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Q:
What is the average lung compliance of a neonate?a. 0.005 L/cm H20 b. 0.5 L/cm H20 c. 0.050 L/cm H20d. 0.005 mL/cm H20
Q:
Which of the following factors contribute to stimulate the first breath?I. Tactile stimulationII. Stimulation of central chemoreceptorsIII. Stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptorsIV. Thermal stimulia. I, II, III, IV b. I, II, and III only c. II and III onlyd. I and IV only
Q:
What does the presence of phosphatidyglycerol (PG) in the amniotic fluid indicate?a. low risk of development of respiratory distressb. high risk of development of respiratory distressc. immature fetal lungsd. uncertain fetal lung maturity
Q:
What would you conclude regarding a fetus' lung maturity if the S:A ratio equaled 60?a. fetal lung maturityb. immature fetal lungsc. uncertain lung maturityd. Unable to make a conclusion since the S:A ratio does not assess lung maturity
Q:
How many alveoli would be expected in a 12 year old child?a. > 240 million b. 24 million c. 50 milliond. 100 million
Q:
In a full-term newborn, how many alveoli are present at birth?a. 24 million b. 200 million c. 240 milliond. 50 million
Q:
How is fetal lung fluid normally removed?I. Squeezed out during vaginal deliveryII. Absorbed by the pulmonary capillariesIII. Absorbed by the lymphatic systemIV. Removed by vigorous endobronchial suctioning by the delivery room staffa. I, II, and III only b. I, II, III, and IV c. I and II onlyd. II and III only
Q:
Where does fetal lung fluid originate?a. from alveolar cells b. from aspiration of amniotic fluid c. from maternal lymph vesselsd. from the stomach and esophagus
Q:
What is the term for the procedure in which a sample of the fluid surrounding a fetus is removed via a needle inserted through the uterine wall and the fluid sample is analyzed for abnormalities?a. amniocentesis b. thoracentesis c. chorionic villi samplingd. sonography
Q:
After birth, into what structure does the umbilical vein evolve?a. ligamentum teres (round ligament) of the liverb. lateral umbilical ligamentc. ligamentum venosum of the liverd. ligamentum arteriosum
Q:
In the fetus, where does the majority of blood flow go after leaving the right atrium?a. left atrium b. right ventricle c. left ventricled. pulmonary artery
Q:
Which vessels transports oxygenated blood and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus?a. umbilical vein b. umbilical artery c. placental veind. placental artery
Q:
Which of the following contribute to the wide variance between maternal and fetal PO2 and PCO2?I. The placenta is an actively metabolizing organII. Regional variations occur in placental permeabilityIII. Maternal and fetal vascular shunts occura. I, II, and III b. I and III only c. I and II onlyd. II and III only
Q:
What is the term for the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall?a. abruptio placentae b. placenta previa c. placenta accretad. placenta percreta
Q:
What of the following influence the oxygen transfer from maternal to fetal blood?I. Maternal -fetal PO2 gradientII. Higher hemoglobin concentration in fetal bloodIII. Lower affinity of HbF for oxygena. I and II only b. I, II, and III c. I and III onlyd. II and III only
Q:
What is the normal PO2 in the umbilical arteries?a. 20 mm Hg b. 40 mm Hg c. 55 mm Hgd. 80 mm Hg
Q:
Which of the following structure would compose the plavental cotyledons?I. Fetal vesselsII. Chorionic villiIII. Intervillous spacesa. I, II, and III b. I only c. II and III onlyd. I and II only
Q:
At what gestational age does the placenta begin to develop?a. at implantation of the fertilized egg b. Day 3 c. Day 5d. Day 7
Q:
Which of the following would be most likely to develop after delivery of a newborn at 27 weeks gestational age?a. PPHN b. meconium aspiration c. Tetralogy of Fallotd. Coarctation of the aorta
Q:
At what gestational age does the terminal sac period begin?a. 24 weeks b. 22 weeks c. 20 weeksd. 26 weeks
Q:
At what gestational age do primitive respiratory bronchioles appear?a. 17-24 weeks b. 12-16 weeks c. 25-28 weeksd. 8-12 weeks
Q:
At what gestational age are all of the subsegmental bronchi present?a. 16 weeks b. 10 weeks c. 5 weeksd. 20 weeks
Q:
At what gestational age after fertilization do primitive lobar bronchi first appear?a. 30-32 days b. 24-26 days c. 42-45 daysd. 38-40 days
Q:
At what gestational age do lung buds first appear?a. 24th day b. 28th day c. 16th weekd. 21st week
Q:
What is the term for an involuntary diaphragmatic spasm followed by sudden glottic closure?a. hiccup b. burp c. coughd. sneeze
Q:
What effect does foreign matter in the trachea have on ventilation in a healthy adult?a. The cough reflex is activatedb. The sneeze reflex is activatedc. Apnea is triggeredd. An increase in the rate and depth of breathing is activated
Q:
What effect does tactile stimulation of the larynx have on breathing?a. It causes temporary apnea b. It causes hyperpnea c. It causes tachypnead. It causes dyspnea
Q:
Which receptors initiate reflexes in heart rate and breathing in response to changes in systemic blood pressure?a. carotid sinus and aortic baroreceptors b. aortic bodies and carotid bodies c. peripheral proprioceptorsd. J-receptors
Q:
Which reflex or center allows conscious, voluntary control over breathing?a. cerebral cortex b. cerebellum c. hypothalamusd. pons
Q:
Which respiratory reflex or center is triggered by strong emotions?a. hypothalamic controls b. peripheral proprioceptors c. Hering-Breuer reflexd. Irritant reflex
Q:
What effect does an elevated body temperature have on ventilation?a. It causes an increased respiratory rateb. It causes a decreased respiratory ratec. It does not affect ventilationd. It causes apnea
Q:
Which peripheral proprioceptors play a role in initiating and maintaining an increased respiratory rate during exercise?a. proprioceptors in joints and tendons b. proprioceptors in skin c. proprioceptors in musclesd. proprioceptors in muscles and skin
Q:
What effect does sudden pain have on breathing?a. causes a short period of apneab. causes the respiratory rate to increasec. causes a decrease in respiratory rated. causes an increase in tidal volume
Q:
Where are the peripheral proprioceptors located?I. MusclesII. TendonsIII. JointsIV. Pain receptors in skin and musclesa. I, II, III, and IV b. I, II, and IV only c. I and II onlyd. II, III, and IV only
Q:
Which of the following can stimulate the J-receptors?I. Alveolar inflammationII. Pulmonary capillary edemaIII. Pulmonary emboliIV. Hypercapniaa. I, II, and III only b. I, II, II, and IV only c. I and III onlyd. II and III only
Q:
When J-receptors are stilulated, what response is triggered?a. rapid, shallow breathing pattern b. slow, deep breathing pattern c. slow inspiration with breath holdd. rapid, deep breathing pattern
Q:
What is the term for the C-fibers located near the alveolar capillaries?a. J-receptors b. A-receptors c. D-receptorsd. L receptors
Q:
Which of the following may occur when the lungs are exposed to noxious gases and the irritant reflex is activated?I. Ventilatory rate increasesII. Reflex coughIII. SneezeIV. Bronchospasma. I, II, III, and IV b. I and III only c. I, II, and III onlyd. I and III only
Q:
Below what temperature in the bronchi and bronchioles is the Hering-Breuer reflex inactive?a. < 8o C b. < 8o F c. 37o Cd. 98.6o F
Q:
In which age group is the Hering-Breuer reflex most significant?a. newborns b. toddlers c. adults under age 50d. adults over age 50
Q:
Where are the receptors associated with the Hering-Breuer reflex located?a. visceral pleura and walls of bronchi and bronchioleb. parietal pleura and walls of the bronchi and bronchiolesc. intercostal spaces and walls of the bronchi and bronchiolesd. visceral pleura and walls of the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles
Q:
What is another name for the Hering-Breuer reflex?a. inflation reflex b. deflation reflex c. irritant reflexd. Head's paradoxical reflex
Q:
What impact will the administration of a high FIO2 likely have on a patient with chronic hypercapnia and hypoxemia?a. peripheral chemoreceptors may be suppressed by the excess oxygen being administered and ventilation would be depressedb. central chemoreceptors may be suppressed by the high O2 being administered and ventilation would be depressedc. peripheral chemoreceptors may be suppressed due to the low H+ and ventilation would be depressedd. both central and peripheral chemoreceptors would respond by triggering oxygen induced hyperventilation
Q:
What would most likely trigger the peripheral chemoreceptors when uncontrolled diabetes is present?a. excessive H+ accumulation b. low PaCO2 c. low H+ levels in the bloodd. high PaCO2
Q:
In addition to ventilatory changes, which of the following can occur in response to peripheralchemoreceptor stimulation?I. Peripheral vasoconstrictionII. Systemic arterial hypertensionIII. BradycardiaIV. Increased pulmonary vascular resistancea. I, II, and IV only b. I, II, III, and IV c. I and II onlyd. I and IV only
Q:
Which of the following can stimulate the peripheral chemoreceptors?I. HypoperfusionII. Increased temperatureIII. Nicotinea. I, II, and III b. I only c. I and III onlyd. II only
Q:
What is the secondary stimulus of the peripheral chemoreceptors?a. increased H+ level b. decreased PaCO2 c. decreased H+ leveld. increased PaCO2
Q:
If a low-land resident ascends to a high mountain altitude, which of the following would be stimulated first?a. peripheral chemoreceptors due to drop in PaO2b. peripheral chemoreceptors due to drop in PaCO2c. central chemoreceptors due to drop in PaO2d. central chemoreceptors due to increase in H+ in CSF
Q:
In which of the following conditions would PaO2 be normal but CaO2 would be reduced?I. Chronic anemiaII. CO poisoningIII. Methemoglobinemiaa. I, II and III b. I only c. I and III onlyd. I and II only
Q:
When a patient has a low PaO2 with a chronically high PaCO2, how is ventilation exclusively controlled?a. by the peripheral chemoreceptors b. by the central chemoreceptors c. by the VRG and DRGd. by the apneustic center
Q:
At what point are the peripheral chemoreceptors suppressed?a. PaO2 below 30 mm Hg b. PaCO2 below 30 mm Hg c. PaO2 below 60 mmHgd. PaCO2 below 60 mmHg
Q:
At what point are the peripheral chemoreceptors initially activated?a. PaO2 of 60 mmHg b. PaO2 of 30 mmHg c. PaCO2 of 60 mmHgd. PaCO2 of 30 mmHg
Q:
Which nerve transmits afferent signals from the aortic bodies to the medulla?a. X cranial nerve b. IX cranial nerve c. phrenicd. XI cranial nerve
Q:
Which nerve transmits afferent signals from the carotid body to the medulla?a. IX cranial b. X cranial c. XI craniald. phrenic
Q:
Where are the peripheral chemoreceptors located?a. aortic arch and carotid arteries b. lateral walls of medulla oblongata c. lateral walls of ponsd. femoral arteries and aortic arch
Q:
What is the primary stimulus of the peripheral chemoreceptors?a. low PaO2 b. low PO2 of CSF c. changes in PaCO2d. H+ concentration of CSF
Q:
Which of the following can readily cross the blood-brain barrier?I. CO2 moleculesII. Bicarbonate ionsIII. H+ ionsa. I only b. II only c. I and III onlyd. II and III only
Q:
Where are the central chemoreceptors located?a. lateral and ventral portion of the medulla oblongata.b. lateral and ventral portion of the ponsc. aortic arch and carotid bodiesd. lateral walls of cerebral cortex
Q:
What separates the blood from the CSF in the medulla?a. a semipermeable membrane called the blood-brain barrierb. a membrane that is permeable to H+ and bicarbonate ionsc. a thick gelatinous membrane that is impermeable to CO2 moleculesd. nothing-they are in direct contact
Q:
What is the most powerful stimulus of the medullary respiratory centers?a. increased H+ in CSF b. increased PaCO2 c. decreased PaO2d. decreased PaCO2 in CSF
Q:
What effect will a complete injury above C3-C5 have on a patient's spontaneous ventilation?a. complete diaphragmatic paralysis would result -patient would require mechanical ventilationb. partial diaphragmatic paralysis would result -patient would initially require mechanical ventilationc. patient would require supplemental oxygen but would still be able to breathe spontaneouslyd. ventilation would be unaffected since the respiratory centers are safely located in the brain
Q:
Which nerve emerges from the spinal cord between C3 and C5?a. phrenic b. vagus c. IX craniald. XI cranial
Q:
Which portion of the brain receives inhibitory signals from the Hering Breuer reflex?a. apneustic center b. PRG c. DRGd. VRG
Q:
What is the term for prolonged breathing in the inspiratory phase which can result from a pontine lesion?a. apneustic breathing b. apnea c. dyspnead. arrhythmic breathing
Q:
What are the divisions of the pontine respiratory centers?a. PRG and apneustic center b. DRG and apneustic center c. VRG and apneustic centerd. PRG and proprioceptor center
Q:
Which portion of the brain smooths the transition bewteen inspiration and expiration?a. PRG b. apneustic center c. DRGd. VRG
Q:
Which portion of the brain gathers information from the peripheral stretch receptors and relays it to the VRG?a. DRG b. apneustic center c. hypothalamusd. PRG
Q:
Which portion of the brain relays information from the chemoreceptors to the VRG?a. DRG b. PRG c. apneustic centerd. hypothalamus
Q:
At what approximate rate do the VRG's expiratory neurons fire per minute in a healthy adult at rest?a. 12-15 times b. 4-8 times c. 18-22 timesd. 24-28 times
Q:
What effect will supression of the VRG by overdose of alcohol or morphine have on ventilation?a. breathing completely stopsb. respiratory rate increasesc. respiratory rate decreasesd. respiratory rate and depth of breathing increases
Q:
Which of the following are located in the medulla oblongata?I. VRGII. PRGIII. DRGIV. apneustic centera. I and III only b. I and II only c. I, II, and III onlyd. II and IV only
Q:
Which portion of the brain coordinates the rate, depth, and rhythm?a. VRG b. DRG c. PRGd. apneustic center
Q:
Which portion of the brain triggers inspiration?a. VRG b. DRG c. PRGd. apneustic center
Q:
In which portion of the brain controls the rhythmicity of respiration?a. medulla oblongata b. pons c. cerebral cortexd. cerebellum
Q:
What is the normal value for ETCO2 in a healthy young adult?a. 5% b. 8% c. 15%d. 18%
Q:
Which of the following statements are true regarding a capnogram?I. It is a direct measurement of PCO2 eliminated by the lungsII. It is an indirect measurement of PCO2 eliminated by the lungsIII. It is an indirect measurement of PvCO2IV. It is a direct measurement of PaCO2a. I and III only b. I and IV only c. II and III onlyd. II and IV only
Q:
What is the term for the quantity of oxygen and carbon dioxide exchanged in one minute during external respiration?a. respiratory exchange ratio b. respiratory quotient c. ventilation perfusion ratiod. end tidal CO2: O2
Q:
What is the term for the ratio between the volume of oxygen consumed by tissues in one minute and the volume of carbon dioxide produced and is a reflection of internal respiration?a. respiratory quotient b. ventilation-perfusion ratio c. respiratory exchange ratiod. ETCO2/O2
Q:
What effect does a reduced ventilation perfusion ratio have on end-capillary PO2 and PCO2?a. end capillary PO2 will decrease and end capillary PCO2 will increaseb. end capillary PO2 will increase and end capillary PCO2 will decreasec. end capillary PO2 and PCO2 will both decreased. end capillary PO2 will decrease while end capillary PCO2 will remain constant
Q:
What effect would upper airway obstruction have on ventilation-perfusion ratio, PAO2 and PACO2?a. The V/Q ratio and PAO2 will decrease and PACO2 will increaseb. The V/Q ratio and PACO2 will decrease and PAO2 will increasec. The V/Q ratio and PACO2 will increase and PAO2 will decreased. The V/Q ratio and PAO2 will increase and PACO2 will decrease