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Q:
Which of the following best describes RAID technology?
1. The computer shuts down when a single disk fails.
2. Community clinics use a primary data storage drive.
3. RAID costs more than using one large disk drive.
4. Duplicate disks mirror copies of data.
Q:
Which of the following is not a common input device?
1. Network
2. Keyboard
3. Webcamera
4. Joystick
Q:
________________________________ is defined as an electronic circuitry that executes computer instructions.
Q:
What is the one byte binary code representation for the Arabic number 8?
1. 1000
2. 00001000
3. 2222
4. 11111111
Q:
Which statement best describes the role of the chief privacy officer (CPO)?
1. Duties include protection of the personal health information of patients, both electronic and paper
2. Duties include strategic planning, information security, and overall management of the information system
3. Duties include assigning and monitoring system access identification codes and passwords
4. Duties include design, maintenance, and security of materials placed on the Internet, intranet, and extranet
Q:
______________________________ is the science and technology of engineering devices at the molecular level.
Q:
Many workstations house clinical information systems and provide Internet access in the acute care setting. Which type of software program is most likely to be used by the health care staff providing direct patient care?
1. A programming language such as Java to access the Internet
2. A virus checker to increase security for Internet connections
3. A programming language such as COBOL to create databases
4. A programming language such as Visual Basic to enter data
Q:
Research best supports the use of which ergonomic device?
1. Ergonomic mouse to reduce wrist and hand pain
2. Support brace used while typing to prevent carpal tunnel syndrome
3. Lumbar back support to maintain natural curves of the back
4. Wrist rests to support the wrists while inputting data and typing
Q:
Which of these is an advantage in the use of personal digital assistants (PDAs) in the health care setting?
1. PDAs may be synchronized with any network without the use of special equipment or software.
2. PDAs minimize the chance of interception of data transmission.
3. Current medication information may be easily stored and compared to actual client data.
4. Data loss is minimized due to long battery life and ease of backups.
Q:
Which of these is the most flexible and reliable secondary storage device?
1. DVD drive
2. Magnetic tape drive
3. CD-ROM drive
4. Zip drive
Q:
In which instance is using a wireless device an advantage for health care provider staff?
1. More memory is needed to input data for glucose monitoring and insulin coverage.
2. Error reduction is needed to input data, such as vital signs from a client's isolation room.
3. A larger screen is needed to track data, such as medication administration times with vital signs.
4. An increase in security is needed to prevent physician orders from being intercepted on the Intranet.
Q:
Which example best fits the description of a local area network (LAN)?
1. One server communicates with multiple PCs and printers
2. Office computers are connected through the use of the Internet
3. Client computers are interconnected with multiple servers
4. Internet technology is used to communicate with hospital suppliers
Q:
Health care information plans include adding super users to the hospital staff. Which person is most appropriate for this role?
1. An experienced staff nurse who has been employed at the institution for three years
2. An informatics nurse specialist with a master's degree and informatics certification
3. A newly hired charge nurse who has practiced for ten years in an intensive care unit
4. A clinical nurse specialist for three departments, employed at the institution for six years
Q:
Which health risk related to computer use has been best documented?
1. Miscarriage or sterility
2. Ulnar nerve syndrome
3. Carpal tunnel syndrome
4. Cataracts
Q:
Which statement concerning "thin client technology" is correct?
1. System processing occurs on both the server and on the local PC.
2. A thin client consists of a display with keyboard and requires its own storage device.
3. Software exists on the server, therefore upgrades are done in one step for all clients.
4. When implemented, older PCs formerly used in networking must be replaced.
Q:
Which of the following answers is the best definition of data?
1. Data are a collection of numbers, characters, or facts that are gathered according to some perceived need for analysis and possibly action at a later point in time.
2. Data are the synthesis of information derived from several sources to produce a single concept or idea.
3. The definition of data is knowledge used appropriately to manage and solve problems.
4. The general term data is used to refer to the management and processing of information with the assistance of computers.
Q:
The Informatics Nurse Specialist is an integral member of the health care team with the expertise to:
1. Create a vision of what is possible in the specialty of informatics.
2. Create standardized nursing languages.
3. Create interactive web sites .
4. Create strategic plans for hardware improvement
Q:
Which of the following groups have been selected to help drive the changes necessary to transform the health care delivery system, improve quality of services delivery, and improve safety?
1. Software engineers
2. Members of TIGER initiative
3. Members of the Institute of Medicine
4. Informatics nurse specialists
Q:
___________________________ fills in the educational gap between undergraduate and graduate nursing education programs in informatics.
Q:
The reason that nursing lags behind in the education of nursing informatics specialists is because of which of the following?
1. The surplus of nursing informatics professionals in the hospital setting
2. The lack of qualified faculty in graduate programs
3. Too few nurses are interested in the specialty area
4. Nursing informatics is an expensive specialty with little government funding
Q:
The ________________ has advanced, graduate education in nursing informatics or a related field and may hold ANCC certification.
Q:
Access to patient care data and utilization of nursing research are essential components of evidence-based practice designed to increase patient safety and provide quality care. Which of the following can technology cannot be employed to remove barriers to information and evidence-based practice?
1. Online report cards
2. Handheld devices
3. Electronic spreadsheet software to manage data
4. World Wide Web
Q:
CPOE is an acronym for_____________.
Q:
Technology has been useful in reducing errors by assisting the health care team to identify the patient before rendering care. The most common way for nurses to identify patients using technology is through which of the following?
1. Handheld devices
2. Use of barcodes
3. Use of computers on wheels
4. Reviewing patient monitors
Q:
The Quality and Safety Education for Nursing (QSEN) project sets an agenda to improve the quality and safety of the health care delivery system. To achieve the goals set by QSEN, the Institute of Medicine (IOM) suggested the following competencies for nurses except for which of the following?
1. Patient centered care
2. Team work and collaboration
3. Informatics and evidence-based practice
4. Professional code of conduct
Q:
The TIGER initiative is an acronym for which of the following?
1. Technology Information Grants Electronic Records
2. Technological Initiative Given Electronic Reform
3. Technology Informatics Guiding Education Reform
4. Technology Information Guiding Electronic Reports
Q:
Nurses need to become skilled at using patient-centered IT tools to access information that can expand their knowledge in a just-in-time, evidence-based approach. Which one of these answers best indicates the nurse is functioning as a knowledge worker?
1. The nurse assumes the role of knowledge user.
2. The nurse shifts from primarily using critical thinking to also using critical synthesis.
3. The nurse assumes the roles of data gatherer and information user.
4. The nurse utilizes computerized assessment and documentation forms, including prompts.
Q:
Information is defined as which of the following?
1. The management and processing of facts
2. Interpreted data
3. A collection of numbers, characters, or facts that are needed for analysis and possible action
4. A synthesis of data derived from several sources to produce a single concept or idea
Q:
Which of the following examples demonstrate how nursing informatics helps to support nursing practice?
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1. Quick access to computer-archived patient data from previous encounters
2. Computer-generated client documentation including discharge instructions
3. Computer-generated nursing care plans and critical pathways
4. Tools to assist consumers in assuming greater responsibility for payment for services
5. Prompts that appear during documentation to ensure comprehensive charting
Q:
Which role is only appropriate for the informatics nurse specialist (INS)?
1. Disseminating information for appropriate health care uses
2. Transforming data into information
3. Transforming information into knowledge
4. The design of nursing research protocols and databases
Q:
Which of the following is not associated with information literacy?
1. Recognizing when information is needed
2. Ability to find, evaluate, and effectively use information
3. Familiarity with the use of personal computers and software
4. Understanding ethical issues surrounding the use of information
Q:
Nursing informatics employs information and computer technology to support all aspects of nursing practice, including research. Which is an example of supporting research?
1. Development of a standardized nursing language
2. Identifying evidence of best clinical nursing practices
3. Familiarity with spreadsheets and statistics software and analysis
4. Housing collected client data within automated record systems
Q:
The American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) incorporated the foundation provided by the American Nurses Association (ANA) in its definition of nursing informatics and scope and standards of practice. Applicants for the Informatics Nurse credentialing examination are required to meet which of the following minimum criteria?
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1. Advanced graduate education in nursing informatics (or related field)
2. Equivalent of two years of full-time professional practice
3. Professional clinical practice for at least 500 hours
4. Baccalaureate or higher degree in nursing (or relevant field baccalaureate)
5. Current, active license as a professional nurse
Q:
Knowledge management is a structured process for the generation, storage, distribution, and application of what kind of knowledge in the organization?
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1. Chronological knowledge
2. Redundant knowledge
3. Tacit knowledge (personal experience)
4. Generational knowledge
5. Explicit knowledge (evidence)
Q:
There are no available nursing informatics programs including doctoral degrees; therefore, nurses prepare for advanced practice through medical informatics curriculum. This answer is false because of which of the following reasons?
1. There are a number of accredited advanced nursing education programs in informatics in the United States.
2. Advanced degrees in nursing informatics are available only online in the United States.
3. There is limited interest in advanced education in nursing informatics.
4. There are advanced degrees available in nursing informatics, however, with technology experience there is no need for advanced theoretical education.
Q:
The best estimate of the number of informatics nurses needed over the next few years is which of the following?
1. 500 to 1500
2. 6000 to 12,000
3. 2000 to 5000
4. 15,000 to 25,000
Q:
Over the next few years, nursing informatics and other health informatics disciplines will crisscross, resulting in more interdisciplinary projects. This statement is true because of which of the following reasons?
1. Nurse informatics specialists will work collaboratively with other disciplines to develop user-friendly systems.
2. Nurse informatics specialists will work with other disciplines in an attempt to gain control over the use of the health care technology.
3. Nurse informatics specialists understand all of the disciplines and are able to effect changes in technology.
4. Nurse informatics specialists are knowledgeable about the needs of the typical consumer of technology.
Q:
The role of the informatics nurse does not include assessing the usability of devices for health care consumers. This statement is false because of which of the following reasons?
1. The informatics nurse approves the usability of devices.
2. The development of policy regarding usability is an important part of the informatics nurse's role.
3. The informatics nurse is concerned more with the actual device than the usability.
4. The informatics nurse's role is to work only with the nursing staff and not patients.
Q:
Health care consumers have all the information and tools to make health care choices because they can easily compare quality and cost of care. Which of the following is correct?
1. This statement is true because the tool has been invented.
2. The statement is false because the tool has not been developed.
3. The statement is true because most consumers have Internet access.
4. The statement is true because of the steep learning curve associated with searching the Internet.
Q:
In which way does medical informatics overlap with nursing informatics?
1. Medical and nursing informatics focus on the areas of information retrieval.
2. Medical and nursing informatics focus on patients' families.
3. Medical and nursing informatics focus on hospital complications.
4. Medical and nursing informatics focus on hospital complications.
Q:
A nurse manager wishes to hire a new nurse who has just graduated from nursing school. At the beginning level of informatics competencies, the nurse should be able to do which of the following?
1. Attain informatics nurse certification within six months of beginning practice.
2. Input vital signs and intake and output data in the electronic medical record.
3. Utilize the Internet to review trends in health care information technology.
4. Use an electronic spreadsheet to create staffing rotations.
Q:
A disadvantage to the utilization of the electronic medical record (EMR) includes which of the following?
1. Accessibility from several different locations simultaneously and by different levels of providers
2. The intensive training in the beginning needed to prepare staff members to use the EMR
3. Less time available for client care because more time is required for documentation activity
4. Inability to incorporate diagnostic images into the EMR because of space limitations
Q:
Which action indicates the nurse is functioning as a knowledge worker?
1. The nurse auscultates hypoactive bowel sounds while doing a client assessment eight hours postoperatively after abdominal surgery and documents the assessment in the electronic medical record.
2. The nurse administers four units of regular insulin to the client whose blood glucose is 240 at 11:30 a.m. per physician's sliding scale orders and documents it on the electronic medical administration record.
3. The nurse auscultates diminished breath sounds in a postoperative client the morning after abdominal surgery and encourages the client to turn, cough, and deep breathe every hour instead of every two hours.
4. The nurse obtains the client's vital signs of BP-120/82, P-112, and R-32, totals up the intake of 1040 ml and the output of 1100 ml, and records these data in the electronic medical record.
Q:
Describe at least three factors in the current healthcare delivery system that drive the implementation of information technology in the acute care setting.
1. Patient safety
2. Nursing shortage
3. Evidence-based practice
4. Increased numbers of digital natives in nursing practice
Q:
Which statement regarding pressures that drive the health care delivery system today is not accurate?
1. The current and projected nursing shortage may be eliminated by instituting technology enhancements in the acute care setting.
2. Evidence-based practice is supported with technology that enables the health care provider to utilize up-to-date research findings.
3. Medication errors and adverse events may be reduced with the implementation of computerized physician order entry (CPOE).
4. Managed care may utilize disease management to identify clients with chronic conditions, and treat them effectively to minimize complications and cost.
Q:
Which statement indicates the appropriate level of informatics competencies to the correct nurse?
1. A nurse informatics specialist extrapolates data to develop best practice model for indwelling catheter care.
2. The novice nurse using a spreadsheet to document medication reactions.
3. An experienced staff nurse creates databases employing SNOMED.
4. A beginning nurse utilizes the Internet to integrate multidisciplinary languages.
Q:
Which statement best distinguishes the difference between information literacy and computer literacy?
1. Information literacy is unnecessary in health care whereas computer literacy provides the basis for computer order entry.
2. Information literacy is the foundation of the EHR whereas computer literacy helps the nurse to access data.
3. A nurse can extrapolate data with computer literacy and not information skills.
4. Information literacy forms the basis for ongoing learning whereas computer literacy refers to a familiarity with the use of personal computers.
Q:
The nurse gathers much data when caring for clients. Which is an example of the higher-level "information" useful in caring for clients?
1. The vital signs are BP of 130/70, HR of 88, RR of 24, temperature of 98.8 degrees F., and oxygen saturation of 98%.
2. Lab work results include an electrolyte panel and complete blood count with differential.
3. The client is a widowed 64-year-old black male admitted with prostatitis.
4. After receiving Rocephin (ceftriaxone sodium) 1.0 gram IV yesterday, the client reported feeling better today.
Q:
Which statement by the nurse verifies that the nurse is "information literate"?
1. "I understand how to search for a website and evaluate its usefulness for health care needs."
2. "I utilize databases in the health care setting to input client information such as skin condition."
3. "I use email over the Internet to correspond with clients and provide information."
4. "I can use software applications such as word processing, spreadsheets, and presentations."
Q:
The nurse understands that nursing informatics is recognized as a specialty area of practice by which statement?
1. Research priorities for nursing informatics include the development of a standard nursing language and the development of databases for clinical information.
2. A formal educational program at the master's level must be completed before a nurse is eligible to sit for the credentialing examination.
3. As a differentiated practice, nursing informatics is focused upon the client, the environment, health, and the nurse.
4. There is a need for nursing informatics interests to gain representation by work groups and organizations within the United States.
Q:
Standard management of chemical burn caused by a terrorist incident includes:
A) rinsing the area with ice water.
B) using a neutralizing agent.
C) leaving any corrosive materials on the skin.
D) irrigating vigorously with cool water.
Q:
Which of the following methods of decontamination is NOT usually a prehospital activity during a terrorism incident?
A) Dilution
B) Absorption
C) Neutralization
D) Isolation
Q:
Which of the following is NOT traditionally a responsibility of an EMT on the scene of a hazardous materials incident caused by terrorism?
A) Scene size-up
B) Containment and control
C) Assessment of the toxicological risk
D) Activation of the incident management system (IMS)
Q:
Tertiary injuries from a blast include:
A) extremity fractures.
B) bowel perforations.
C) lung injuries.
D) impaled objects.
Q:
Secondary injuries from a blast include:
A) extremity fractures.
B) liver lacerations.
C) lung injuries.
D) impaled objects.
Q:
Primary injuries from a blast include:
A) extremity fractures.
B) liver lacerations.
C) lung injuries.
D) impaled objects.
Q:
Concerning the threat of nuclear devices used in terrorist attacks, which of the following is MOST likely to be used in such an attack?
A) Military nuclear device
B) Improvised nuclear weapon
C) Radiological dispersal device
D) Sabotage of facilities for nuclear research
Q:
Biological warfare is MOST effective when the agent can gain access through which of the following routes?
A) Blood
B) Gastrointestinal tract
C) Respiratory tract
D) Skin
Q:
Which of the following does NOT have an impact on the behavior of a chemical in a mass-casualty incident?
A) Physical state of the agent
B) Route of entry into the body
C) Whether it was an intentional or accidental exposure
D) Volatility of the agent
Q:
An outbreak of which of the following illnesses would be LEAST likely to occur naturally?
A) Anthrax
B) Venezuelan encephalitis
C) Smallpox
D) Botulism
Q:
Which of the following chemical agents prohibits the use of oxygen in the cells?
A) Nerve agents
B) Blister agents
C) Cyanide
D) All of the above
Q:
The best way for a terrorist to weaponize and disseminate a chemical nerve agent exposing a large number of people would be to:
A) put it in a paper bag in a crowded mall and puncture the bag with a stick.
B) throw a paper bag loaded with nerve agent onto a busy subway train.
C) steal a truck that sprays for mosquitos and aerosolize the nerve agent into a crowded subdivision.
D) throw a Molotov cocktail loaded with nerve agent into a windshield of a passenger bus.
Q:
Which of the following animals is the direct source of exposure of the bacterium that causes the plague to humans?
A) Fleas
B) Squirrels
C) Rats
D) Bees
Q:
Which of the following features increases the appeal of an infectious agent for use in terrorist attacks?
A) Low virulence
B) Instability
C) High infectivity
D) Low potency
Q:
Anthrax can infect an individual through which of the following routes of exposure?
A) Inhalation
B) Skin
C) Ingestion
D) All of the above
Q:
Someone who has more hair than average on his body is at a higher risk than someone with less hair to be exposed to a toxin by which of the following routes?
A) Ingestion
B) Injection
C) Inhalation
D) Absorption
Q:
Terrorist incidents typically involve all of the following agents except:
A) explosives.
B) biological agents.
C) allergens.
D) nuclear agents.
Q:
Which of the following types of radiation emits the most powerful rays?
A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Delta
D) Gamma
Q:
The formula dose multiplied by time represents which of the following?
A) Lethal dose
B) Concentration
C) Exposure
D) Critical level
Q:
Three methods for minimizing exposure to harmful incidents are:
A) time, decontamination, and shielding.
B) technique, distance, and serum.
C) time, distance, and shielding.
D) time, decontamination, and serum.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a consideration in the general protection against agents used in terrorist attacks?
A) Immunization
B) Distance from event
C) Shielding from the agent
D) Duration of exposure
Q:
The extent of radiation depends on which of the following factors?
A) Duration of exposure
B) Distance from the source
C) Shielding from the source
D) All of the above
Q:
The type of radiation that requires lead shielding for your protection is:
A) alpha.
B) beta.
C) delta.
D) gamma.
Q:
You are on an ambulance responding to a mass-casualty incident at a shopping mall on a warm Saturday afternoon. En route, you listen to the incident commander broadcast information to dispatch and all inbound units about 20 patients complaining of respiratory difficulty and a burning sensation in their eyes. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result of:
A) the location of the call.
B) the type of event.
C) the timing of the event.
D) on-scene warning signs.
Q:
An oxygen level of ________ is required for normal breathing.
A) 10.5%
B) 16.5%
C) 25.5%
D) 19.5%
Q:
A terrorist incident may have features in common with which of the following types of incidents?
A) Infectious disease
B) Mass casualty
C) Hazardous materials
D) All of the above
Q:
Which of the following may be a clue that an incident is the result of terrorist violence?
A) Function of the target
B) Number of people present
C) Occurrence on the anniversary of a significant or symbolic historical event
D) All of the above
Q:
The current trend in international terrorism is that it tends to be motivated by which of the following?
A) Ethics
B) Politics
C) Religion
D) Environmental issues
Q:
You are on the scene of a probable terrorist attack with several other agencies, both local and federal. In order to operate in an efficient manner, all agencies should follow the:
A) Incident Control System.
B) Interagency Command System.
C) Incident Command System.
D) Interagency Communication System.
Q:
A type of harm that you may be exposed to as an EMT responding to a terrorist incident that is characterized by a resulting post-traumatic stress disorder (PSTD) is typically called a(n):
A) etiological harm.
B) radiological harm.
C) psychological harm.
D) thermal harm.