?a. segment b. complex c. waveformd. interval
Q:
What is the term for two or more waveforms together on an ECG?a. complex b. interval c. segmentd. deflection
Q:
On ECG paper operating at standard speed, what is the duration of the large squares?a. 0.2 seconds b. 2 seconds c. 0.04 secd. 0.4 sec
Q:
What is the standard speed at which ECG systems run?a. 25 mm/sec b. 25 cm/sec c. 2.5 mm/secd. 2.5 cm/sec
Q:
Which of the following are considered to be precordial leads?I. Lead I, II, IIIII. aVR, aVL, aVFIII. V1, V2, V3, V4, V5, V6a. III only b. I and II only c. I onlyd. I, II, and III
Q:
What is the correct electrode placement for the modified chest lead?a. positive electrode at V1, negative electrode on left arm or shoulderb. positive electrode at V3, negative electrode on left arm or shoulderc. positive electrode at V6, negative electrode on right shoulder or armd. positive electrode at V2, negative electrode on right shoulder or arm
Q:
Which health care professionals commonly obtain the ECGs in many hopsitals across the USA?a. CRTs and RRTs b. MDs and DOs c. MAsd. MLTs
Q:
Of the precordial leads, which are considered to be the lateral leads?a. V5 and V6 b. V1, V2, and V3 c. V4, V5, and V6d. V3, V4, V5 and V6
Q:
Of the precordial leads, which are considered to be the anterior leads?a. V1, V2, V3, and V4 b. V1, V2, and V3 c. V4, V5, and V6d. V5 and V6
Q:
Of the limb leads, which contributes the least amount of information for the 12 lead ECG interpretation?a. aVR b. aVF c. aVLd. Lead III