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Q:
Which of the following conditions is associated with right heart failure?a. cor pulmonale b. pulmonary edema c. pneumothoraxd. pneumonia
Q:
What is the term for an increase in myocardial contractility?a. positive inotropism b. negative inotropism c. positive chronotropismd. negative chronotropism
Q:
Which pulmonary disorder results secondary to left ventricular failure?a. pulmonary edema b. pulmonary emboli c. pneumoniad. pneumothorac
Q:
Which of the following affect ventricular afterload?I. Volume and viscosity of blood ejectedII. Peripheral vascular resistanceIII. Cross-sectional area of vascular space into which blood is ejecteda. I, II, and III b. I only c. II onlyd. III only
Q:
What is the relationship between VEDP and CO called?a. Frank Starling curve b. Bachmann's curve c. Fick's curved. Doppler curve
Q:
In the upright lung of a normal adult, which zone is considered to be gravity dependent?a. Zone 3 b. Top of Zone 1 c. Top of Zone 2d. Bottom of Zone 1
Q:
What is the term for ventilation of alveoli without perfusion?a. alveolar deadspace b. shunt c. silent unitsd. anatomical deadspace
Q:
In the prone position, what is the gravity dependent area of the lungs?a. anterior portion of both lungs b. posterior portion of both lungs c. apices only of both lungsd. bases only of both lungs
Q:
What is the average volume of blood contained in the pulmonary capillary bed of a healthy adult?a. 75 mL b. 150 mL c. 250 mLd. 500 mL
Q:
What portion of the normal adult blood volume is contained in the heart?a. 15% b. 10% c. 25%d. 35%
Q:
What portion of the normal adult blood volume is contained in the pulmonary circulation?a. 10% b. 25% c. 60%d. 75%
Q:
What does the cardiac output equal when stroke volume is 75 mL and heart rate is 80 beats/min?a. 6000 mL/min b. 5600 mL c. 7500 mLd. 4800 mL
Q:
In the normal adult, what is the driving pressure of the systemic circulatory system?a. 98 mm Hg b. 40 mm Hg c. 10 mm Hgd. 78 mm Hg
Q:
What would MAP equal if a patient had a blood pressure of 140/95?a. 110 b. 100 c. 95d. 80
Q:
In a normal adult, what is the normal range for MAP?a. 80-100 b. 60-80 c. 100-120d. 40-60
Q:
What is the normal systolic and diastolic pressure in the pulmonary system?a. 25/8 mm Hg b. 120/80 mm Hg c. 90/60 mm Hgd. 40/20 mm Hg
Q:
In Case Study 1, the patient's blood pressure was 78/42 mm Hg. What would her MAP equal?a. 54 mm Hg b. 62 mm Hg c. 36 mm Hgd. 68 mm Hg
Q:
How effect does hypovolemia have on ventricular preload?a. As preload decreases, cardiac output decreases so BP would dropb. As preload decreases, cardiac output increases so BP would increasec. As preload decreases, cardiac output decreases and BP would increased. Ventricular preload is not affected by hypovolemia
Q:
What is another term for intraluminal pressure?a. intravascular pressure b. transmural pressure c. driving pressured. back pressure
Q:
What is one of the primary goals of carotid sinus massage?a. slow patient's heart rate b. increase heart rate c. increase blood pressured. relieve neck tension
Q:
Which nerve innervates the baroreceptors in the aortic arch?a. vagus b. phrenic c. glossopharyngeald. hypoglossal
Q:
Which nerve innervates the carotid sinuses?a. IX cranial b. X cranial c. XI craniald. phrenic
Q:
What is another name for baroreceptors?a. pressoreceptors b. proprioceptors c. chemoreceptorsd. juxtacapillary receptors
Q:
What is the term for the moderate state of vascular contraction from continuous sympathetic stimulation?a. vasomotor tone b. sensory overload c. hypercontractiond. perpetual sympathesis
Q:
Where is the vasomotor center located?a. medulla oblongata b. pons c. hypothalamusd. cerebral cortex
Q:
What portion of the total blood volume is contained in the venous system?a. 60% b. 80% c. 40%d. 50%
Q:
Which vessels carry blood away from the heart?a. arteries b. veins c. capillariesd. arterioles
Q:
What are the boundaries of the pulmonary vascular system?a. pulmonary trunk to left atriumb. right atrium to left atriumc. aorta to right atriumd. aorta to left ventricle
Q:
Which valve lies at the base of the ascending aorta?a. aortic semilunar b. mitral c. tricuspidd. pulmonary semilunar
Q:
Into what structures does the pulmonary trunk divide?a. right and left pulmonary arteries b. right and left pulmonary veins c. superior and inferior vena cavad. right and left coronary arteries
Q:
Which structures connect the tricuspid valve leaflets to papillary muscles?a. chordae tendinae b. choanae c. coronary ligamentsd. conchae
Q:
What is the name for the tube placed in arteries to structurally help prevent future blockage?a. stent b. angioplasty c. CABGd. catheterization
Q:
What is the term for the procedure in which a radiopaque dye is injected to outline the coronary arteries?a. coronary angiography b. angioplasty c. coronary bypassd. catheterization
Q:
Where does blood collected by the thebesian veins empty?a. right and left atria b. left ventricle c. right ventricled. pulmonary artery
Q:
Which vessels collect the venous blood from the posterior portion of the heart?a. middle cardiac vein b. great cardiac vein c. coronary sinusd. thebesian veins
Q:
Which vessels collect the venous blood from the anterior side of the heart?a. great cardiac veins b. middle cardiac vein c. coronary sinusd. thebesian veins
Q:
Which valve is located at the exit of the right ventricle?a. pulmonary semilunarb. tricuspidc. mitrald. aortic semilunar
Q:
Which valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle?a. bicuspid or mitral b. tricuspid c. pulmonary semilunard. aortic semilunar
Q:
Which valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle?a. tricuspid b. bicuspid c. pulmonary semilunard. aortic semilunar
Q:
Which artery supplies blood to the posterior walls of the ventricles?a. posterior interventricular branch of right coronary arteryb. circumflex branch of left coronary arteryc. marginal branch of right coronary arteryd. anterior interventricular branch of left coronary artery
Q:
Which artery supplies blood to the interventricular septum?a. anterior interventricular branch of left coronary arteryb. circumflex branch of left coronary arteryc. marginal branch of right coronary arteryd. posterior interventricular branch of right coronary artery
Q:
Which artery supplies blood to the left atrium and posterior wall of the left ventricle?a. circumflex branch of left coronary arteryb. anterior interventricular branch of left coronary arteryc. marginal branch of right coronary arteryd. posterior interventricular branch of right coronary artery
Q:
From which layer of the heart wall is the electrical conduction system formed?a. myocardium b. endocardium c. epicardiumd. pericardium
Q:
What is the inner layer of the heart called?a. endocardium b. epicardium c. myocardiumd. pericardium
Q:
What is the middle layer of the heart called?a. myocardium b. epicardium c. endocardiumd. pericardium
Q:
What is the term for a large collection of fluid in the pericardial sac that compresses the underlying structures?a. cardiac tamponade b. pleural effusion c. pulmonary edemad. hemathorax
Q:
What is the clinical term for an inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart?a. pericarditis b. endocarditis c. pleurisyd. myocarditis
Q:
What is the name of the inner-most layer of the pericardium?a. epicardium b. visceral pleura c. serous layer of the mediastinumd. parietal pericardium
Q:
What is the name of the sac that encloses the heart?a. pericardium b. pleura c. mediastinumd. epicardium
Q:
What is the term for the site where the heart is in contact with the chest wall?a. PMI b. POC c. PMCd. MIP
Q:
In what cavity are the heart , great vessels, and thymus gland located?a. mediastinum b. pleural cavity c. peritoneeumd. pericardium
Q:
What structure separates the atria in the heart?a. interatrial septum b. interventricular septum c. conchaed. pericardium
Q:
What portion of plasma is composed of proteins?a. 7% b. 12% c. 2%d. 17%
Q:
Which of the formed elements in the blood contain serotonin?a. platelets b. eosinophils c. basophilsd. neutrophils
Q:
What are the smallest of the formed elements in the blood?a. platelets or thrombocytes b. basophils c. eosinophilsd. lymphocytes
Q:
Which of the WBCs are the largest in size and can differentiate into macrophages?a. monocytes b. neutrophils c. lymphocytesd. basophils
Q:
Which of the lymphocytes produce antibodies?a. B lymphocytes b. T lymphocytes c. NK lymphocytesd. a lymphocytes
Q:
What is the second most numerous leukocyte in the blood?a. Lymphocytes b. Neutrophils c. monocytesd. eosinophils
Q:
Which of the WBs contain heparin and histamine?a. basophils b. eosinophils c. neutrophilsd. monocytes
Q:
Where are eosinophils primarily located?a. lining of the digestive and respiratory tractsb. alveolic. above the vocal cordsd. kidneys, liver, and lining of therespiratory tract
Q:
Which white blood cells normally composes 65% of the total WBC count?a. Neutrophils b. Basophils c. Lymphocytesd. Basophils
Q:
Which of the blood cells are considered to be polymorphonuclear granulocytes?a. Neutrophils b. Basophils c. Lymphocytesd. Basophils
Q:
What information can be obtained from a CBC?I. HemoglobinII. HematocritIII. SpO2IV. WBC Differentiala. I, II, and IV only b. I, II, III, and IV c. I and II onlyd. II and IV only
Q:
Which respiratory disorder would be suspected if a patient had an eosinophil count of 8%?a. asthma b. pulmonary edema c. pulmonary embolid. pneumonia
Q:
What is the term for an increase in the number of WBCs?a. leukocytosis b. polycythemia c. anemiad. leukopenia
Q:
What is the term for the WBC's ability to leave the blood vessel?a. diapedesis b. migration c. transferenced. egression
Q:
Which of the following are agranulocytes?I. LymphocytesII. NeutrophilsIII. EosinophilsIV.Monocytesa. I and IV only b. I, II, II, and IV c. I, II, and IV onlyd. I, III, and IV only
Q:
Which of the following are granulocytes?I. LymphocytesII. NeutrophilsIII. EosinophilsIV.Basophilsa. II, III, and IV only b. I, II, III, and IV c. I onlyd. II and III only
Q:
What is the primary function of leukocytes?a. protection against invading microrganismsb. body temperature regulationc. transport of nutrientsd. clot formation
Q:
Which anemia results from an autosomal recessive hereditary disorder?a. Sickle cell b. hemorrhagic c. nutritional deficiencyd. hemolytic
Q:
Which anemia results from an inadeqaute dietary intake of vitamin B12?a. pernicious b. hemorrhagic c. nutritional deficiencyd. hemolytic
Q:
Which type of anemia is due to snake venom?a. hemolytic b. hemorrhagic c. perniciousd. aplastic
Q:
Which type of anemia is due to blood loss?a. hemorrhagic b. hemolytic c. perniciousd. aplastic
Q:
Which type of anemia is due to a deficiency of iron in the diet?a. nutritional deficiency b. hemorrhagic c. perniciousd. aplastic
Q:
What is the major component of the RBC that accounts for the red color?a. hemoglobin b. myoglobin c. carboxyhemoglobind. methemoglobin
Q:
What is the average lifespan of a RBC?a. 120 days b. 150 days c. 90 daysd. 60 days
Q:
Which organs are responsible for destroying RBCs?a. spleen and liver b. liver and kidneys c. spleen and kidneysd. liver and pancreas
Q:
Where is the bone marrow located that produces erythrocytes?I. CraniumII. VertebraeIII. Ribs and sternumIV. Femura. I, II, III, and IV b. II, III, and IV only c. II and IV onlyd. I, II, and III only
Q:
In a healthy newborn, what is the hematocrit value?a. 45-60% b. 35-45% c. 55-70%d. 25-40%
Q:
In the normal adult male, what is the hematocrit value?a. 45% b. 40% c. 55%d. 50%