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Q:
How does the breathing pattern change when a patient with COPD develops a secondary restrictive lung condition such as pneumonia?a. respiratory rate increasesb. respiratory rate decreases and tidal volume increasec. respiratory rate and tidal volume decrease.d. no breathing pattern changes would occur.
Q:
How does the normal adult's respiratory pattern change when lung compliance decreases?a. respiratory rate increases and tidal volume decreasesb. respiratory rate decreases and tidal volume increasec. respiratory rate and tidal volume increased. respiratory rate and tidal volume decrease.
Q:
What is the term for alteration of the ventilatory pattern to minimize dead space ventilation?a. ventilatory efficiency b. metabolic efficiency c. hyperventilationd. Hyperefficiency
Q:
In a healthy adult at rest, what portion of the total energy output is required for the work of breathing?a. 5% b. 15 % c. 25%d. 35%
Q:
In the upright lung, how does compliance vary across the lung?a. The compliance in the apices is lower than in the basesb. The compliance in the bases is lower than in the apicesc. The compliance is uniform in all regions of the lungd. The compliance is higher at the hilum than in the apices or bases.
Q:
In the upright position, which portion of the lungs has the most negative pleural pressure?a. apexb. basec. hilumd. intrapleural pressure is uniform throughout all lung areas
Q:
What would the minute alveolar ventilation equal if a 6 ft tall, 170 lb male has a VT of 550 mL and a respiratory rate of 11 breaths/min?a. (550-170) x 11 = 4.18 L b. (550 + 170) x 11 = 7.9 L c. 550 + (170 x 11) = 1.87 Ld. 550 - (170/2.2) x 11= 4.65 L
Q:
Which of the following can cause pulmonary emboli?I. Prolonged inactivityII. Pregnancy and childbirthIII. ObesityIV. Hypercoagulation disordersa. I, II, III, and IV b. I and IV only c. I, III, and IV onlyd. I, II, and III only
Q:
How would the addition of a length of tubing between a ventilator and the endotracheal tube affect on dead space?a. It would increase the deadspaceb. It would decrease the deadspacec. It would have no effect on deadspaced. It would have no effect on deadspace but would increase the tidal volume
Q:
What does the sum of anatomic deadspace and alveolar deadspace equal?a. physiologic deadspace b. minute ventilation c. alveolar ventilaiond. total gas exchange
Q:
What is the term for alveolar ventilation without pulmonary capillary perfusion?a. alveolar deadspace b. anatomic deadspace c. physiologic deadspaced. minute alveolar ventilation
Q:
What does frequency multiplied by (VT-VD) equal?a. minute alveolar ventilation b. minute ventilation c. physiologic deadspace ventilationd. alveolar deadspace
Q:
What is the approximate volume of anatomic deadspace?a. 1 mL/lb of ideal body weight b. 2.2 mL/lb of ideal body weight c. 2.2 mL/kg actual body weightd. 1 mL/kg of ideal body weight
Q:
What are the boundaries of anatomic dead space?a. nose and mouth through the terminal bronchiolesb. nose and mouth to the alveolar sacsc. nose and mouth to the segmental bronchid. nose and moth to the bronchioles
Q:
A 5 ft tall female who weighs 300 lb requires mechanical ventilation. If the prescribed tidal volume for this patient's condition is 6 mL/kg IBW, where should the set tidal volume be set?a. approximately 290 mL b. approximately 380 mL c. approximately 520 mLd. approximately 820 mL
Q:
What is the average respiratory rate for a healthy toddler at rest?a. 25 - 40 breaths/min b. 15-24 breaths/min c. 30-60 breaths/mind. 12-20 breaths/min
Q:
With the end expiratory pause is factored in, what is the normal I:E ratio for an adult at rest?a. 1 : 2 b. 1 : 3 c. 1 : 1d. 1 : 2.5
Q:
What is the average respiratory rate for an adult at rest?a. 12-18 breaths/min b. 5-12 breaths/min c. 14-24 breath/mind. 19-26 breaths/min
Q:
What is the term for the volume of gas that is typically measured during exhalation of one quiet breath?a. tidal volume b. expiration c. minute volumed. expiratory reserve volume
Q:
When rapid ventilatory rates occur, what is the term for the condition in which positive pressure remains in the alveoli during exhalation due to the insufficient expiratory time?a. auto-PEEP b. WOB c. pendulluftd. frequency dependence
Q:
What changes in breathing patterns do patients with obstructive pulmonary disorders with increased Raw and increased time constants typically adopt?a. They decrease their respiratory rate and increase their tidal volumeb. The decrease their respiratory rate and tidal volumec. They increase their respiratory rate and tidal volumed. They increase their respiratory rate and decrease their tidal volume
Q:
In the presence of restrictive lung disorders, how do patients typically offset the decreased time constants?a. They adopt an increased respiratory rateb. They adopt a decreased respiratory ratec. They adopt a decreased respiratory rate and add a breath holdd. They adopt a decreased respiratory rate with an increased tidal volume
Q:
What term is defined as "the change in volume of the lungs divided by the change in transpulmonary pressure during the time required for one breath"?a. dynamic compliance b. static compliance c. airway resistanced. time constant
Q:
What effect will increased Raw and increasedCL have on the time constants in the affected lung regions?a. Both factors require more time for the affected region to inflate.b. Both factors require less time for the affected lung region to inflatec. Time constants are unaffected by Raw but will require less time to inflate due to the increased CL.d. Time constants are unaffected by CL. but will require more time to inflate in the affected region due to the increased Raw
Q:
When lung compliance is reduced by half, how will time constants be affected?a. The time constant will be reduced by halfb. The time constants will doublec. The time constant will be reduced to one-fourth of the originald. The time constant will increase to four times the original
Q:
What is defined as "the time required to inflate a lung region to 60% of its filling capacity"?a. time constant b. dynamic compliance c. inspiratory timed. maximum inspiratory time
Q:
Which flow pattern occurs in airways at high flow rates and high pressure gradients?a. turbulent flow b. laminar flow c. tracheobronchial flowd. transitional flow
Q:
Which flow pattern occurs in airways at low flow rates and low pressure-gradients?a. laminar flow b. turbulent flow c. transitional flowd. tracheobronchial flow
Q:
If a patient who generates an intrapleural pressure of -4 mmHg to inhale 450 mL experiences inflammation and bronchospasm that reduce the radius of the bronchial airways to one-half of their original size, what pressure must the patient generate to inhale the same tidal volume?a. 64 mm Hg b. 48 mm Hg c. 20 mm Hgd. 16 mm Hg
Q:
If an individual generates a flow rate of 4 L/sec by generating a transrespiratory pressure of 6 cm H20, what would Raw equal?a. 1.5 cm H20/L/sec b. 0.67 cm H20/L/sec c. 2.4 L/sec/ cm H20d. 1.5 L/sec/cm H20
Q:
What is derived when the pressure difference between the mouth and alveoli is divided by the flowrate?a. airway resistance b. surface tension c. lung complianced. chest wall compliance
Q:
When the radius of the bronchial airways decreases during exhalation, what change must occur to maintain a constant gas flow?a. The transthoracic pressure must vary inversely with the fourth power of the radiusb. The transthoracic pressure must vary directly with the fourth power of the radiusc. The transthoracic pressure must remain constantd. The transthoracic pressure must vary inversely with the second power of the radius
Q:
When Poiseuille's law is rearranged for pressure, what adjustment must be made in driving pressure to maintain the same flowrate when the radius of the tube is reduced by 50% ?a. The pressure must be increased to 16 times the originalb. The pressure must be doubledc. The pressure must be reduced by 50%d. The pressure must be increased to 4 times the original pressure
Q:
When Poiseuille's law is rearranged for flow with pressure remaining constant, what impact would reducing the radius of a tube by 50% have on the gas flow?a. It would be reduced to 1/16 of the original flowb. It would increase to 16 times more than the original flowc. It would increase to 16 times more than the original flowd. It would be reduced to 1/4 the original flow
Q:
What term is used in respiratory care to describe the movement of gas in and out of the lung and the pressure changes required to move the gas?a. dynamic b. static c. passived. respiration
Q:
What is the treatment of choice for the early stages of RDS in premature infants?a. CPAP b. oxygen therapy c. steroidsd. long acting bronchodilators
Q:
Which of the following are accessory muscles of expiration?I. Rectus abdominisII. Transverse abdominisIII. Internal intercostalsIV. Pectoralis majora. I. II, and III only b. I and II only c. II, III, and IV onlyd. I, II, III, and IV only
Q:
Which of the following are accessory muscles of inspiration?I. External intercostalsII. Scalenus musclesIII. Transverse abdominusIV. Trapezius musclesa. I, II, and IV only b. I, III, and IV only c. I and II onlyd. I, II, III, and IV
Q:
Which structure moves in a "pump handle-like motion" during inspiration?a. sternum b. external intercostals c. diaphragmd. internal intercostals
Q:
Which nerves supply the primary motor innervation to the right and left hemidiaphragms?a. phrenic b. vagus c. IX craniald. Thoracic nerves 1-3
Q:
Which ribs are identified as floating ribs?a. 11 and 12 b. 7-12 c. 7-10d. 9-12
Q:
What is one of the most common iatrogenic complications from a thoracentesis?a. pneumothorax b. hemorrhage c. empyemad. pleural effusion
Q:
In a pneumothorax, where does the abnormal collection of air accumulate?a. pleural cavity b. thoracic cavity c. mediastinumd. pericardium
Q:
What is the term for the abnormal collection of fluid in the pleural cavity?a. pleural effusion b. empyema c. pneumothoraxd. hemothorax
Q:
What is the term for inflammation of the pleural membranes?a. pleurisy b. pleural effusion c. empyemad. pneumothorax
Q:
What is the superior portion of the sternum called?a. manubrium sterni b. body c. xiphoid processd. maxilla sterni
Q:
What is the term for the potential space between the visceral and parietal pleura?a. pleural cavity b. mediatinum c. pericardial cavityd. thoracic cavity
Q:
Which structures are contained in the mediastinum?I. TracheaII. Great vesselsIII. Portions of the esophagusIV. Pituitary glanda. I, II, and III only b. I, II, III, and IV c. I and II onlyd. I, II, and IV only
Q:
What is the term for the therapeutic positional measures which utilize gravity to assist in secretion removal from the lungs?a. postural drainage b. vibration c. percussiond. chest wall oscillation
Q:
How many bronchopulmonary segments are located in the lower lobe of the right lung?a. 5 b. 4 c. 3d. 2
Q:
What is the term for the uppermost portion of the upright lung?a. apex b. base c. lingulad. hilum
Q:
In the healthy adult, what are the normal anterior boundaries of the lungs?a. Between first and sixth ribsb. Between first and eigth ribsc. Between the second and ninth ribsd. Between the second and eleventh ribs
Q:
When an acute asthma episode occurs, which quick relief agent is most commonly administered?a. albuterol b. formoterol c. salmeterold. arformoterol
Q:
What effect does stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system have on the body?I. Dilates the pupilsII. Causes bronchodilationIII. Increases rate and force of cardiac contractionsa. I, II, and III b. II and III only c. I and III onlyd. II and III only
Q:
What is the general term for drugs that block the effects of the parasymphathetic nervous system on the bronchial smooth muscle?a. anticholinergic b. beta adrenergic c. parasympathomimeticd. sympathomimetic
Q:
Which neurotransmitter is released when the parasympathetic system is activated?a. acetylcholine b. epinephrine c. norepinephrined. prostaglandin
Q:
What effect does stimulation of the beta 2 receptors have on the pulmonary system?a. bronchdilation b. bronchoconstriction c. vasoconstrictiond. vasodilation
Q:
What is the term for the vessels adjacent to peribronchovascular lymphatic vessels?a. juxta-alveolar lymphatics c. tertiary lymphaticsb. Type IV lymphatics d. cardinal lymphatics
Q:
On which portion(s) of the right lung surfaces would the majority of lymphatic vessels be located?a. lower lobesb. upper lobesc. middle lobed. Lymphatic vessels are distributed equally on all lobes
Q:
From what area deep in the lungs do lymphatic vessels arise?a. loose space of interstitium b. tight space of interstitium c. Type II alveolar cellsd. Type III alveolar cells
Q:
How many pulmonary veins empty into the left atrium?a. 4 b. 2 c. 8d. 0
Q:
What type of epithelium is present in the pulmonary capillaries?a. squamous b. pseudostratified squamous c. cuboidald. pseudostratified columnar
Q:
What is the inner layer of the wall of the pulmonary artery called?a. tunica intima b. tunica media c. tunica adventitiad. tunica externicus
Q:
In which portion of the primary lobule does the majority of gas exchange occur?a. tight space of interstitium b. loose space of intestitium c. Pores of Kohnd. Type II pneumocyte
Q:
Which alveolar cells are macrophages?a. Type III b. Type II c. Type Id. Type IV
Q:
What is the average thickness of the Type I alveolar cell?a. 0.1-0.5 microns b. 0.1-0.5 mm c. 1-5 micronsd. 1-5 mm
Q:
What is the term for the openings in the walls of interalveolar septa?a. Pores of Kohn b. Canals of Lambert c. Clara cellsd. Loose space
Q:
Which alveolar cells are considered to be the source of pulmonary surfactant?a. Type II b. Type III c. Type IVd. Type I
Q:
In the lungs of a healthy young adult male, what is the average surface area available for gas exchange?a. 70 square meters b. 100 square meters c. 300 square metersd. 50 square meters
Q:
What type of epithelium composes 95% of the alveolar surface?a. Type I (squamous pneumocyte)b. Type II (cuboidal)c. Type III (macrophages)d. Type IV (pseudostratified squamous)
Q:
In the adult male, approximately how many alveoli are present in the lungs?a. 300 million b. 600 million c. 180 milliond. 130 million
Q:
Which structures are nourished by the bronchial arteries?a. trachea through the terminal bronchiolesb. respiratory zonec. trachea and mainstem bronchi onlyd. noncartilaginous airways only
Q:
How does the total cross-sectional area of the tracheobrochial tree change from the trachea to the respiratory zone?a. It increases steadily to the terminal bronchioles then increases significantly in the respiratory zoneb. It decreases slightly to the terminal bronchioles then decreases significantlyc. It remains steady throughout the tracheobronchial treed. It increases steadily through the lobar bronchi then increases significantly through the remaining airway generations
Q:
At what point in the tracheobronchial tree are Clara cells present?a. terminal bronchioles b. respiratory bronchioles c. subsegmental bronchid. bronchioles
Q:
At which airway generation do Canals of Lambert appear?a. 16 - 19 b. 12-15 c. 6-9d. 20-26
Q:
Which airways compose the noncartilaginous airways?I. Subsegmental bronchiII. BronchiolesIII. Terminal bronchiolesIV. Respiratory bronchiolesa. II and III only b. I, II, and III only c. II onlyd. I, II, III, and IV
Q:
How many segmental bronchi are found in each of the lungs?a. 10 in right lung, 8 in left lung b. 8 in right lung, 10 in left lung c. each lung has 8d. each lung has 10
Q:
How many second generation bronchi would you find in a healthy adult tracheobronchial tree?a. 5 b. 3 c. 6d. 2
Q:
In an adult, into which structure would an endotracheal tube likely enter if the tube is inadvertently advanced too far?a. right mainstem bronchus b. left mainstem bronchus c. right middle lobar bronchusd. left lower lobar bronchus
Q:
In the newborn, at what angles do the right and left mainstem bronchi form with the trachea?a. both form a 55 degree angleb. both form a 40 degree anglec. right forms a 25 degree angle, left forms a 60 degree angled. right forms a 60 degree angle, left forms a 25 degree angle